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• How to do something when AVQueuePlayer finishes the last playeritem

  - by user1634529

  I've got an AVQueuePlayer which I'm creating from an array of 4 AVPlayerItems, and it all plays fine. I want to do something when the last item in the queue finishes playing, I've looked a load of answers on here and this is the one that looks most promising for what I want: The best way to execute code AFTER a sound has finished playing In my button handler i have this code: static const NSString *ItemStatusContext; [thePlayerItemA addObserver:self forKeyPath:@"status" options:0 context:&ItemStatusContext]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(playerItemDidReachEnd) name:AVPlayerItemDidPlayToEndTimeNotification object:thePlayerItemA]; theQueuePlayer = [AVQueuePlayer playerWithPlayerItem:thePlayerItemA]; [theQueuePlayer play]; and then I have a function to handle playerItemDidReachEnd: - (void)playerItemDidReachEnd:(NSNotification *)notification { // Do stuff here NSLog(@"IT REACHED THE END"); } But when I run this I get an Internal Inconsistency Exception: An -observeValueForKeyPath:ofObject:change:context: message was received but not handled. Key path: status Observed object: <AVPlayerItem: 0x735a130, asset = <AVURLAsset: 0x73559c0, URL = file://localhost/Users/mike/Library/Application%20Support/iPhone%20Simulator/5.0/Applications/A0DBEC13-2DA6-4887-B29D-B43A78E173B8/Phonics%2001.app/yes.mp3>> Change: { kind = 1; } What am I doing wrong?

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• How to catch this low level MySQL (?) error in PHP/Magento

  - by andnil

  When I'm executing the following statement in Magento with a really large $sku, the execution terminates without any errors thrown what so ever. There are no errors in either Magento's, Apache's or PHP's error logs. Mage::getModel('catalog/product')-loadByAttribute('sku', $sku); Question: How do I catch the error? I've tried to set custom error handlers, and for testing purposes I've also managed to trigger error situations where each of the error handler functions are invoked. But when running the previously mentioned Magento code with a large $sku, none of the error handling functions are executed. error_reporting( -1 ); set_error_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureNormal' ) ); set_exception_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureException' ) ); register_shutdown_function( array( 'Error', 'captureShutdown' ) ); For completeness, this is the $sku I'm passing to loadByAttribute(). (The sku is invalid, but that is not the issue) 1- 9685 0102046|1- 9685 1212100|1- 9685 1212092|1- 9685 1212096|1- 9685 1102100|1- 9685 1102108|1- 9685 1102112|1- 9685 1102092|1- 9685 0102048|1- 9685 0102054|1- 9685 0102056|1- 9685 0102058|1- 9685 1212104|1- 9685 1212108|1- 9685 0212058|1- 9685 0104050|1- 9685 0212050|1- 9685 0212056|1- 9685 0212044|1- 9685 0212048|1- 9685 0212052|1- 9685 0212054|1- 9685 1102104|1- 9685 1102124 Any insight into this matter is much appreciated! Update: Upon further investigation, this is the exact point in the code where execution terminates. when the foreach is executed I guess Magento goes into MySQL world and starts loading up data from the database. \Mage\Catalog\Model\Abstract.php public function loadByAttribute($attribute, $value, $additionalAttributes = '*') { $collection = $this->getResourceCollection() ->addAttributeToSelect($additionalAttributes) ->addAttributeToFilter($attribute, $value) ->setPage(1,1); foreach ($collection as $object) { // <--------------- HERE return $object; } return false; } Note, I'm ONLY interested in finding out how to properly CATCH these kinds of errors, not "fix" the logic. This is so that I can present a proper error message to the user. The example above with the malformed sku is contrived and I have no desire to make my Magento app work with those erroneous skus.

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• Any techniques to interrupt, kill, or otherwise unwind (releasing synchronization locks) a single de

  - by gojomo

  I have a long-running process where, due to a bug, a trivial/expendable thread is deadlocked with a thread which I would like to continue, so that it can perform some final reporting that would be hard to reproduce in another way. Of course, fixing the bug for future runs is the proper ultimate resolution. Of course, any such forced interrupt/kill/stop of any thread is inherently unsafe and likely to cause other unpredictable inconsistencies. (I'm familiar with all the standard warnings and the reasons for them.) But still, since the only alternative is to kill the JVM process and go through a more lengthy procedure which would result in a less-complete final report, messy/deprecated/dangerous/risky/one-time techniques are exactly what I'd like to try. The JVM is Sun's 1.6.0_16 64-bit on Ubuntu, and the expendable thread is waiting-to-lock an object monitor. Can an OS signal directed to an exact thread create an InterruptedException in the expendable thread? Could attaching with gdb, and directly tampering with JVM data or calling JVM procedures allow a forced-release of the object monitor held by the expendable thread? Would a Thread.interrupt() from another thread generate a InterruptedException from the waiting-to-lock frame? (With some effort, I can inject an arbitrary beanshell script into the running system.) Can the deprecated Thread.stop() be sent via JMX or any other remote-injection method? Any ideas appreciated, the more 'dangerous', the better! And, if your suggestion has worked in personal experience in a similar situation, the best!

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• How to implement iterator as an attribute of a class in Java

  - by de3

  Hi, let's say I have this simple MyArray class, with two simple methods: add, delete and an iterator. In the main method we can see how it is supposed to be used: public class MyArray { int start; int end; int[] arr; myIterator it; public MyArray(){ this.start=0; this.end=0; this.arr=new int[500]; it=new myIterator(); } public void add(int el){ this.arr[this.end]=el; this.end++; } public void delete(){ this.arr[this.start]=0; this.start++; } public static void main(String[] args){ MyArray m=new MyArray(); m.add(3); m.add(299); m.add(19); m.add(27); while(m.it.hasNext()){ System.out.println(m.it.next()); } } And then MyIterator should be implemented somehow: import java.util.Iterator; public class myIterator implements Iterator{ @Override public boolean hasNext() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return false; } @Override public Object next() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return null; } @Override public void remove() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } } MyIterator should iterate arr from MyArray class, from start to end values; both are also attributes of MyArray. So, as MyIterator should use MyArray attributes, how should MyIterator be implemented? Perhaps I can send the current object in the initialization: it=new myIterator(this); But I guess it's not the best soultion. Or maybe MyArray itself should implement Iterator interface? How is this solved?

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• How to make 2 incompatible types, but with the same members, interchangeable?

  - by Quigrim

  Yesterday 2 of the guys on our team came to me with an uncommon problem. We are using a third-party component in one of our winforms applications. All the code has already been written against it. They then wanted to incorporate another third-party component, by the same vender, into our application. To their delight they found that the second component had the exact same public members as the first. But to their dismay, the 2 components have completely separate inheritance hierarchies, and implement no common interfaces. Makes you wonder... Well, makes me wonder. An example of the problem: public class ThirdPartyClass1 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass1"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass1 is doing its thing."); } } public class ThirdPartyClass2 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass2"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass2 is doing its thing."); } } Gladly they felt copying and pasting the code they wrote for the first component was not the correct answer. So they were thinking of assigning the component instant into an object reference and then modifying the code to do conditional casts after checking what type it was. But that is arguably even uglier than the copy and paste approach. So they then asked me if I can write some reflection code to access the properties and call the methods off the two different object types since we know what they are, and they are exactly the same. But my first thought was that there goes the elegance. I figure there has to be a better, graceful solution to this problem.

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• Problem accessing private variables in jQuery like chainable design pattern

  - by novogeek

  Hi folks, I'm trying to create my custom toolbox which imitates jQuery's design pattern. Basically, the idea is somewhat derived from this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2061501/jquery-plugin-design-pattern-common-practice-for-dealing-with-private-function (Check the answer given by "David"). So here is my toolbox function: (function(window){ var mySpace=function(){ return new PrivateSpace(); } var PrivateSpace=function(){ var testCache={}; }; PrivateSpace.prototype={ init:function(){ console.log('init this:', this); return this; }, ajax:function(){ console.log('make ajax calls here'); return this; }, cache:function(key,selector){ console.log('cache selectors here'); testCache[key]=selector; console.log('cached selector: ',testCache); return this; } } window.hmis=window.m$=mySpace(); })(window) Now, if I execute this function like: console.log(m$.cache('firstname','#FirstNameTextbox')); I get an error 'testCache' is not defined. I'm not able to access the variable "testCache" inside my cache function of the prototype. How should I access it? Basically, what I want to do is, I want to cache all my jQuery selectors into an object and use this object in the future.

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• In Ruby or Python can the very idea of Class be rewritten?

  - by John Berryman

  Howdy All... first time at stack overflow. I'm looking into using some of the metaprogramming features provided by Ruby or Python, but first I need to know the extent to which they will allow me to extend the language. The main thing I need to be able to do is to rewrite the concept of Class. This doesn't mean that I want to rewrite a specific class during run time, but rather I want to make my own conceptualization of what a Class is. To be a smidge more specific here, I want to make something that is like what people normally call a Class, but I want to follow an "open world" assumption. In the "closed world" of normal Classes, if I declare Poodle to be a subclass of Dog to be a subclass of Animal, then I know that Poodle is not going to also be a type of FurCoat. However, in an open world Class, then the Poodle object I've defined may or may not be and object of type FurCoat and we won't know for sure until I explain that I can wear the poodle. (Poor poodle.) This all has to do with a study I'm doing concerning OWL ontologies. Just so you know, I've tried to find information online, but due to the overloading of terms here I haven't found anything helpful. Super thanks, John

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• Class with property referenced with dll not serializing

  - by djerry

  Hey guys, I got this class TapiCall. It has 4 properties : 2 datetimes, 1 string and an object. The object is a class that's referenced by Atapi3.dll, so i cannot alter it. My class TapiCall looks like this : [DataContract] public class TapiCall { private DateTime start, end; private TCall call; private string status; [DataMember] public string Status { get { return status; } set { status = value; } } [DataMember] public TCall Call { get { return call; } set { call = value; } } [DataMember] public DateTime End { get { return end; } set { end = value; } } [DataMember] public DateTime Start { get { return start; } set { start = value; } } public TapiCall() { } public TapiCall(DateTime start, DateTime end, TCall call) { this.Start = start; this.End = end; this.Call = call; } } Now when i use my visual studio command line, to generate my proxy class, it generates an error. When i remove TapiCall from the method in my app, i can rebuild my proxy again, so i know [OperationContract] void StuurUpdatedCall(TapiCall tpCall); is causing the problem. My question now is can i Serialize a class that's referenced by a dll? Thanks in advance.

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• What is the best way to get a reference to a spring bean in the backend layers?

  - by java_pill

  I have two spring config files and I'm specifying them in my web.xml as in below. web.xml snippet .. <context-param> <param-name>contextConfigLocation</param-name> <param-value>WEB-INF/classes/domain-context.xml WEB-INF/classes/client-ws.xml</param-value> </context-param> <listener> <listener-class>org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener</listener-class> </listener> .. From my domain object I have to invoke a Web Service Client and in order to get a reference to the Web Service client I do this: ApplicationContext context = new ClassPathXmlApplicationContext("client-ws.xml"); //b'cos I don't want to use WebApplicationContextUtils ProductServiceClient client = (ProductServiceClient) context.getBean("productClient"); .. client.find(prodID); //calls a Web Service .. However, I have concerns that looking up the client-ws.xml file and getting a reference to the ProductServiceClient bean is not efficient. I thought of getting it using WebApplicationContextUtils. However, I don't want my domain objects to have a dependency on the ServletContext (a web/control layer object) because WebApplicationContextUtils depends on ServletContext. What is the best way to get a reference to a spring bean in the backend layers? Thanks!

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• Extra NotifyIcon shown in system tray

  - by Kettch19

  I'm having an issue with an app where my NotifyIcon displays an extra icon. The steps to reproduce it are easy, but the problem is that the extra icon shows up after any of the actual codebehind we've added fires. Put simply, clicking a button triggers execution of method FooBar() which runs all the way through fine but its primary duty is to fire a backgroundworker to log into another of our apps. It only appears if this particular button is clicked. Strangely enough, we have a WndProc method override and if I step through until the extra NotifyIcon appears, it always appears during this method so something else beyond the codebehind must be triggering the behavior. Our WndProc method is currently (although I don't think it's caused by the WndProc): Protected Overrides Sub WndProc(ByRef m As System.Windows.Forms.Message) 'Check for WM_COPYDATA message from other app or drag/drop action and handle message If m.Msg = NativeMethods.WM_COPYDATA Then ' get the standard message structure from lparam Dim CD As NativeMethods.COPYDATASTRUCT = m.GetLParam(GetType(NativeMethods.COPYDATASTRUCT)) 'setup byte array Dim B(CD.cbData) As Byte 'copy data from memory into array Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.Copy(New IntPtr(CD.lpData), B, 0, CD.cbData) 'Get message as string and process ProcessWMCopyData(System.Text.Encoding.Default.GetString(B)) 'empty array Erase B 'set message result to 'true', meaning message handled m.Result = New IntPtr(1) End If 'pass on result and all messages not handled by this app MyBase.WndProc(m) End Sub The only place in the code where the NotifyIcon in question is manipulated at all is in the following event handler (again, don't think this is the culprit, but just for more info): Private Sub TrayIcon_MouseDoubleClick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles TrayIcon.MouseDoubleClick If Me.Visible Then Me.Hide() Else PositionBottomRight() Me.Show() End If End Sub The backgroundworker's DoWork is as follows (just a class call to log in to our other app, but again just for info): Private Sub LoginBackgroundWorker_DoWork(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.ComponentModel.DoWorkEventArgs) Handles LoginBackgroundWorker.DoWork Settings.IsLoggedIn = _wdService.LogOn(Settings.UserName, Settings.Password) End Sub Does anyone else have ideas on what might be causing this or how to possibly further debug this? I've been banging my head on this without seeing a pattern so another set of eyes would be extremely appreciated. :) I've posted this on MSDN winforms forums as well and have had no luck there so far either.

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• What access token should i use?

  - by user548458

  I made a posting scores. It worked normaly sometimes. But, now I cant post any score. If I use user accessToken: string path = meID + "/scores"; var parameters = new Dictionary<string, object> (){ { "score", score.ToString () }, { "access_token", accessToken } }; facebook.post (path, parameters, ( error, obj ) => I get error: {"error":{"message":"(#15) This method must be called with an app access_token.", "type":"OAuthException", "code":15}} If I use an app access token: string path = meID + "/scores"; var parameters = new Dictionary<string, object> () { { "score", score.ToString () }, { "access_token", appAccessToken } }; facebook.post (path, parameters, ( error, obj ) => I get other error: {"error":{"message":"A user access token is required to request this resource.", "type":"OAuthException", "code":102}} Help me please, what am i doing wrong? PS: I worked well recently, but now - dont. Cant explain it...

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• lambda expressions in VB.NET... what am I doing wrong???

  - by Bob

  when I run this C# code, no problems... but when I translate it into VB.NET it compiles but blows due to 'CompareString' member not being allowed in the expression... I feel like I'm missing something key here... private void PrintButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (ListsListBox.SelectedIndex > -1) { //Context using (ClientOM.ClientContext ctx = new ClientOM.ClientContext(UrlTextBox.Text)) { //Get selected list string listTitle = ListsListBox.SelectedItem.ToString(); ClientOM.Web site = ctx.Web; ctx.Load(site, s => s.Lists.Where(l => l.Title == listTitle)); ctx.ExecuteQuery(); ClientOM.List list = site.Lists[0]; //Get fields for this list ctx.Load(list, l => l.Fields.Where(f => f.Hidden == false && (f.CanBeDeleted == true || f.InternalName == "Title"))); ctx.ExecuteQuery(); //Get items for the list ClientOM.ListItemCollection listItems = list.GetItems( ClientOM.CamlQuery.CreateAllItemsQuery()); ctx.Load(listItems); ctx.ExecuteQuery(); // DOCUMENT CREATION CODE GOES HERE } MessageBox.Show("Document Created!"); } } but in VB.NET code this errors due to not being allowed 'CompareString' members in the ctx.Load() methods... Private Sub PrintButton_Click(sender As Object, e As EventArgs) If ListsListBox.SelectedIndex > -1 Then 'Context Using ctx As New ClientOM.ClientContext(UrlTextBox.Text) 'Get selected list Dim listTitle As String = ListsListBox.SelectedItem.ToString() Dim site As ClientOM.Web = ctx.Web ctx.Load(site, Function(s) s.Lists.Where(Function(l) l.Title = listTitle)) ctx.ExecuteQuery() Dim list As ClientOM.List = site.Lists(0) 'Get fields for this list ctx.Load(list, Function(l) l.Fields.Where(Function(f) f.Hidden = False AndAlso (f.CanBeDeleted = True OrElse f.InternalName = "Title"))) ctx.ExecuteQuery() 'Get items for the list Dim listItems As ClientOM.ListItemCollection = list.GetItems(ClientOM.CamlQuery.CreateAllItemsQuery()) ctx.Load(listItems) ' DOCUMENT CREATION CODE GOES HERE ctx.ExecuteQuery() End Using MessageBox.Show("Document Created!") End If End Sub

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• How do software events work internally?

  - by Duddle

  Hello! I am a student of Computer Science and have learned many of the basic concepts of what is going on "under the hood" while a computer program is running. But recently I realized that I do not understand how software events work efficiently. In hardware, this is easy: instead of the processor "busy waiting" to see if something happened, the component sends an interrupt request. But how does this work in, for example, a mouse-over event? My guess is as follows: if the mouse sends a signal ("moved"), the operating system calculates its new position p, then checks what program is being drawn on the screen, tells that program position p, then the program itself checks what object is at p, checks if any event handlers are associated with said object and finally fires them. That sounds terribly inefficient to me, since a tiny mouse movement equates to a lot of cpu context switches (which I learned are relatively expensive). And then there are dozens of background applications that may want to do stuff of their own as well. Where is my intuition failing me? I realize that even "slow" 500MHz processors do 500 million operations per second, but still it seems too much work for such a simple event. Thanks in advance!

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• Passing mix of T and T[] to a Java varargs method

  - by rfalke

  Suppose you have a Java method void foobar(int id, String ... args) and want to pass both String arrays and Strings into the method. Like this String arr1[]={"adas", "adasda"}; String arr2[]={"adas", "adasda"}; foobar(0, "adsa", "asdas"); foobar(1, arr1); foobar(2, arr1, arr2); foobar(3, arr1, "asdas", arr2); In Python there is "*" for this. Is there some way better than such rather ugly helper method: static String[] concat(Object... args) { List<String> result = new ArrayList<String>(); for (Object arg : args) { if (arg instanceof String) { String s = (String) arg; result.add(s); } else if (arg.getClass().isArray() && arg.getClass().getComponentType().equals(String.class)) { String arr[] = (String[]) arg; for (String s : arr) { result.add(s); } } else { throw new RuntimeException(); } } return result.toArray(new String[result.size()]); } which allows foobar(4, concat(arr1, "asdas", arr2));

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• Unable to Connect to Management Studio Server

  - by Phil Hilliard

  I have a nasty situation. I am using Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio Express edition locally on my pc for testing, and once tested I upload database changes to a remote server. I have a situation where I deleted the Default Database on my local machine, and instead of searching hard enough to find an answer to that problem, I uninstalled and reinstalled Management Studio. Since then Management Studio has not been able to connect to the server. Is there any help (or hope for me for that matter), out there????? The following is the detailed error message: =================================== Cannot connect to LENOVO-E7A54767\SQLEXPRESS. =================================== A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) (.Net SqlClient Data Provider) ------------------------------ For help, click: http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink?ProdName=Microsoft+SQL+Server&EvtSrc=MSSQLServer&EvtID=-1&LinkId=20476 ------------------------------ Error Number: -1 Severity: 20 State: 0 ------------------------------ Program Location: at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Connect(ServerInfo serverInfo, SqlInternalConnectionTds connHandler, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, Boolean encrypt, Boolean trustServerCert, Boolean integratedSecurity, SqlConnection owningObject) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.AttemptOneLogin(ServerInfo serverInfo, String newPassword, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, SqlConnection owningObject) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.LoginNoFailover(String host, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance, SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Int64 timerStart) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.OpenLoginEnlist(SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds..ctor(DbConnectionPoolIdentity identity, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Object providerInfo, String newPassword, SqlConnection owningObject, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreateNonPooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPoolGroup poolGroup) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open() at Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.UI.VSIntegration.ObjectExplorer.ObjectExplorer.ValidateConnection(UIConnectionInfo ci, IServerType server) at Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.UI.ConnectionDlg.Connector.ConnectionThreadUser()

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• memory leak when removing objects in NSMutableArray

  - by user262325

  Hello everyone I hope to store MYFileObj to NSMutableArray (fileArray) and display data on an UITavleView(tableview). //----------------------------------MYFileObj #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface MYFileObj : NSObject { NSString *fileName; } -(void) setFileName:(NSString *)s ; -(NSString *) fileName ; @end the array I want to store data NSMutableArray *fileArray; I created new object and add to fileArray MYFileObj *newobj=[[MYFileObj alloc] init ]; NSString *ss=[[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"%@",path] ; [newobj setFileName:ss]; [ss release]; [fileArray addObject:newobj]; [newobj release]; [atableview reloadData]; After the first time relaodData and do something, I want to reload fileArray and redraw atableview. //code to remove all object in atableview if([fileArray count]>0) { [fileArray removeAllObjects]; [atableview reloadData]; } I notice that there are memory leak. I hope to know the method "removeAllObjects" removes only MYFileObj themselves or also removes MYFileObj's member property "fileName"? Thanks interdev

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• Stable/repeatable random sort (MySQL, Rails)

  - by Matt Rogish

  I'd like to paginate through a randomly sorted list of ActiveRecord models (rows from MySQL database). However, this randomization needs to persist on a per-session basis, so that other people that visit the website also receive a random, paginate-able list of records. Let's say there are enough entities (tens of thousands) that storing the randomly sorted ID values in either the session or a cookie is too large, so I must temporarily persist it in some other way (MySQL, file, etc.). Initially I thought I could create a function based on the session ID and the page ID (returning the object IDs for that page) however since the object ID values in MySQL are not sequential (there are gaps), that seemed to fall apart as I was poking at it. The nice thing is that it would require no/minimal storage but the downsides are that it is likely pretty complex to implement and probably CPU intensive. My feeling is I should create an intersection table, something like: random_sorts( sort_id, created_at, user_id NULL if guest) random_sort_items( sort_id, item_id, position ) And then simply store the 'sort_id' in the session. Then, I can paginate the random_sorts WHERE sort_id = n ORDER BY position LIMIT... as usual. Of course, I'd have to put some sort of a reaper in there to remove them after some period of inactivity (based on random_sorts.created_at). Unfortunately, I'd have to invalidate the sort as new objects were created (and/or old objects being removed, although deletion is very rare). And, as load increases the size/performance of this table (even properly indexed) drops. It seems like this ought to be a solved problem but I can't find any rails plugins that do this... Any ideas? Thanks!!

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• Writing a generic function that can take a Writer as well as an OutputStream

  - by ebruchez

  I wrote a couple of functions that look like this: def myWrite(os: OutputStream) = {} def myWrite(w: Writer) = {} Now both are very similar and I thought I would try to write a single parametrized version of the function. I started with a type with the two methods that are common in the Java OutputStream and Writer: type Writable[T] = { def close() : Unit def write(cbuf: Array[T], off: Int, len: Int): Unit } One issue is that OutputStream writes Byte and Writer writes Char, so I parametrized the type with T. Then I write my function: def myWrite[T, A[T] <: Writable[T]](out: A[T]) = {} and try to use it: val w = new java.io.StringWriter() myWrite(w) Result: <console>:9: error: type mismatch; found : java.io.StringWriter required: ?A[ ?T ] Note that implicit conversions are not applicable because they are ambiguous: both method any2ArrowAssoc in object Predef of type [A](x: A)ArrowAssoc[A] and method any2Ensuring in object Predef of type [A](x: A)Ensuring[A] are possible conversion functions from java.io.StringWriter to ?A[ ?T ] myWrite(w) I tried a few other combinations of types and parameters, to no avail so far. My question is whether there is a way of achieving this at all, and if so how. (Note that the implementation of myWrite will need, internally, to know the type T that parametrizes the write() method, because it needs to create a buffer as in new ArrayT.)

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• c# Display the data in the List view

  - by Kumu

  private void displayResultsButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { gameResultsListView.Items.Clear(); //foreach (Game game in footballLeagueDatabase.games) //{ ListViewItem row = new ListViewItem(); row.SubItems.Add(game.HomeTeam.ToString()); row.SubItems.Add(game.HomeScore.ToString()); row.SubItems.Add(game.AwayTeam.ToString()); row.SubItems.Add(game.AwayScore.ToString()); gameResultsListView.Items.Add(row); // } //footballLeagueDatabase.games.Sort(); } } } This is the display button and the following code describes the add button. private void addGameButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if ((homeTeamTxt.Text.Length) == 0) MessageBox.Show("You must enter a Home Team"); else if (homeScoreUpDown.Maximum <= 9 && homeScoreUpDown.Minimum >= 0) MessageBox.Show("You must enter one digit between 0 and 9"); else if ((awayTeamTxt.Text.Length) == 0) MessageBox.Show("You must enter a Away Team"); else if (awayScoreUpDown.Maximum <= 9 && awayScoreUpDown.Minimum >= 0) MessageBox.Show("You must enter one digit between 0 to 9"); else { //checkGameInputFields(); game = new Game(homeTeamTxt.Text, int.Parse(homeScoreUpDown.Value.ToString()), awayTeamTxt.Text, int.Parse(awayScoreUpDown.Value.ToString())); MessageBox.Show("Home Team" + 't' + homeTeamTxt.Text + "Away Team" + awayTeamTxt.Text + "created"); footballLeagueDatabase.AddGame(game); //clearCreateStudentInputFields(); } } I need to insert data into the above text field and Numeric up down control and display them in the list view. But I dont know How to do it, because when I press the button "Display Results" it displays the error message. If you know how can I display the data in the list view, please let me know.This is the first time I am using List view.

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• Is this use of PreparedStatements in a Thread in JAVA correct?

  - by Gormcito

  I'm still an undergrad just working part time and so I'm always trying to be aware of better ways to do things. Recently I had to write a program for work where the main thread of the program would spawn "task" threads (for each db "task" record) which would perform some operations and then update the record to say that it has finished. Therefore I needed a database connection object and PreparedStatement objects in or available to the ThreadedTask objects. This is roughly what I ended up writing, is creating a PreparedStatement object per thread a waste? I thought static PreparedStatments could create race conditions... Thread A stmt.setInt(); Thread B stmt.setInt(); Thread A stmt.execute(); Thread B stmt.execute(); A´s version never gets execed.. Is this thread safe? Is creating and destroying PreparedStatement objects that are always the same not a huge waste? public class ThreadedTask implements runnable { private final PreparedStatement taskCompleteStmt; public ThreadedTask() { //... taskCompleteStmt = Main.db.prepareStatement(...); } public run() { //... taskCompleteStmt.executeUpdate(); } } public class Main { public static final db = DriverManager.getConnection(...); }

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• page variable in a repeater

  - by carrot_programmer_3

  Hi I'm having a bit of an issue with a asp.net repeater I'm building a categories carousel with the dynamic categories being output by a repeater. Each item is a LinkButton control that passes an argument of the category id to the onItemClick handler. a page variable is set by this handler to track what the selected category id is.... public String SelectedID { get { object o = this.ViewState["_SelectedID"]; if (o == null) return "-1"; else return (String)o; } set { this.ViewState["_SelectedID"] = value; } } problem is that i cant seem to read this value while iterating through the repeater as follows... <asp:Repeater ID="categoriesCarouselRepeater" runat="server" onitemcommand="categoriesCarouselRepeater_ItemCommand"> <ItemTemplate> <%#Convert.ToInt32(Eval("CategoryID")) == Convert.ToInt32(SelectedID) ? "<div class=\"selectedcategory\">":"<div>"%> <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" CommandName="select_category" CommandArgument='<%#Eval("CategoryID")%>' runat="server"><img src="<%#Eval("imageSource")%>" alt="category" /><br /> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> calling <%=SelectedID%> in the item template works but when i try the following expression the value of SelectedID returns empty.. <%#Convert.ToInt32(Eval("CategoryID")) == Convert.ToInt32(SelectedID) ? "match" : "not a match"%> the value is being set as follows... protected void categoriesCarouselRepeater_ItemCommand(object source, RepeaterCommandEventArgs e) { SelectedID = e.CommandArgument); } Any ideas whats wrong here?

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• Getting values from another winform and passing it to current!

  - by klm9971

  Hello: I have 2 windows forms. The 1st one who gets active during start of the program has a button in which another 2nd windows form appears which has text field in which user type their name and HIT okay. Now in the 1st form I have a variable name: nameproccessed which takes the name from the second form. But the problem is my button which is in the 1st form has more functions besides taking name, how can I stop the flow of the compiler to take first the name from the second form and then process the rest execution of the function??? Here is the snippet of my code: //1st form //Class1 public string _nameProcessed = ""; private void btnGetSomething_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { showdial(); //some more functionalities in this function!!! } private void showdial() { InputName inm = new InputName(); inm.Show(); } //2nd form //Class2 public string name; private void btnEnterName_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { name = tbxName.Text; Class1 ict = new Class1(); ict._nameProcessed = name; this.Close(); } Now I want to take the 'name' from the second form put it on the _nameprocessed in the 1st form and then execute the rest of the function. How can I do that? Any help!

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• how to organize classes in ruby if they are literal subclasses

  - by RetroNoodle

  I know that title didn't make sense, Im sorry! Its hard to word what I am trying to ask. I had trouble googling it for the same reason. So this isn't even Ruby specific, but I am working in ruby and I am new to it, so bear with me. So you have a class that is a document. Inside each document, you have sentences, and each sentence has words. Words will have properties, like "noun" or a count of how many times they are used in the document, etc. I would like each of the elements, document, sentence, word be an object. Now, if you think literally - sentences are in documents, and words are in sentences. Should this be organized literally like this as well? Like inside the document class you will define and instantiate the sentence objects, and inside the sentence class you will define and instantiate the words? Or, should everything be separate and reference each other? Like the word class would sit outside the sentence class but the sentence class would be able to instantiate and work with words? This is a basic OOP question I guess, and I suppose you could argue to do it either way. What do you guys think? Each sentence in the document could be stored in a hash of sentence objects inside the document object, and each word in the sentence could be stored in a hash of word objects inside the sentence. I dont want to code myself into a corner here, thats why I am asking, plus I have wondered this before in other situations. Thank you!

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• Dynamically change embedded video src in IE/Chrome (works in Firefox)

  - by macca1

  I'm trying to dynamically change an embedded video on a page. It's working in Firefox but for some reason it's not working in IE and Chrome (strange combination). Here's the HTML: <object id="viewer" width="575" height="344"> <param name="wmode" value="transparent" /> <param name="movie" value="http://www.youtube.com/v/Lmn94kn08Lw&hl=en&fs=1&color1=0x006699&color2=0x54abd6&rel=0" /> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="true" /> <embed id="embeddedPlayer" src="http://www.youtube.com/v/Lmn94kn08Lw&hl=en&fs=1&color1=0x006699&color2=0x54abd6&rel=0" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" allowfullscreen="true" width="575" height="344" wmode="transparent"></embed> </object> And here's my javascript code. A link is clicked to change the video: $("#video a").click( function() { var videoAddress = $(this).attr("href"); $("#embeddedPlayer").attr("src", videoAddress); return false; // stop the default link so it just reloads in the video player } ); Like I said the videos are changing perfectly in Firefox but in IE and Chrome nothing happens. Any ideas?

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• Mapping many-to-many association table with extra column(s)

  - by user635524

  My database contains 3 tables: User and Service entities have many-to-many relationship and are joined with the SERVICE_USER table as follows: USERS - SERVICE_USER - SERVICES SERVICE_USER table contains additional BLOCKED column. What is the best way to perform such a mapping? These are my Entity classes @Entity @Table(name = "USERS") public class User implements java.io.Serializable { private String userid; private String email; @Id @Column(name = "USERID", unique = true, nullable = false,) public String getUserid() { return this.userid; } .... some get/set methods } @Entity @Table(name = "SERVICES") public class CmsService implements java.io.Serializable { private String serviceCode; @Id @Column(name = "SERVICE_CODE", unique = true, nullable = false, length = 100) public String getServiceCode() { return this.serviceCode; } .... some additional fields and get/set methods } I followed this example http://giannigar.wordpress.com/2009/09/04/m ... using-jpa/ Here is some test code: User user = new User(); user.setEmail("e2"); user.setUserid("ui2"); user.setPassword("p2"); CmsService service= new CmsService("cd2","name2"); List<UserService> userServiceList = new ArrayList<UserService>(); UserService userService = new UserService(); userService.setService(service); userService.setUser(user); userService.setBlocked(true); service.getUserServices().add(userService); userDAO.save(user); The problem is that hibernate persists User object and UserService one. No success with the CmsService object I tried to use EAGER fetch - no progress Is it possible to achieve the behaviour I'm expecting with the mapping provided above? Maybe there is some more elegant way of mapping many to many join table with additional column?

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