Search Results

Search found 54281 results on 2172 pages for 'function call'.

Page 79/2172 | < Previous Page | 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86  | Next Page >

  • Member function overloading/template specialization issue

    - by Ferruccio
    I've been trying to call the overloaded table::scan_index(std::string, ...) member function without success. For the sake of clarity, I have stripped out all non-relevant code. I have a class called table which has an overloaded/templated member function named scan_index() in order to handle strings as a special case. class table : boost::noncopyable { public: template <typename T> void scan_index(T val, std::function<bool (uint recno, T val)> callback) { // code } void scan_index(std::string val, std::function<bool (uint recno, std::string val)> callback) { // code } }; Then there is a hitlist class which has a number of templated member functions which call table::scan_index(T, ...) class hitlist { public: template <typename T> void eq(uint fieldno, T value) { table* index_table = db.get_index_table(fieldno); // code index_table->scan_index<T>(value, [&](uint recno, T n)->bool { // code }); } }; And, finally, the code which kicks it all off: hitlist hl; // code hl.eq<std::string>(*fieldno, p1.to_string()); The problem is that instead of calling table::scan_index(std::string, ...), it calls the templated version. I have tried using both overloading (as shown above) and a specialized function template (below), but nothing seems to work. After staring at this code for a few hours, I feel like I'm missing something obvious. Any ideas? template <> void scan_index<std::string>(std::string val, std::function<bool (uint recno, std::string val)> callback) { // code }

    Read the article

  • Error while converting function from oracle to mssql

    - by sss
    Hi, I am migrating a function from oracle to mssql 2008.This function raises Select statements included within a function cannot return data to a client as error.How can i solve this problem? Original PLSQL Code CREATE OR REPLACE function f_birim_cevrim_katsayi (p_ID_MAMUL in number, p_ID_BIRIMDEN in number, p_ID_BIRIME in number) return number is v_katsayi number; begin v_katsayi:=0; if p_ID_BIRIMDEN!=p_ID_BIRIME then for c in ( select * from CR_BIRIM_CEVRIM where ID_MAMUL = p_ID_MAMUL and ( (ID_BIRIM = p_ID_BIRIMDEN and ID_BIRIM2 = p_ID_BIRIME) OR ( ID_BIRIM2 = p_ID_BIRIMDEN and ID_BIRIM = p_ID_BIRIME) ) and VALID = 1) loop if c.ID_BIRIM=p_ID_BIRIMDEN then v_katsayi:=c.MT_ORAN; else v_katsayi:=1/c.MT_ORAN; end if; end loop; else v_katsayi:=1; end if; return round(v_katsayi,10); exception when others then return 0; end; TSQL CODE If Exists ( SELECT name FROM sysobjects WHERE name = 'f_birim_cevrim_katsayi' AND type = 'FN') DROP FUNCTION f_birim_cevrim_katsayi GO CREATE FUNCTION f_birim_cevrim_katsayi ( @p_ID_MAMUL FLOAT , @p_ID_BIRIMDEN FLOAT , @p_ID_BIRIME FLOAT ) RETURNS float AS BEGIN DECLARE @adv_error INT DECLARE @v_katsayi FLOAT SELECT @v_katsayi = 0 IF @p_ID_BIRIMDEN != @p_ID_BIRIME BEGIN DECLARE cursor_for_inline_select1 CURSOR LOCAL FOR SELECT * FROM CR_BIRIM_CEVRIM WHERE ID_MAMUL = @p_ID_MAMUL AND ((ID_BIRIM = @p_ID_BIRIMDEN AND ID_BIRIM2 = @p_ID_BIRIME) OR (ID_BIRIM2 = @p_ID_BIRIMDEN AND ID_BIRIM = @p_ID_BIRIME)) AND VALID = 1 OPEN cursor_for_inline_select1 FETCH NEXT FROM cursor_for_inline_select1 WHILE (@@FETCH_STATUS <> -1) BEGIN IF c.ID_BIRIM = @p_ID_BIRIMDEN BEGIN SELECT @v_katsayi = c.MT_ORAN END ELSE BEGIN SELECT @v_katsayi = 1/c.MT_ORAN END END CLOSE cursor_for_inline_select1 DEALLOCATE cursor_for_inline_select1 END ELSE BEGIN SELECT @v_katsayi = 1 END DEALLOCATE cursor_for_inline_select1 return ROUND(@v_katsayi, 10) GOTO ExitLabel1 Exception1: BEGIN DEALLOCATE cursor_for_inline_select1 return 0 END ExitLabel1: return ROUND(@v_katsayi, 10) END GO

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to cancel function override in parent class and use function from top level parent

    - by Anatoliy Gusarov
    class TopParent { protected function foo() { $this->bar(); } private function bar() { echo 'Bar'; } } class MidParent extends TopParent { protected function foo() { $this->midMethod(); parent::foo(); } public function midMethod() { echo 'Mid'; } public function generalMethod() { echo 'General'; } } Now the question is if I have a class, that extends MidParent because I need to call class Target extends MidParent { //How to override this method to return TopParent::foo(); ? protected function foo() { } } So I need to do this: $mid = new MidParent(); $mid->foo(); // MidBar $taget = new Target(); $target->generalMethod(); // General $target->foo(); // Bar UPDATE Top parent is ActiveRecord class, mid is my model object. I want to use model in yii ConsoleApplication. I use 'user' module in this model, and console app doesn't support this module. So I need to override method afterFind, where user module is called. So the Target class is the class that overrides some methods from model which uses some modules that console application doesn't support.

    Read the article

  • jQuery trigger function on change

    - by Michael Pasqualone
    I have the following two slider functions which work well and display like so: I have diskAmount and transferAmount stored in global vars, however what I am now trying to figure out is how do I get the sum of the two to initially show as the monthly fee, and then update when either of the two sliders are changed. So in my screenshot above the initial state will be $24.75, and the fee will update if the sliders change. Can anyone point me in the right direction? I get can the initial fee to show, but can't figure out how to get 1 function to call another function within jQuery. $(function() { $("#disk").slider({ value:3, min: 1, max: 80, step: 1, slide: function(event, ui) { $("#diskamount").val(ui.value + ' Gb'); $("#diskamountUnit").val('$' + parseFloat(ui.value * diskCost).toFixed(2)); } }); // Set initial diskamount state $("#diskamount").val($("#disk").slider("value") + ' Gb'); // Set initial diskamountUnit state diskAmount = $("#disk").slider("value") * diskCost; $("#diskamountUnit").val('$' + diskAmount.toFixed(2)); }); $(function() { $("#data").slider({ value:25, min: 1, max: 200, step: 1, slide: function(event, ui) { $("#dataamount").val(ui.value + ' Gb'); $("#dataamountUnit").val('$' + parseFloat(ui.value * transferCost).toFixed(2)); } }); // Set initial dataamount state $("#dataamount").val($("#data").slider("value") + ' Gb'); // Set initial dataamountUnit state transferAmount = $("#data").slider("value") * transferCost; $("#dataamountUnit").val('$' + transferAmount.toFixed(2)); });

    Read the article

  • Assign a static function to a variable in PHP

    - by Felipe Almeida
    I would like to assign a static function to a variable so that I can send it around as a parameter. For example: class Foo{ private static function privateStaticFunction($arg1,$arg2){ //compute stuff on the args } public static function publicStaticFunction($foo,$bar){ //works $var = function(){ //do stuff }; //also works $var = function($someArg,$someArg2){ //do stuff }; //Fatal error: Undefined class constant 'privateStaticFunction' $var = self::privateStaticMethod; //same error $var = Foo::privateStaticFunction; //compiles, but errors when I try to run $var() somewhere else, as expected //Fatal error: Call to private method Foo::privateStaticMethod() from context '' $var = function(){ return Foo::privateStaticMethod(); }; } } I've tried a few more variations but none of them worked. I don't even expect this sort of functional hacking to work with PHP but hey, who knows? Is it possible to do that in PHP or will I need to come up with some hack using eval? P.S.: LawnGnome on ##php mentioned something about it being possible to do what I want using array('Foo','privateStaticMethod') but I didn't understand what he meant and I didn't press him further as he looked busy.

    Read the article

  • PHP PDO Parameters from a function returned array

    - by noko
    I've got a function written that runs a query based on parameters passed to the function. I can't seem to figure out why doing the following returns a result: function test($function_returned_array) { $variable = 'Hello World'; $sql = 'SELECT `name`, `pid` FROM `products` WHERE `name` IN (?)'; $found = $this->db->get_array($sql, $variable); } While this doesn't return any results: function test2($function_returned_array) { $sql = 'SELECT `name`, `pid` FROM `products` WHERE `name` IN (?)'; $found = $this->db->get_array($sql, $function_returned_array[0]); } $function_returned_array[0] is also equal to 'Hello World'. Shouldn't they both return the same results? When I echo the values of $variable and $function_returned_array[0], they are both 'Hello World' Here's the relevant parts of my PDO wrapper: public function query(&$query, $params) { $sth = $this->_db->prepare($query); if(is_null($params)) { $sth->execute(); } else if(is_array($params)) { $sth->execute($params); } else { $sth->execute(array($params)); } $this->_rows = $sth->rowCount(); $this->_counter++; return $sth; } public function get_array(&$query, $params, $style = PDO::FETCH_ASSOC) { $q = $this->query($query, $params); return $q->fetchAll($style); } I'm using PHP 5.3.5. Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to get multiple forms to work with one ajax post function

    - by Scarface
    Hey guys I have a system where there is one form for each friend you have and I used to have an ajax post function for each form, but I want to save code and was wondering if it was possible to get multiple forms to work with just one post function. If anyone has any advice on how to achieve this I would appreciate it. For example <div id="message"> <form id='submit' class='message-form' method='POST' > <input type='hidden' id='to' value='friend1' maxlength='255' > Subject<br><input type='text' id='subject' maxlength='50'><br> Message<br><textarea id='message2' cols='50' rows='15'></textarea> <input type='submit' id='submitmessage' class='responsebutton' value='Send'> </form> </div> $(document).ready(function(){ $(".message-form").submit(function() { $("#submitmessage").attr({ disabled:true, value:\"Sending...\" }); var to = $('#to').attr('value'); var subject = $('#subject').attr('value'); var message = $('#message2').attr('value'); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "messageprocess.php", data: 'to='+ to + '&subject=' + subject + '&message=' + message, success: function(response) { if(response == "OK") { $('.message-form').html("<div id='message'></div>"); $('#message').html("<h2>Email has been sent!</h2>") .append("<p>Please wait...</p>") .hide() .fadeIn(1500, function() { $('#message').append(\"<img id='checkmark' src='images/check.png' />\"); });

    Read the article

  • Why my jquery function is not firing on Firefox

    - by Cristian Boariu
    I have some trouble with some jquery method (for some checkboxes I want them to fire on checked/unchecked so I can do something then). This method works perfectly on Chrome and IE but not on latest FF. jQuery(function () { jQuery(':checkbox').change(function () { var counter = jQuery('.count').text(); var thisCheck = jQuery(this); if (thisCheck.is(':checked')) { counter++; //apply green color to the selected row jQuery(this).closest('tr').addClass('checked'); } else { counter--; //remove green color to the selected row jQuery(this).closest('tr').removeClass('checked'); } jQuery('.count').html(counter); //enable export button when there are selected emails to be exported if (counter > 0) { jQuery(".exportButton").removeAttr("disabled", ""); } else { jQuery(".exportButton").attr("disabled", "disabled"); } }); }); Basically it's simply not firing...Even with Debug is not catching the first line (function declare nor other lines too). If I move this javascript(without function declare) inside jQuery(document).ready(function ($) { all works nice on Firefox too... Yes, I do use jQuery.noConflict(); before jQuery(document).ready(function ($) { Do you know why this happens?

    Read the article

  • Need Explanation of couchdb reduce function

    - by Alan
    From http://wiki.apache.org/couchdb/Introduction_to_CouchDB_views The couchdb reduce function is defined as function (key, values, rereduce) { return sum(values); } key will be an array whose elements are arrays of the form [key,id] values will be an array of the values emitted for the respective elements in keys i.e. reduce([ [key1,id1], [key2,id2], [key3,id3] ], [value1,value2,value3], false) I am having trouble understanding when/why the array of keys would contain different key values. If the array of keys does contain different key values, how would I deal with it? As an example, assume that my database contains movements between accounts of the form. {"amount":100, "CreditAccount":"account_number", "DebitAccount":"account_number"} I want a view that gives the balance of an account. My map function does: emit( doc.CreditAccount, doc.amount ) emit( doc.DebitAccount, -doc.amount ) My reduce function does: return sum(values); I seem to get the expected results, however I can't reconcile this with the possibility that my reduce function gets different key values. Is my reduce function supposed to group key values first? What kind of result would I return in that case?

    Read the article

  • get random password with puppet function

    - by ninja-2
    I have a function that allow me to generate random password. My function is working well without a puppetmaster. When i tried with a master an error appear when I called the function : Error 400 on SERVER: bad value for range Here is my function module Puppet::Parser::Functions newfunction(:get_random_password, :type => :rvalue, :doc => <<-EOS Returns a random password. EOS ) do |args| raise(Puppet::ParseError, "get_random_password(): Wrong number of arguments " + "given (#{args.size} for 1)") if args.size != 1 specials = ((33..33).to_a + (35..38).to_a + (40..47).to_a + (58..64).to_a + (91..93).to_a + (95..96).to_a + (123..125).to_a).pack('U*').chars.to_a numbers = (0..9).to_a alphal = ('a'..'z').to_a alphau = ('A'..'Z').to_a length = args[0] CHARS = (alphal + specials + numbers + alphau) pwd = CHARS.sort_by { rand }.join[0...length] return pwd end end The function is called in both case with $pwd = get_random_password(10). When I specified the length directly in the function to 10 for example. the password is well generated in master mode. Have you any idea why i can't specify the lentgth value ? Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

  • Same function on multiple div classes doesn't work

    - by Sebass van Boxel
    I'm doing something terribly wrong and just can't find the solution for it. Situation: I've got a number of products with a number of quotes per product. Those quote automatically scroll in a div. If the scroll reaches the last quote is scroll back to the first one. What works: The function basically works when it's applied on 1 div, but when applied on multiple div it doesn't scroll back to the first one or keeps scrolling endlessly. This is the function i've written for this: function quoteSlide(divname){ $total = ($(divname+" > div").size()) $width = $total * 160; $(divname).css('width', ($width)); console.log ($totalleft *-1); if ($width - 160 > $totalleft *-1){ $currentleft = $(divname).css('left'); $step = -160; $totalleft = parseInt($currentleft)+$step; }else{ $totalleft = 0; } $(divname).animate(     { left: $totalleft }, // what we are animating     'slow', // how fast we are animating     'swing', // the type of easing     function() { // the callback }); } It's being executed by something like: quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_1'); in combination with a setInterval so it keeps scrolling automatically. This is the jsFiddle where it goes wrong (So applied on more than 1 div) http://jsfiddle.net/FsrbZ/. This is the jsFiddle where everything goes okay. (applied on 1 div) When changing the following: quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_1'); quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_2'); setInterval(function() { quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_1'); quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_2'); }, 3400);? to quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_1'); setInterval(function() { quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_1'); }, 3400);? it does work... but only on 1 quotecontainer.

    Read the article

  • Uncaught TypeError: Property 'dist2' of object [object Object] is not a function

    - by Radu Vlad
    I have this functions that should return me the distance from point p to segment line v-w. The problem i have is after some time i receive the following error: Uncaught TypeError: Property 'dist2' of object [object Object] is not a function. I receive it in distToSegmentSquared directly,not even calling the function dist2().Is it any other dist2() anywhere in jquery?I found none... function sqr(x) { return x * x; } function dist2(v, w) { console.log(v); console.log(w); return sqr(v.x - w.x) + sqr(v.y - w.y); } function distToSegmentSquared(p, v, w) { var l2 = dist2(v, w); if (l2 == 0) return dist2(p, v); var t = ((p.x - v.x) * (w.x - v.x) + (p.y - v.y) * (w.y - v.y)) / l2; if (t < 0) return dist2(p, v); if (t > 1) return dist2(p, w); return dist2(p, {x: v.x + t * (w.x - v.x), y: v.y + t * (w.y - v.y)}); } function distToSegment(p, v, w) { return Math.sqrt(distToSegmentSquared(p, v, w)); } The values that are given in for that error are: p: Object x: 461 y: 333 v: Object x: 80 y: 120 w: Object x: 260 y: 120

    Read the article

  • how to sum the amount of cells with the same number in a column - Microsoft Excel 2010

    - by jerlebrink
    My english isn't that good, I hope you understand what I wan't to accomplish I have a column (A) with different zip codes ( total of 3583 rows). I need a formula/function to go through each cell and the come up with sum of how many instances (column B) there are of the same zip code (column C).There are probably more than hundred different zip codes so I can't do it manually. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • ms excel find and replace @ symbol results in broken formula

    - by Loopo
    I'm trying to search and replace in excel, the column is formatted as 'Text'. Find: [@ replace with: @ Whenever this finds a match at the start of a cell i.e the cell contents start with [@ and tries to replace that with @ the result is an error 'This function is not valid' I guess that since the @ operator is for references, this is causing the cell to be interpreted differently (not as text anymore) How do I make this replacement work? Copy/paste into another program is not a good option because some of the cells contain line-breaks.

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to sort digits within a cell?

    - by Iszi
    I'd like to know if there's an Excel Function, or a formula, that can be used to sort digits within a cell. For example, if the value of A1 is 6193254807 and B1 has our formula with parameters set to sort ascending then B1 should equal 0123456789 (leading zero included). Of course, if the parameters were set so that it would sort descending then B1 should equal 9876543210. Is there a way to do this, without wandering into VBScript, or macros, or something similarly exotic?

    Read the article

  • excel 2007 enter new date

    - by Lalajee
    I’m try to create a excel template which will have three fields I like to update automatically when it’s open. Fields which this template will have Current Date: 02/07/2012 Sheet Number: 25 Between Date: 02/07/2012 to 02/08/2012 When I open this template after 03/08/2012 this sheet will have new data Current Date: 03/08/2012 Sheet Number: 26 Between Date: 03/08/2012 to 02/09/2012 For current date Private Sub Workbook_Open() ThisWorkbook.Worksheets("Sheet1").Range("A1").Value = Date End Sub Can this be done using excel function or do I need to use VB and also how do I update template automatically with new values to say next time use these dates.

    Read the article

  • Validate a string in a table in SQL Server - CLR function or T-SQL

    - by Ashish Gupta
    I need to check If a column value (string) in SQL server table starts with a small letter and can only contain '_', '-', numbers and alphabets. I know I can use a SQL server CLR function for that. However, I am trying to implement that validation using a scalar UDF and could make very little here...I can use 'NOT LIKE', but I am not sure how to make sure I validate the string irrespective of the order of characters or in other words write a pattern in SQL for this. Am I better off using a SQL CLR function? Any help will be appreciated.. Thanks in advance Thank you everyone for their comments. This morning, I chose to go CLR function way. For the purpose of what I was trying to achieve, I created one CLR function which does the validation of an input string and have that called from a SQL UDF and It works well. Just to measure the performance of t-SQL UDF using SQL CLR function vs t- SQL UDF, I created a SQL CLR function which will just check if the input string contains only small letters, it should return true else false and have that called from a UDF (IsLowerCaseCLR). After that I also created a regular t-SQL UDF(IsLowerCaseTSQL) which does the same thing using the 'NOT LIKE'. Then I created a table (Person) with columns Name(varchar) and IsValid(bit) columns and populate that with names to test. Data :- 1000 records with 'Ashish' as value for Name column 1000 records with 'ashish' as value for Name column then I ran the following :- UPDATE Person Set IsValid=1 WHERE dbo.IsLowerCaseTSQL (Name) Above updated 1000 records (with Isvalid=1) and took less than a second. I deleted all the data in the table and repopulated the same with same data. Then updated the same table using Sql CLR UDF (with Isvalid=1) and this took 3 seconds! If update happens for 5000 records, regular UDF takes 0 seconds compared to CLR UDF which takes 16 seconds! I am very less knowledgeable on t-SQL regular expression or I could have tested my actual more complex validation criteria. But I just wanted to know, even I could have written that, would that have been faster than the SQL CLR function considering the example above. Are we using SQL CLR because we can implement we can implement lot richer logic which would have been difficult otherwise If we write in regular SQL. Sorry for this long post. I just want to know from the experts. Please feel free to ask if you could not understand anything here. Thank you again for your time.

    Read the article

  • Jason/ajax web service call get redirected (302 Object moved) and then 500 unknow webservice name

    - by user646499
    I have been struggling with this for some times.. I searched around but didnt get a solution yet. This is only an issue on production server. In my development environment, everything works just fine. I am using JQuery/Ajax to update product information based on product's Color attribute. for example, a product has A and B color, the price for color A is different from color B. When user choose different color, the price information is updated as well. What I did is to first add a javascript function: function updateProductVariant() { var myval = jQuery("#<%=colorDropDownList.ClientID%").val(); jQuery.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/Products.aspx/GetVariantInfoById", data: "{variantId:'" + myval + "'}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (response) { var obj = jQuery.parseJSON(response.d); jQuery("#<%=lblStockAvailablity.ClientID%>").text(obj.StockMessage); jQuery(".price .productPrice").text(obj.CurrentPrice); jQuery(".price .oldProductPrice").text(obj.OldPrice); } }); } Then I can register the dropdown list's 'onclick' event point to function 'updateProductVariant' GetVariantInfoById is a WebGet method in the codebehind, its also very straightforward: [WebMethod] public static string GetVariantInfoById(string variantId) { int id = Convert.ToInt32(variantId); ProductVariant productVariant = IoC.Resolve().GetProductVariantById(id); string stockMessage = productVariant.FormatStockMessage(); StringBuilder oBuilder = new StringBuilder(); oBuilder.Append("{"); oBuilder.AppendFormat(@"""{0}"":""{1}"",", "StockMessage", stockMessage); oBuilder.AppendFormat(@"""{0}"":""{1}"",", "OldPrice", PriceHelper.FormatPrice(productVariant.OldPrice)); oBuilder.AppendFormat(@"""{0}"":""{1}""", "CurrentPrice", PriceHelper.FormatPrice(productVariant.Price)); oBuilder.Append("}"); return oBuilder.ToString(); } All these works fine on my local box, but if i upload to the production server, catching the traffic using fiddler, /Products.aspx/GetVariantInfoById becomes a Get call instead of a POST On my local box, HTTP/1.1 200 OK Server: ASP.NET Development Server/10.0.0.0 Date: Thu, 03 Mar 2011 09:00:08 GMT X-AspNet-Version: 4.0.30319 Cache-Control: private, max-age=0 Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: 117 Connection: Close But when deployed on the host, it becomes HTTP/1.1 302 Found Proxy-Connection: Keep-Alive Connection: Keep-Alive Content-Length: 186 Via: 1.1 ADV-TMG-01 Date: Thu, 03 Mar 2011 08:59:12 GMT Location: http://www.pocomaru.com/Products.aspx/GetVariantInfoById/default.aspx Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.0 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET then of course, then it returns 500 error titleUnknown web method GetVariantInfoById/default.aspx.Parameter name: methodName Can someone please take a look? I think its some configuration in the production server which automatially redirects my webservice call to some other URL, but since the product server is out of my control, i am seeking a local fix for this. Thanks for the help!

    Read the article

  • Validate a string in a table in SQL Server - CLR function or T-SQL (Question updated)

    - by Ashish Gupta
    I need to check If a column value (string) in SQL server table starts with a small letter and can only contain '_', '-', numbers and alphabets. I know I can use a SQL server CLR function for that. However, I am trying to implement that validation using a scalar UDF and could make very little here...I can use 'NOT LIKE', but I am not sure how to make sure I validate the string irrespective of the order of characters or in other words write a pattern in SQL for this. Am I better off using a SQL CLR function? Any help will be appreciated.. Thanks in advance Thank you everyone for their comments. This morning, I chose to go CLR function way. For the purpose of what I was trying to achieve, I created one CLR function which does the validation of an input string and have that called from a SQL UDF and It works well. Just to measure the performance of t-SQL UDF using SQL CLR function vs t- SQL UDF, I created a SQL CLR function which will just check if the input string contains only small letters, it should return true else false and have that called from a UDF (IsLowerCaseCLR). After that I also created a regular t-SQL UDF(IsLowerCaseTSQL) which does the same thing using the 'NOT LIKE'. Then I created a table (Person) with columns Name(varchar) and IsValid(bit) columns and populate that with names to test. Data :- 1000 records with 'Ashish' as value for Name column 1000 records with 'ashish' as value for Name column then I ran the following :- UPDATE Person Set IsValid=1 WHERE dbo.IsLowerCaseTSQL (Name) Above updated 1000 records (with Isvalid=1) and took less than a second. I deleted all the data in the table and repopulated the same with same data. Then updated the same table using Sql CLR UDF (with Isvalid=1) and this took 3 seconds! If update happens for 5000 records, regular UDF takes 0 seconds compared to CLR UDF which takes 16 seconds! I am very less knowledgeable on t-SQL regular expression or I could have tested my actual more complex validation criteria. But I just wanted to know, even I could have written that, would that have been faster than the SQL CLR function considering the example above. Are we using SQL CLR because we can implement we can implement lot richer logic which would have been difficult otherwise If we write in regular SQL. Sorry for this long post. I just want to know from the experts. Please feel free to ask if you could not understand anything here. Thank you again for your time.

    Read the article

  • Jquery Tools Overlay call on javascript function

    - by user342944
    Hi Guys, I have a jquery overlay window in my html alongwith a button to activate here is the code. <!-- Validation Overlay Box --> <div class="modal" id="yesno" style="top: 100px; left: 320px; position: relative; display: none; z-index: 0; margin-top: 100px;"> <h2> &nbsp;&nbsp;Authentication Failed</h2> <p style="font-family:Arial; font-size:small; text-align:center"> Ether your username or password has been entered incorrectly. Please make sure that your username or password entered correctly... </p> <!-- yes/no buttons --> <p align="center"> <button class="close"> OK </button> </p> </div> Here is the Jquery tools Script <SCRIPT> $(document).ready(function() { var triggers = $(".modalInput").overlay({ // some mask tweaks suitable for modal dialogs mask: { color: '#a2a2a2', loadSpeed: 200, opacity: 0.9 }, closeOnClick: false }); var buttons = $("#yesno button").click(function(e) { // get user input var yes = buttons.index(this) === 0; // do something with the answer triggers.eq(0).html("You clicked " + (yes ? "yes" : "no")); }); $("#prompt form").submit(function(e) { // close the overlay triggers.eq(1).overlay().close(); // get user input var input = $("input", this).val(); // do something with the answer triggers.eq(1).html(input); // do not submit the form return e.preventDefault(); }); }); And here how its called upon clicking on a button or a hyperlink "<BUTTON class="modalInput" rel="#yesno">You clicked no</BUTTON>" All i want is I dont want to show the overlay on clicking on button or through a link. Is it possible to call it through a javascript function like "showOverlay()" ??

    Read the article

  • How to dynamic call property on javascript object with jQuery

    - by Massimo Ugues
    Hallo all. I got a javascript object with some propeties let's say function Animal() { this.id; this.name; I need to call id function in a dynamic way to get and set its value: something like this Animal animal = new Animal(); var propertyName = "id"; animal.+propertyName = "name"; Is there an elegant way to do it? With jQuery? Kind regards Massimo

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC - PartialView html not changing via jQuery html() call

    - by Bryan Roth
    When I change the selection in a DropDownList, a PartialView gets updated via a GET request. When updating the PartialView via the jQuery html() function, the html returned is correct but when it displayed in the browser it is not correct. For example, certain checkboxes within the PartialView should become enabled but they remain disabled even though the html returned says they should be. When I do a view source in the browser the html never gets updated. I'm a little perplexed. Thoughts? Search.aspx <%@ Page Title="" Language="VB" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Search </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#Sections").change(function () { var section = $("#Sections").val(); var township = $("#Townships").val(); var range = $("#Ranges").val(); $.get("Search/Search?section=" + section + "&township=" + township + "&range=" + range, function (response) { $("#cornerDiv").html(response) }); }); }); </script> <h2>Search</h2> <%--The line below is a workaround for a VB / ASPX designer bug--%> <%=""%> <% Using Ajax.BeginForm("Search", New AjaxOptions With {.UpdateTargetId = "searchResults", .LoadingElementId = "loader"})%> Township <%= Html.DropDownList("Townships")%> Range <%= Html.DropDownList("Ranges")%> Section <%= Html.DropDownList("Sections")%> <div id="cornerDiv"> <% Html.RenderPartial("Corners")%> </div> <input type="submit" value="Search" /> <span id="loader">Searching...</span> <% End Using%> <div id="searchResults"></div> </asp:Content>

    Read the article

  • NewBie Question, jQuery: How can we implement if...else logic and call function

    - by Rachel
    I am new to jQuery and so don't mind this question if it sounds stupid but here is something that I am trying to do : I have 3 functions like: AddToCart Function which adds item to the shopping cart: //offer_id is the offer which we are trying to add to cart. addToCart: function(offer_id) { this.submit({action: 'add', 'offer_id': offer_id}, {'app_server_url': this.app_server_url}); }, RemoveFromCart which removes data from the cart //target is link clicked and event is the click event. removeFromCart: function(target, event) { this.uniqueElmt('cart_table').find('.sb_item_remove').unbind('click'); var offer_id = $(target).parent().find('.offer_id').html(); this.submit({action: 'remove', 'offer_id': offer_id, 'next_action': this.config.current_action}, {'app_server_url': this.app_server_url}); }, Get the current state of the cart //return string which represents current state of cart. getCartItems: function() { return this.contents; } Now I am trying to do 3 things: if there is no content in cart and addToCart is called than some action, so basically here we need to check the current state of cart and that is obtained by calling getCartItems and if it is Null and than if addToCart is called than we perform some action if there is content in the cart and addToCart is called than some action,so basically here we need to check the current state of cart and that is obtained by calling getCartItems and check if it is Null or not and than if addToCart is called than we perform some action if we had some content in the cart. if there is content in the cart and removeFromCart is called some action, so basically here we need to check the current state of cart and that is obtained by calling getCartItems and if it is not Null and if removeFromCart is called than we perform some action Pseudocode of what I am trying to do: if there is no content in cart and addToCart is called than $(document).track( { 'module' : 'Omniture', 'event' : 'instant', 'args' : { 'linkTrackVars' : 'products,events', 'linkTrackEvents' : 'scAdd,scOpen', 'linkType' : 'o', 'linkName' : 'Cart : First Product Added' // could be blank, but can include event name as added feature 'svalues' : { 'products' : ';OFFERID1[,;OFFERID2]', 'events' : 'scAdd,scOpen', }, } 'defer' : '0' } ); if there is content in the cart and addToCart is called than $(document).track( { 'module' : 'Omniture', 'event' : 'instant', 'args' : { 'linkTrackVars' : 'products,events', 'linkTrackEvents' : 'scAdd', 'linkType' : 'o', 'linkName' : 'Cart : Product Added' // could be blank, but can include event name as added feature 'svalues' : { 'products' : ';OFFERID1[,;OFFERID2]', 'events' : 'scAdd', }, }, 'defer' : '0' } ); if there is content in the cart and removeFromCart is called $(document).track( { 'module' : 'Omniture', 'event' : 'instant', 'args' : { 'linkTrackVars' : 'products,events', 'linkTrackEvents' : 'scRemove', 'linkType' : 'o', 'linkName' : 'Cart : Product Removed' // could be blank, but can include event name as added feature 'svalues' : { 'products' : ';OFFERID1[,;OFFERID2]', 'events' : 'scRemove', }, } 'defer' : '0' } ); My basic concern is that am complete newbie to jQuery and JavaScript and so am not sure how can I implement if...else logic and how can I call a funtion using jQuery/JavaScript.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86  | Next Page >