Search Results

Search found 54281 results on 2172 pages for 'function call'.

Page 80/2172 | < Previous Page | 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87  | Next Page >

  • Callback function in jquery doesn't seem to work......

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I use the following jquery pagination plugin and i got the error a.parentNode is undefined when i executed it... <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { getRecordspage(1, 5); $(".pager").pagination(17, { callback: pagechange, current_page: '0', items_per_page: '5', num_display_entries : '5', next_text: 'Next', prev_text: 'Prev', num_edge_entries: '1' }); }); function pagechange() { $("#ResultsDiv").empty(); $("#ResultsDiv").css('display', 'none'); getRecordspage($(this).text(), 5); } function getRecordspage(curPage, pagSize) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Default.aspx/GetRecords", data: "{'currentPage':" + curPage + ",'pagesize':" + pagSize + "}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(jsonObj) { var strarr = jsonObj.d.split('##'); var jsob = jQuery.parseJSON(strarr[0]); var divs = ''; $.each(jsob.Table, function(i, employee) { divs += '<div class="resultsdiv"><br /><span class="resultName">' + employee.Emp_Name + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:100px;">Category&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Desig_Name + '</span><br /><br /><span id="SalaryBasis" class="resultfields">Salary Basis&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.SalaryBasis + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:25px;">Salary&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.FixedSalary + '</span><span style="font-size:110%;font-weight:bolder;padding-left:25px;">Address&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Address + '</span></div>'; }); $("#ResultsDiv").append(divs).show('slow'); $(".resultsdiv:even").addClass("resultseven"); $(".resultsdiv").hover(function() { $(this).addClass("resultshover"); }, function() { $(this).removeClass("resultshover"); }); } }); } </script> and in my page, <div id="ResultsDiv" style="display:none;"> </div> <div id="pager" class="pager"> </div> Any suggestion....

    Read the article

  • How to use jQuery to make a call to HttpHandler to get return value

    - by aspdotnetuser
    I want to use jQuery to make a call to a c# web service called c.ashx which checks whether that username is valid and returns an error message as a string. What should I put for data: and content type: if the return value of the c# webservice is a string value? jQuery.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "/services/CheckUserName.ashx", data: "", contenttype: "", success: function (msg) { alert("success"); }, error: function (msg, text) { alert(text); } });

    Read the article

  • Assign an existing click event function to another click event using jquery

    - by Peter Delahunty
    Ok so i have some html like this: <div id="navigation"> <ul> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li class="selected"> <a>tab name</a> <span class="tab-del-btn">X</span> </li> </ul> </div> I then have javascript that is excuted on the page that i do not control (this is in liferay portal). I want to then manipulate things afterwards with my own custom javascript. SO... For each of the span.delete-tab elements an on-click event function has been assign earlier. It is the same function call for each span. I want to take that function (any) and call it from the click event of the span.tab-del-btn ? This is what i tried to do: var navigation = jQuery('#navigation'); var navTabs = navigation.find('.delete-tab'); var existingDeleteFunction = null; navTabs.each(function (i){ var tab = jQuery(this); existingDeleteFunction = tab.click; }); var selectedTab = jQuery('#navigation li.selected'); var deleteBtn = selectedTab.find('.tab-del-btn'); deleteBtn.click(function(event){ existingDeleteFunction.call(this); }); It does not work though. existingDeleteFunction is not the original function it is some jquery default function. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • jQuery is not filtering/selecting on IE after ajax call

    - by VinTem
    I have the following code that works on firefox and chrome $("#adicionarItem").click(function(){ $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: $("#formAdicionaItem").attr("action"), data: $("#formAdicionaItem").serialize(), success: function(response){ alert($("div#errors", response).size()); } }); }); In IE the alert always returns zero. In firefox/chrome it returns 1 wich is the expected value. Does anyone know if this is a bug or if I am doing something wrong?

    Read the article

  • How to use jQuery to make a call to c# webservice to get return value

    - by aspdotnetuser
    I want to use jQuery to make a call to a c# web service called c.ashx which checks whether that username is valid and returns an error message as a string. What should I put for data: and content type: if the return value of the c# webservice is a string value? jQuery.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "/services/CheckUserName.ashx", data: "", contenttype: "", success: function (msg) { alert("success"); }, error: function (msg, text) { alert(text); } });

    Read the article

  • IE is not firing ajax call in jquery

    - by VinTem
    I have this code that it is working on firefox and chrome, but in IE8/IE7 it's not working. The server is not been reached ever. $("#adicionarItem").click(function(){ $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: $("#formAdicionaItem").attr("action"), data: $("#formAdicionaItem").serialize(), success: function(result){ //do something } } }); }); Does anyone has any idea what is wrong? Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to call a script that expects $_POST from inside a function

    - by donpal
    My script.php accepts $_POST input and echos a string. $theinput = $_POST['theinput']; $output = //some processing; echo $output; I would like to use this script inside a function where the same input is now a $_POST function processinput($someinput){ //I need to call the above script and give it //the same input `$someinput` which is not a `$_POST` anymore } Any ideas how to do that?

    Read the article

  • Call Javascript method from .ashx file

    - by Prasad Jadhav
    From my previous question(Create json using JavaScriptSerializer), In .ashx file I am printing the json object using: context.Response.ContentType = "application/json"; context.Response.Write(json); I am calling this .ashx file from default.aspx which has some javascript function inside its <head> tag. My question is : How will I be able to call the javascript function from .ashx file after context.Response.Write(json);?

    Read the article

  • Rails 3: How do I call a javascript function from a js.erb file

    - by user321775
    Now that I've upgraded to Rails 3, I'm trying to figure out the proper way to separate and reuse pieces of javascript. Here's the scenario I'm dealing with: I have a page with two areas: one with elements that should be draggable, the other with droppables. When the page loads I use jQuery to setup the draggables and droppables. Currently I have the script in the head portion of application.html.erb, which I'm sure is not the right solution but at least works. When I press a button on the page, an ajax call is made to my controller that replaces the draggables with a new set of elements that should also be draggable. I have a js.erb file that renders a partial in the correct location. After rendering I need to make the new elements draggable, so I'd like to reuse the code that currently lives in application.html.erb, but I haven't found the right way to do it. I can only make the new elements draggable by pasting the code directly into my js.erb file (yuck). What I'd like to have: - a javascript file that contains the functions prepdraggables() and prepdroppables() - a way to call either function from application.html.erb or from a js.erb file I've tried using :content_for to store and reuse the code, but can't seem to get it working correctly. What I currently have in the head section of application.html.erb <% content_for :drag_drop_prep do %> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> $(document).ready(function () { // declare all DOM elements with class draggable to be draggable $( ".draggable" ).draggable( { revert : 'invalid' }); // declare all DOM elements with class legal to be droppable $(".legal").droppable({ hoverClass : 'legal_hover', drop : function(event, ui) { var c = new Object(); c['die'] = ui.draggable.attr("id"); c['cell'] = $(this).attr("id"); c['authenticity_token'] = encodeURIComponent(window._token); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/placeDie", data: c, timeout: 5000 }); }}); }); </script> <% end %> undo.js.erb $("#board").html("<%= escape_javascript(render :partial => 'shared/board', :locals => { :playable => true, :restartable => !session[:challenge]}) %>") // This is where I want to prepare draggables. <%= javascript_include_tag "customdragdrop.js" %> // assuming this file had the draggables code from above in a prepdraggables() function prepdraggables();

    Read the article

  • how do i know how many clients are calling my WCF service function

    - by ZhengZhiren
    i am writing a program to test WCF service performance in high concurrency circumstance. On client side, i start many threads to call a WCF service function which returns a long list of data object. On server side, in that function called by my client, i need to know the number of clients calling the function. For doing that, i set a counter variable. In the beginning of the function, i add the counter by 1, but how can i decrease it after the funtion has returned the result? int clientCount=0; public DataObject[] GetData() { Interlocked.Increment(ref clientCount); List<DataObject> result = MockDb.GetData(); return result.ToArray(); Interlocked.Decrement(ref clientCount); //can't run to here... } i have seen a way in c++. Create a new class named counter. In the constructor of the counter class, increase the variable. And decrease it in the destructor. In the function, make a counter object so that its constructor will be called. And after the function returns, its destructor will be called. Like this: class counter { public: counter(){++clientCount; /* not simply like this, need to be atomic*/} ~counter(){--clientCount; /* not simply like this, need to be atomic*/} }; ... myfunction() { counter c; //do something return something; } In c# i think i can do so with the following codes, but not for sure. public class Service1 : IService1 { static int clientCount = 0; private class ClientCounter : IDisposable { public ClientCounter() { Interlocked.Increment(ref clientCount); } public void Dispose() { Interlocked.Decrement(ref clientCount); } } public DataObject[] GetData() { using (ClientCounter counter = new ClientCounter()) { List<DataObject> result = MockDb.GetData(); return result.ToArray(); } } } i write a counter class implement the IDisposable interface. And put my function codes into a using block. But it seems that it doesn't work so good. No matter how many threads i start, the clientCount variable is up to 3. Any advise would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • powershell capture call stack after an error is thrown

    - by davidhayes
    Hi, I want to do something like this... try { # Something in this function throws an exception Backup-Server ... }catch { # Capture stack trace of where the error was thrown from Log-Error $error } Ideally I'd like to capture arguments to the function and line numbers etc. (like you see in get-pscallstack) Any ideas how to achieve this? Dave

    Read the article

  • Get Const / Static Name from Function / Method Call.

    - by Mark Tomlin
    I want to find the token's name passed by augment into a function. class Norm { const STR_NORM = 0; const INT_NORM = 0; } function foo($Arg1, $Arg2 = NULL) { getConstName($Arg1); # Should Return STR_NORM; return $Arg1, $Arg2; } echo foo(Norm::STR_NORM); Is there any way to impalement getConstName via the PHP Reflection API?

    Read the article

  • call JavaScript function within Google Maps Listener

    - by Queueball
    Ok, simple question but is it possible to call an external javascript function within a google maps listener? GEvent.addListener(map,"click", function(overlay, latlng) { testfunction(latlng); }); testfunction doesn't run, so is there a particular way i need to go about this? I'm new to google maps and javascript.

    Read the article

  • Call to a member function fetch_assoc() on a non-object

    - by Joann
    I'm a super beginner. I did find related questions here but I think they're too advanced for my skills. :-( Here's my function: function get_fname($un){ $registerquery = $this->conn->query("SELECT f_name FROM tz_members WHERE usr='".$un."'"); while ($row = $registerquery->fetch_assoc()) { return $fname = $row[$un]; } } Any help plsss??

    Read the article

  • Timer to find elapsed time in a function call in C

    - by Mohit Nanda
    I want to calculate time elapsed during a function call in C, to the precision of 1 nanosecond. Is there a timer function available in C to do it? If yes please provide a sample code-snippet. Pseudo code Timer.Start() foo(); Timer.Stop() Display time elapsed in execution of foo() Environment details: - using gcc 3.4 compiler on a RHEL machine

    Read the article

  • Call C (exposed) function from COBOL program

    - by Sunscreen
    Hi, Some time ago, I had created a DLL to be used in another C program. Basically I exposed specific functions by using the following within my dll: void __declspec(dllexport) MyFunc(myFirstArg, mySecondArg); Then I added an external file (MyExposedDll.h) with all exposed functions and structures to the new C program and included it: include MyExposedDll.h Now how can I use this dll (or mainly a dll) to a Cobol function? I need to expose a function that has two char* arguments and returns a boolean. Thanks, Sun

    Read the article

  • Is content from AJAX call added to Django context variable

    - by John
    Hi, I am using the JQuery load function to load part of my page. Can I access the variables from that page in the page that loads it. e.g. Page A uses JQuery load function to load B Page B loads and sets a variable in context called pageB_var which holds a django object Page A can then access this variable by doing {{pageB_var}} since it was added to the context If not what is the best way of doing this? Thanks

    Read the article

  • do you call them functions, procedures or methods?

    - by lowlyintern
    consider a standard c# 'function' public void foo() { //some code } In c or c++ this is called a 'function' - even if taking no parameters and returning no value. In another language maybe it would be a 'procedure'. In object orientation speak it would be called a 'method' if a class member. What would be the correct term to use in c#?

    Read the article

  • Finding the Source Line of a function call

    - by Robert
    I've built a custom logging utility which displays a Log Message and the DateTime. I would like to add the line number in the source code which called the function. Is there a way to determine which line of the HTML source a particular javascript function was fired?

    Read the article

  • How to copy the memeory allocated in device function back to main memory

    - by xhe8
    I have a CUDA program containing a host function and a device function Execute(). In the host function, I allocate a global memory output which will then be passed to the device function and used to store the address of the global memory allocated within the device function. I want to access the in-kernel allocated memory in the host function. The following is the code: #include <stdio.h> typedef struct { int * p; int num; } Structure_A; \__global__ void Execute(Structure_A *output); int main(){ Structure_A *output; cudaMalloc((void***)&output,sizeof(Structure_A)*1); dim3 dimBlockExecute(1,1); dim3 dimGridExecute(1,1); Execute<<<dimGridExecute,dimBlockExecute>>>(output); Structure_A * output_cpu; int * p_cpu; cudaError_t err; output_cpu= (Structure_A*)malloc(1); err=cudaMemcpy(output_cpu,output,sizeof(Structure_A),cudaMemcpyDeviceToHost); if( err != cudaSuccess) { printf("CUDA error a: %s\n", cudaGetErrorString(err)); exit(-1); } p_cpu=(int *)malloc(1); err=cudaMemcpy(p_cpu,output_cpu[0].p,sizeof(int),cudaMemcpyDeviceToHost); if( err != cudaSuccess) { printf("CUDA error b: %s\n", cudaGetErrorString(err)); exit(-1); } printf("output=(%d,%d)\n",output_cpu[0].num,p_cpu[0]); return 0; } \__global__ void Execute(Structure_A *output){ int thid=threadIdx.x; output[thid].p= (int*)malloc(thid+1); output[thid].num=(thid+1); output[thid].p[0]=5; } I can compile the program. But when I run it, I got a error showing that there is a invalid argument in the following memory copy function. "err=cudaMemcpy(p_cpu,output_cpu[0].p,sizeof(int),cudaMemcpyDeviceToHost);" CUDA version is 4.2. CUDA card: Tesla C2075 OS: x86_64 GNU/Linux

    Read the article

  • Is it bad practice to call a controller action from a view that was rendered by another controller?

    - by marco-fiset
    Let's say I have an OrderController which handles orders. The user adds products to it through the view, and then the final price gets calculated through an AJAX call to a controller action. The price calculation logic is implemented in a seperate class and used in a controller action. What happens is that I have many views from different controllers that need to use that particular action. I'd like to have some kind of a PriceController that I could call an action on. But then the view would have to know about that PriceController and call an action on it. Is it bad practice for a view to call an action on a different controller from which it was rendered?

    Read the article

  • Is it bad practise to call a controller action from a view that was rendered by another controller?

    - by marco-fiset
    Let's say I have an OrderController which handles orders. The user adds products to it through the view, and then the final price gets calculated through an AJAX call to a controller action. The price calculation logic is implemented in a seperate class and used in a controller action. What happens is that I have many views from different controllers that need to use that particular action. I'd like to have some kind of a PriceController that I could call an action on. But then the view would have to know about that PriceController and call an action on it. Is it bad practice for a view to call an action on a different controller from which it was rendered?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87  | Next Page >