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  • Python - Problems using mechanize to log into a difficult website

    - by user1781599
    × 139886 I am trying to log in to betfair.com by using mechanize. I have tried several ways but it always fail. This is the code I have developed so far, can anyone help me to identify what is wrong with it and how I can improve it to log into my betfair account? Thanks, import cookielib import urllib import urllib2 from BeautifulSoup import BeautifulSoup import mechanize from mechanize import Browser import re bf_username_name = "username" bf_password_name = "password" bf_form_name = "loginForm" bf_username = "xxxxx" bf_password = "yyyyy" urlLogIn = "http://www.betfair.com/" accountUrl = "https://myaccount.betfair.com/account/home?rlhm=0&" # This url I will use to verify if log in has been successful br = mechanize.Browser(factory=mechanize.RobustFactory()) br.addheaders = [("User-Agent","Mozilla/5.0 (Macintosh; Intel Mac OS X 10_5_8) AppleWebKit/537.1 (KHTML, like Gecko) Chrome/21.0.1180.90 Safari/537.1")] br.open(urlLogIn) br.select_form(nr=0) print br.form br.form[bf_username_name] = bf_username br.form[bf_password_name] = bf_password print br.form #just to check username and psw have been recorded correctly responseSubmit = br.submit() response = br.open(accountUrl) text_file = open("LogInResponse.html", "w") text_file.write(responseSubmit.read()) #this file should show the home page with me logged in, but it show home page as if I was not logged it text_file.close() text_file = open("Account.html", "w") text_file.write(response.read()) #this file should show my account page, but it should a pop up with an error text_file.close()

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  • Still Confused About Identifying vs. Non-Identifying Relationships

    - by Jason
    So, I've been reading up on identifying vs. non-identifying relationships in my database design, and a number of the answers on SO seem contradicting to me. Here are the two questions I am looking at: What's the Difference Between Identifying and Non-Identifying Relationships Trouble Deciding on Identifying or Non-Identifying Relationship Looking at the top answers from each question, I appear to get two different ideas of what an identifying relationship is. The first question's response says that an identifying relationship "describes a situation in which the existence of a row in the child table depends on a row in the parent table." An example of this that is given is, "An author can write many books (1-to-n relationship), but a book cannot exist without an author." That makes sense to me. However, when I read the response to question two, I get confused as it says, "if a child identifies its parent, it is an identifying relationship." The answer then goes on to give examples such as SSN (is identifying of a Person), but an address is not (because many people can live at an address). To me, this sounds more like a case of the decision between primary key and non-primary key. My own gut feeling (and additional research on other sites) points to the first question and its response being correct. However, I wanted to verify before I continued forward as I don't want to learn something wrong as I am working to understand database design. Thanks in advance.

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  • WCF Async callback setup for polled device

    - by Mark Pim
    I have a WCF service setup to control a USB fingerprint reader from our .Net applications. This works fine and I can ask it to enroll users and so on. The reader allows identification (it tells you that a particular user has presented their finger, as opposed to asking it to verify that a particular user's finger is present), but the device must be constantly polled while in identification mode for its status - when a user is detected the status changes. What I want is for an interested application to notify the service that it wants to know when a user is identified, and provide a callback that gets triggered when this happens. The WCF service will return immediately and spawn a thread in the background to continuously poll the device. This polling could go on for hours at a time if no one tries to log in. What's the best way to acheive this? My service contract is currently defined as follows: [ServiceContract (CallbackContract=typeof(IBiometricCallback))] public interface IBiometricWcfService { ... [OperationContract (IsOneWay = true)] void BeginIdentification(); ... } public interface IBiometricCallback { ... [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] void IdentificationFinished(int aUserId, string aMessage, bool aSuccess); ... } In my BeginIdentification() method can I easily spawn a worker thread to poll the device, or is it easier to make the WCF service asynchronous?

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  • How do I write an RSpec test to unit-test this interesting metaprogramming code?

    - by Kyle Kaitan
    Here's some simple code that, for each argument specified, will add specific get/set methods named after that argument. If you write attr_option :foo, :bar, then you will see #foo/foo= and #bar/bar= instance methods on Config: module Configurator class Config def initialize() @options = {} end def self.attr_option(*args) args.each do |a| if not self.method_defined?(a) define_method "#{a}" do @options[:"#{a}"] ||= {} end define_method "#{a}=" do |v| @options[:"#{a}"] = v end else throw Exception.new("already have attr_option for #{a}") end end end end end So far, so good. I want to write some RSpec tests to verify this code is actually doing what it's supposed to. But there's a problem! If I invoke attr_option :foo in one of the test methods, that method is now forever defined in Config. So a subsequent test will fail when it shouldn't, because foo is already defined: it "should support a specified option" do c = Configurator::Config c.attr_option :foo # ... end it "should support multiple options" do c = Configurator::Config c.attr_option :foo, :bar, :baz # Error! :foo already defined # by a previous test. # ... end Is there a way I can give each test an anonymous "clone" of the Config class which is independent of the others?

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  • Insert or Update using Oracle and PL/SQL

    - by Shane
    I have a PL/SQL function that performs an update/insert on an Oracle database that maintains a target total and returns the difference between the existing value and the new value. Here is the code I have so far: FUNCTION calcTargetTotal(accountId varchar2, newTotal numeric ) RETURN number is oldTotal numeric(20,6); difference numeric(20,6); begin difference := 0; begin select value into oldTotal from target_total WHERE account_id = accountId for update of value; if (oldTotal != newTotal) then update target_total set value = newTotal WHERE account_id = accountId difference := newTotal - oldTotal; end if; exception when NO_DATA_FOUND then begin difference := newTotal; insert into target_total ( account_id, value ) values ( accountId, newTotal ); -- sometimes a race condition occurs and this stmt fails -- in those cases try to update again exception when DUP_VAL_ON_INDEX then begin difference := 0; select value into oldTotal from target_total WHERE account_id = accountId for update of value; if (oldTotal != newTotal) then update target_total set value = newTotal WHERE account_id = accountId difference := newTotal - oldTotal; end if; end; end; end; return difference end calcTargetTotal; This works as expected in unit tests with multiple threads never failing. However when loaded on a live system we have seen this fail with a stack trace looking like this: ORA-01403: no data found ORA-00001: unique constraint () violated ORA-01403: no data found The line numbers (which I have removed since they are meaningless out of context) verify that the first update fails due to no data, the insert fail due to uniqueness, and the 2nd update is failing with no data, which should be impossible. From what I have read on other thread a MERGE statement is also not atomic and could suffer similar problems. Does anyone have any ideas how to prevent this from occurring?

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  • Why are Facebook Likes Insisting on using Wrong Product Image...?

    - by Joan Kent
    Firstly, I'm not a web developer so please be patient. I have read the other posts but I think i have everything covered. My website http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk includes the like button on the product pages. However, I've found that certain product pages are using the incorrect image when a user likes the page. For example - http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk/terramundi-money-pots/terramundi-money-pot-holiday-fund I think this may have been down to an original incorrect setup which is now corrected. However, the problem remains... The only thing I have to go on :- if i use the facebook url linter (developers.facebook.com/tools/debug) on the above product page, I receive the following error :- Object at URL 'http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk/terramundi-money-pot-holiday-fund' of type '213689662010141:product' is invalid because the domain 'www.joaniesgifts.co.uk' is not allowed for the application id '213689662010141' which owns the specified object type. If you are the owner of this application, you can verify your configured 'Site Domain' at developers.facebook.com/apps/213689662010141. (I have verified my site's domain) Everything else appears fine except it is also showing the wrong image!! However, under Raw Open Graph Document Information it has the correct link! If I then click graph api - graph.facebook.com/10150450766583352 it again shows the wrong image was linked! I've no idea what else to do - can you help me? Kind Regards, Joan PS Graph API shows the incorrect image after a scrape only minutes ago { "url": "http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk/terramundi-money-pot-holiday-fund", "type": "website", "title": "Terramundi Money Pot - Holiday Fund", "image": [ { "url": "http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk/index.php?route=product\u00252Fproduct\u00252Fcaptcha" } ], "updated_time": "2011-11-11T18:54:38+0000", "id": "10150450766583352" }

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  • Using an SHA1 with Micrsoft CAPI

    - by Erik Jõgi
    Hello, I have an SHA1 hash and I need to sign it. The CryptSignHash() method requires a HCRYPTHASH handle for signing. I create it and as I have the actual hash value already then set it: CryptCreateHash(cryptoProvider, CALG_SHA1, 0, 0, &hash); CryptSetHashParam(hash, HP_HASHVAL, hashBytes, 0); The hashBytes is an array of 20 bytes. However the problem is that the signature produced from this HCRYPTHASH handle is incorrect. I traced the problem down to the fact that CAPI actually doesn't use all 20 bytes from my hashBytes array. For some reason it thinks that SHA1 is only 4 bytes. To verify this I wrote this small program: HCRYPTPROV cryptoProvider; CryptAcquireContext(&cryptoProvider, NULL, NULL, PROV_RSA_FULL, 0); HCRYPTHASH hash; HCRYPTKEY keyForHash; CryptCreateHash(cryptoProvider, CALG_SHA1, keyForHash, 0, &hash); DWORD hashLength; CryptGetHashParam(hash, HP_HASHSIZE, NULL, &hashLength, 0); printf("hashLength: %d\n", hashLength); And this prints out hashLength: 4 ! Can anyone explain what I am doing wrong or why Microsoft CAPI thinks that SHA1 is 4 bytes (32 bits) instead of 20 bytes (160 bits). Thank you.

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  • passing an "unknown enumeration" to a method

    - by firoso
    I'm currently trying to make a class that can register strings as identifiers and accociate them with different types of Enumerations, these enumerations are being evaluated only in so much that I am ensuring that when it's used, that the parameter passed to broadcast (messageType) is an instance of the associated Enum Type. This would work something like this: Diagnostics.RegisterIdentifier("logger", typeof(TestEnum)); Diagnostics.Broadcast("logger", TestEnum.Info, null, "Hello World", null); here's the code I currently have, I need to be able to verify that messageTypesEnum is contained in messageTypesFromIdentifier. private static Dictionary<string, Type> identifierMessageTypeMapping = new Dictionary<string, Type>(); private static List<IListener> listeners = new List<IListener>(); public static void RegisterIdentifier(string identifier, Type messageTypesEnum) { if (messageTypesEnum.BaseType.FullName == "System.Enum") { identifierMessageTypeMapping.Add(identifier, messageTypesEnum); } else { throw new ArgumentException("Expected type of messageTypesEnum to derive from System.Enum", "messageTypesEnum"); } } public static void Broadcast(string identifier, object messageType, string metaIdentifier, string message, Exception exception) { if (identifierMessageTypeMapping.ContainsKey(identifier)) { Type messageTypesFromIdentifier = identifierMessageTypeMapping[identifier]; foreach (var listener in listeners) { DiagnosticsEvent writableEvent = new DiagnosticsEvent(identifier, messageType, metaIdentifier, message, exception); listener.Write(writableEvent); } } }

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  • SSL + Jquery + Ajax

    - by chobo2
    Hi I starting too look at a bit of security into my site. My site I would consider a very low security risk as it has really no personal information from the user other than email. However the security risk will go up a bit as I am partnering with a company and the initial password for this companies users will be the same password they use essentially to get onto the network and every piece of software. So I have up my security( what is fine by me...I wanted to get around to this anyways). So one of my security concerns is this. A user logs in. form submit(non ajax is done). Password is hashed & Salted and compared to one in the database. Reject or let them proceed. So this uses no jquery or ajax but is just asp.net mvc and C#. Still if my understanding is right the password is sent in clear text. So if a use SSL and I would not need to worry about that is this correct? If that is true is that all I need? Second the user can change their password at anytime. This is done through ajax. So when the password is sent it is sent in clear text( and I can verify this by looking at firebug). So if I have SSL enabled on this page is that all I need or do I need to do more? So I am just kinda confused of what I need to make the password being sent to the server(both ajax and full post ways secure). I am not sure if I need to do more then SSL or if that is enough and if it is not enough what is the next layer of security?

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  • application trying to connect to mirrored sql db

    - by hp
    Hello, We have 4 web servers that host our asp.net (3.5) application. Randomly, we get error messages like : 1) "Login failed for user 'userid'" 2) "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server)" we are running sql2005 and have a principle and a mirror db (sync). When these exceptions are thrown, I look at the SQL error logs on the mirrored db and noticed the failed login messages in there. The principle db is running fine and the other web apps are working great. this will happen for maybe 10 min, then the app pool recycles and it starts hitting the principle db again. Is there a configuration I have incorrect? my theory is that our principle db is forwarding the request to the mirror, but that should never happen. any help??

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  • ADO.NET: Can't connect to mdf database file

    - by Nabo
    I'm writing an application that uses a SQL Server 2005 database. In the connection string i'm specifying the mdf file like this: connstr = @"Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS; AttachDbFilename=" + fileLocation + "; Integrated Security=True; User Instance=True"; When i execute the code: public static void forceConnection() { try { conn = new SqlConnection(connstr); conn.Open(); } catch (Exception e) { MessageBox.Show(e.Message, "Erro", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); } finally { if(conn != null) conn.Close(); } } I receive an exception: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) This code works on XP but not in Vista.. I tryed run Visual Studio in admin mode and moved the mdf file to "user data" folders but the error persists.. Any help? Thanks!

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  • Element not found blocks execution in Selenium

    - by Mariano
    In my test, I try to verify if certain text exists (after an action) using find_element_by_xpath. If I use the right expression and my test pass, the routine ends correctly in no time. However if I try a wrong text (meaning that the test will fail) it hangs forever and I have to kill the script otherwise it does not end. Here is my test (the expression Thx user, client or password you entered is incorrect does not exist in the system, no matter what the user does): # -*- coding: utf-8 -*- import gettext import unittest from selenium import webdriver class TestWrongLogin(unittest.TestCase): def setUp(self): self.driver = webdriver.Firefox() self.driver.get("http://10.23.1.104:8888/") # let's check the language try: self.lang = self.driver.execute_script("return navigator.language;") self.lang = self.lang("-")[0] except: self.lang = "en" language = gettext.translation('app', '/app/locale', [self.lang], fallback=True) language.install() self._ = gettext.gettext def tearDown(self): self.driver.quit() def test_wrong_client(self): # test wrong client inputElement = self.driver.find_element_by_name("login") inputElement.send_keys("root") inputElement = self.driver.find_element_by_name("client") inputElement.send_keys("Unleash") inputElement = self.driver.find_element_by_name("password") inputElement.send_keys("qwerty") self.driver.find_element_by_name("form.submitted").click() # wait for the db answer self.driver.implicitly_wait(10) ret = self.driver.find_element_by_xpath( "//*[contains(.,'{0}')]".\ format(self._(u"Thx user, client or password you entered is incorrect"))) self.assertTrue(isinstance(ret, webdriver.remote.webelement.WebElement)) if __name__ == '__main__': unittest.main() Why does it do that and how can I prevent it?

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  • how do I best create a set of list classes to match my business objects

    - by ken-forslund
    I'm a bit fuzzy on the best way to solve the problem of needing a list for each of my business objects that implements some overridden functions. Here's the setup: I have a baseObject that sets up database, and has its proper Dispose() method All my other business objects inherit from it, and if necessary, override Dispose() Some of these classes also contain arrays (lists) of other objects. So I create a class that holds a List of these. I'm aware I could just use the generic List, but that doesn't let me add extra features like Dispose() so it will loop through and clean up. So if I had objects called User, Project and Schedule, I would create UserList, ProjectList, ScheduleList. In the past, I have simply had these inherit from List< with the appropriate class named and then written the pile of common functions I wanted it to have, like Dispose(). this meant I would verify by hand, that each of these List classes had the same set of methods. Some of these classes had pretty simple versions of these methods that could have been inherited from a base list class. I could write an interface, to force me to ensure that each of my List classes has the same functions, but interfaces don't let me write common base functions that SOME of the lists might override. I had tried to write a baseObjectList that inherited from List, and then make my other Lists inherit from that, but there are issues with that (which is really why I came here). One of which was trying to use the Find() method with a predicate. I've simplified the problem down to just a discussion of Dispose() method on the list that loops through and disposes its contents, but in reality, I have several other common functions that I want all my lists to have. What's the best practice to solve this organizational matter?

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  • Integrated Windows authentication in IIS causing ADO.NET failure

    - by TrueWill
    We have a .NET 3.5 Web Service running under IIS. It must use identity impersonate="true" and Integrated Windows authentication in order to authenticate to third-party software. In addition, it connects to a SQL Server database using ADO.NET and SQL Server Authentication (specifying a fixed User ID and Password in the connection string). Everything worked fine until the database was moved to another SQL Server. Then the Web Service would throw the following exception: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) This error only occurs if identity impersonate is true in the Web.config. Again, the connection string hasn't changed and it specifies the user. I have tested the connection string and it works, both under the impersonated account and under the service account (and from both the remote machine and the server). What needs to be changed to get this to work with impersonation?

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  • iphone how to determine and code according to base sdk version?

    - by Nareshkumar
    I have a code for UIImage picker photoImagePicker=[[UIImagePickerController alloc]init]; photoImagePicker.delegate=self; photoImagePicker.sourceType=UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; photoImagePicker.mediaTypes=[UIImagePickerController availableMediaTypesForSourceType:photoImagePicker.sourceType]; [self presentModalViewController:photoImagePicker animated:YES]; photoImagePicker.showsCameraControls = YES; //Doesnot work on 3.0 photoImagePicker.navigationBarHidden = YES; photoImagePicker.toolbarHidden = YES; photoImagePicker.allowsEditing=YES; //Doesnt work on 3.0 Now everything works fine when the sdk is 3.1 or higher but when i put the os version as 3.0, the code starts showing errors. Turns out these methods were not present in 3.0 and so errors. I want to keep a mechanism which will enable these for higher versions(3.1) and at the same time work properly for 3.0 version. How do i do it? One solution i have thought of is to verify the version value and then put that code. But i am not sure how this is got. Any help will be appreciated.

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  • How to detect what allowed character in current Regular Expression by using JavaScript?

    - by Soul_Master
    In my web application, I create some framework that use to bind model data to control on page. Each model property has some rule like string length, not null and regular expression. Before submit page, framework validate any binded control with defined rules. So, I want to detect what character that is allowed in each regular expression rule like the following example. "^[0-9]$" allow only digit characters like 1, 2, 3. "^[a-zA-Z_][a-zA-Z_-0-9]+$" allow only a-z, - and _ characters However, this function should not care about grouping, positioning of allowed character. It just tells about possible characters only. By the way, complex regular expression like find two words near(\bword1\W+(?:\w+\W+){1,6}?word2\b) must be ignore to verify and it should return any characters is possible. Do you have any idea for creating this function? PS. I know it easy to create specified function like numeric only for allowing only digit characters. But I need share/reuse same piece of code both data tier(contains all model validator) and UI tier without modify anything. Thanks

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  • jQuery password strength plugin callback validation method

    - by jmorhardt
    I'm using a a jQuery plugin to evaluate password strength. It gives a graphical representation for the user to see how secure the password is. I'd like to use it to validate the field as well. The plugin works by assessing the password and giving it a score. I want to be able to verify that the user has entered a password of at least a certain score. The code is hosted on jQuery's site here: http://plugins.jquery.com/project/pstrength. The documentation states that there is a way to add a rule and do custom validation. I'm not sure where to start. The inline documentation states: * === Changelog === * Version 2.1 (18/05/2008) * Added a jQuery method to add a new rule: jQuery('input[@type=password]').pstrength.addRule(name, method, score, active) And later in the code there's this method: jQuery.extend(jQuery.fn.pstrength, { 'addRule': function (name, method, score, active) { digitalspaghetti.password.addRule(name, method, score, active); return true; }, 'changeScore': function (rule, score) { digitalspaghetti.password.ruleScores[rule] = score; return true; }, 'ruleActive': function (rule, active) { digitalspaghetti.password.rules[rule] = active; return true; } }); If anybody has seen an example of how to do this I'd appreciate a pointer in the right direction. Thanks!

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  • Publishing content to multiple (unknown) domains using Open Graph?

    - by Beau Lebens
    I'm working on an application that publishes content ('articles') on a variety of URLs, which are all controlled by the same WordPress installation (mapped domains, all powered by the same set of code/part of a network). All of the publishing is done through one central Facebook App. I have no idea what the domains for these URLS are going to be, since they are controlled by our users who register domains and then configure them within their account on our service. When I attempt to use Open Graph to publish content on one of these sites (that has a customized domain), they are rejected with the following error (error code 1611028): Object at URL * * * * of type 'article' is invalid because the domain '* * * ' is not allowed for the specified application id ' * * *'. You can verify your configured 'App Domain' at.... Since I can't enter all of the domains into Facebook, and since they are not derived from my App URL anyway, is there any way that I can have this work? Some sort of magic OG tag I can put in the pages or something? Or is it just not possible to do what I'm trying to do?

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  • Structure map and generics (in XML config)

    - by James D
    Hi I'm using the latest StructureMap (2.5.4.264), and I need to define some instances in the xml configuration for StructureMap using generics. However I get the following 103 error: Unhandled Exception: StructureMap.Exceptions.StructureMapConfigurationException: StructureMap configuration failures: Error: 103 Source: Requested PluginType MyTest.ITest`1[[MyTest.Test,MyTest]] configured in Xml cannot be found Could not create a Type for 'MyTest.ITest`1[[MyTest.Test,MyTest]]' System.ApplicationException: Could not create a Type for 'MyTest.ITest`1[[MyTest.Test,MyTest]]' ---> System.TypeLoadException: Could not loa d type 'MyTest.ITest`1' from assembly 'StructureMap, Version=2.5.4.264, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=e60ad81abae3c223'. at System.RuntimeTypeHandle._GetTypeByName(String name, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase, Boolean reflectionOnly, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean loadTypeFromPartialName) at System.RuntimeTypeHandle.GetTypeByName(String name, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase, Boolean reflectionOnly, StackCrawlMark& stackMark) at System.RuntimeType.PrivateGetType(String typeName, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase, Boolean reflectionOnly, StackCrawlMark& s tackMark) at System.Type.GetType(String typeName, Boolean throwOnError) at StructureMap.Graph.TypePath.FindType() --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at StructureMap.Graph.TypePath.FindType() at StructureMap.Configuration.GraphBuilder.ConfigureFamily(TypePath pluginTypePath, Action`1 action) A simply replication of the code is as follows: public interface ITest<T> { } public class Test { } public class Concrete : ITest<Test> { } Which I then wish to define in the XML configuration something as follows: <DefaultInstance PluginType="MyTest.ITest`1[[MyTest.Test,MyTest]],MyTest" PluggedType="MyTest.Concrete,MyTest" Scope="Singleton" /> I've been racking my brain, however I can't see what I'm doing wrong - I've used Type.GetType to verify the type actually is valid which it is. Anyone have any ideas? Thanks !

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  • CREATE VIEW called multiple times not creating all views

    - by theninepoundhammer
    Noticing strange behavior in SQL 2005, both Express and Enterprise Edition: In my code I need to loop through a series of values (about five in a row), and for each value, I need to insert the value into a table and dynamically create a new view using that value as part of the where clause and the name of the view. The code runs pretty quickly, but what I'm noticing is that all the values are inserted into the table correctly but only the LAST view is being created. Every time. For example, if the values I'm using are X1, X2, X3, X4, and X5, I'll run the process, open up Mgmt Studio, and see five rows in the table with the correct five values, but only one view named MyView_x5 that has the correct WHERE clause. At first, I had this loop in an SSIS package as part of a larger data flow. When I started noticing this behavior, I created a stored proc that would create the CREATE VIEW statement dynamically after the insert and called EXECUTE to create the view. Same result. Finally, I created some C# code using the Enterprise Library DAAB, and did the insert and CREATE VIEW statements from my DLL. Same result every time. Most recently, I turned on Profiler while running against the Enterprise Edition and was able to verify that the Batch Started and Batch Completed events were being fired off for each instance of the view. However, like I said, only the last view is actually being created. Does anyone have any idea why this might be happening? Or any suggestions about what else to check or profile? I've profiled for error messages, exceptions, etc. but don't see any in my trace file. My express edition is 9.00.1399.06. Not sure about the Enterprise edition but think it is SP2.

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  • Need a refresher course on property access...

    - by Code Sherpa
    Hi. I need help with accessing class properties within a given class. For example, take the below class: public partial class Account { private Profile _profile; private Email _email; private HostInfo _hostInfo; public Profile Profile { get { return _profile; } set { _profile = value; } } public Email Email { get { return _email; } set { _email = value; } } public HostInfo HostInfo { get { return _hostInfo; } set { _hostInfo = value; } } In the class "Account" exists a bunch of class properties such as Email or Profile. Now, when I want to access those properties at run-time, I do something like this (for Email): _accountRepository = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IAccountRepository>(); string username = Cryptography.Decrypt(_webContext.UserNameToVerify, "verify"); Account account = _accountRepository.GetAccountByUserName(username); if(account != null) { account.Email.IsConfirmed = true; But, I get "Object reference not set..." for account.Email... Why is that? How do I access Account such that account.Email, account.Profile, and so on returns the correct data for a given AccountId or UserName. Here is a method that returns Account: public Account GetAccountByUserName(string userName) { Account account = null; using (MyDataContext dc = _conn.GetContext()) { try { account = (from a in dc.Accounts where a.UserName == userName select a).FirstOrDefault(); } catch { //oops } } return account; } The above works but when I try: account = (from a in dc.Accounts join em in dc.Emails on a.AccountId equals em.AccountId join p in dc.Profiles on em.AccountId equals p.AccountId where a.UserName == userName select a).FirstOrDefault(); I am still getting object reference exceptions for my Email and Profile properties. Is this simply a SQL problem or is there something else I need to be doing to be able to fully access all the properties within my Account class? Thanks!

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  • Dom Nodes manipulations, how remove tags which wrap my selection?

    - by sanceray3
    Hi, I try to explain you my "problem". I would like to know when I select a part of text, if this text is “wrapped” by html tags, and in function delete them. For example with this sentence : The car is <strong>green</strong>, and the boat is black If I select “green” and click on a button, I would like verify if green is wrapped by <strong>(for that it’s ok), and in function delete <strong> tags without delete containing “green”. I have tried to do it, but when I remove child and recreate one, my new node is empty and if I try to put directly text in document.createTextNode, my new node appears but the <strong> tags stay. // Bouton CLICK $('input[type=button].btn_transform').click(function(){ var selObj = window.getSelection(); var parent=selObj.anchorNode.parentNode; if (parent.nodeName=='STRONG'){ parent.removeChild(selObj.anchorNode); var theText = document.createTextNode(selObj); parent.appendChild(theText); } }); I’m not a DOM manipulation specialist. Could you help me to solve this? Thanks very much for your precious help.

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  • C/C++ I18N mbstowcs question

    - by bogertron
    I am working on internationalizing the input for a C/C++ application. I have currently hit an issue with converting from a multi-byte string to wide character string. The code needs to be cross platform compatible, so I am using mbstowcs and wcstombs as much as possible. I am currently working on a WIN32 machine and I have set the locale to a non-english locale (Japanese). When I attempt to convert a multibyte character string, I seem to be having some conversion issues. Here is an example of the code: int main(int argc, char** argv) { wchar_t *wcsVal = NULL; char *mbsVal = NULL; /* Get the current code page, in my case 932, runs only on windows */ TCHAR szCodePage[10]; int cch= GetLocaleInfo( GetSystemDefaultLCID(), LOCALE_IDEFAULTANSICODEPAGE, szCodePage, sizeof(szCodePage)); /* verify locale is set */ if (setlocale(LC_CTYPE, "") == 0) { fprintf(stderr, "Failed to set locale\n"); return 1; } mbsVal = argv[1]; /* validate multibyte string and convert to wide character */ int size = mbstowcs(NULL, mbsVal, 0); if (size == -1) { printf("Invalid multibyte\n"); return 1; } wcsVal = (wchar_t*) malloc(sizeof(wchar_t) * (size + 1)); if (wcsVal == NULL) { printf("memory issue \n"); return 1; } mbstowcs(wcsVal, szVal, size + 1); wprintf(L"%ls \n", wcsVal); return 0; } At the end of execution, the wide character string does not contain the converted data. I believe that there is an issue with the code page settings, because when i use MultiByteToWideChar and have the current code page sent in EX: MultiByteToWideChar( CP_ACP, 0, mbsVal, -1, wcsVal, size + 1 ); in place of the mbstowcs calls, the conversion succeeds. My question is, how do I use the generic mbstowcs call instead of teh MuliByteToWideChar call?

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  • When is a try catch not a try catch?

    - by Dearmash
    I have a fun issue where during application shutdown, try / catch blocks are being seemingly ignored in the stack. I don't have a working test project (yet due to deadline, otherwise I'd totally try to repro this), but consider the following code snippet. public static string RunAndPossiblyThrow(int index, bool doThrow) { try { return Run(index); } catch(ApplicationException e) { if(doThrow) throw; } return ""; } public static string Run(int index) { if(_store.Contains(index)) return _store[index]; throw new ApplicationException("index not found"); } public static string RunAndIgnoreThrow(int index) { try { return Run(index); } catch(ApplicationException e) { } return ""; } During runtime this pattern works famously. We get legacy support for code that relies on exceptions for program control (bad) and we get to move forward and slowly remove exceptions used for program control. However, when shutting down our UI, we see an exception thrown from "Run" even though "doThrow" is false for ALL current uses of "RunAndPossiblyThrow". I've even gone so far as to verify this by modifying code to look like "RunAndIgnoreThrow" and I'll still get a crash post UI shutdown. Mr. Eric Lippert, I read your blog daily, I'd sure love to hear it's some known bug and I'm not going crazy. EDIT This is multi-threaded, and I've verified all objects are not modified while being accessed

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  • JavaScript: How is "function x() {}" different from "x = function() {}" ?

    - by jleedev
    In the answers to this question, we read that function f() {} defines the name locally, while [var] f = function() {} defines it globally. That makes perfect sense to me, but there's some strange behavior that's different between the two declarations. I made an HTML page with the script onload = function() { alert("hello"); } and it worked as expected. When I changed it to function onload() { alert("hello"); } nothing happened. (Firefox still fired the event, but WebKit, Opera, and Internet Explorer didn't, although frankly I've no idea which is correct.) In both cases (in all browsers), I could verify that both window.onload and onload were set to the function. In both cases, the global object this is set to the window, and I no matter how I write the declaration, the window object is receiving the property just fine. What's going on here? Why does one declaration work differently from the other? Is this a quirk of the JavaScript language, the DOM, or the interaction between the two?

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