Search Results

Search found 2436 results on 98 pages for 'verify'.

Page 76/98 | < Previous Page | 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83  | Next Page >

• Boost causes an invalid block while overloading new/delete operators

  - by user555746

  Hi, I have a problem which appears to a be an invalid memory block that happens during a Boost call to Boost:runtime:cla::parser::~parser. When that global delete is called on that object, C++ asserts on the memory block as an invalid: dbgdel.cpp(52): /* verify block type */ _ASSERTE(_BLOCK_TYPE_IS_VALID(pHead->nBlockUse)); An investigation I did revealed that the problem happened because of a global overloading of the new/delete operators. Those overloadings are placed in a separate DLL. I discovered that the problem happens only when that DLL is compiled in RELEASE while the main application is compiled in DEBUG. So I thought that the Release/Debug build flavors might have created a problem like this in Boost/CRT when overloading new/delete operators. So I then tried to explicitly call to _malloc_dbg and _free_dbg withing the overloading functions even in release mode, but it didn't solve the invalid heap block problem. Any idea what the root cause of the problem is? is that situation solvable? I should stress that the problem began only when I started to use Boost. Before that CRT never complained about any invalid memory block. So could it be an internal Boost bug? Thanks!

  Read the article

• java script - Cant send parameter to function from info window in google map marker info window

  - by drdigital

  I'm showing up some markers on a map. when clicked, an info window appear. this window contains 2 button each send ajax request. the problem is that when I send any thing (Except a marker parameter below) to the button onClick event it does not work. and I get the error "adminmap.html:1 Uncaught SyntaxError: Unexpected token ILLEGAL" on the first line of the HTML page not the script file at all. function handleButtonApprove(id) { //error happens here when I send any parameter except marker8(defined below) //console.log(id); $(document).ready(function () { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: VERIFY_OBSTACLES_URL, //data: { markerID:sentID , approved:0 }, success: function (data) { alert(data); } }); }); } function handleButtonReject() { $(document).ready(function () { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: VERIFY_OBSTACLES_URL, //data: { markerID:marker.id , approved:0 }, success: function (data) { alert(data); } }); }); } function attachInfo(marker8, num) { //var markerID = marker.get("id"); //console.log(markerID); var infowindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow({ //Here is the error , if I sent num.toString, num or any string , it does not work. If send marker8.getPosition() for example it works. May I know the reason ? content: '<div id="info_content">Matab Info</div> <button onclick="handleButtonApprove(' + num.toString() + ')">Verify</button> </br> <button onclick="handleButtonReject()">Remove</button>' }); google.maps.event.addListener(marker8, 'click', function () { infowindow.open(marker8.get('map'), marker8); }); }

  Read the article

• Issue Implementing Colorbox Correctly in IE (all versions)

  - by Andrew

  I've been pulling my hair out (and going way over allotted hours) to try and figure out why Colorbox isn't working properly on the following page: http://www.fiberforge.com I've set up a Colorbox test link on the very bottom right that says "Web Design By All Web Cafe", which should open up a small logo image. In Firefox, Safari, etc the modal behaves as it should, opening center center above all of the existing on-page content. In IE, not only is the modal not centered, but it appears as though it's not obeying absolute positioning and pushing all of the existing on-page content down below. Add to that the fact that it's not opening to the correct size and creating scrollbars next to the modal image, and we have ourselves one ugly modal. The scrollbars I can live with (by just resizing the min-height of the modal), but I can't figure out why it won't center. Let me say that I did not code this site initially and it was completed quite a few years ago, so there are quite probably numerous CSS hacks to get things to display properly, any number of which may be causing this problem. By contrast, Thickbox is also set up on this site (if you click on the "Play Video" callout in the dark blue area) and behaves correctly, though suffers from some weird sizing/padding issues, hence the desire to replace it with something a bit more modern and extensible. I can verify that there is no conflict having both of these modal scripts/CSS files concurrently as the problem still occurs with Colorbox even when Thickbox is removed entirely. Any thoughts or suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• Java: attributes order in .jsp getting inversed

  - by NoozNooz42

  Every single time I've read about the meta tags, the attribute where in this order for the description: <meta name="description" content="..." /> First name, then content. It's also like that in the Google Webmaster documentation. Basically, it's like that everywhere. Now in a .jsp (in XML notation) I've got the following: <meta name="description" content="${metadesc}"/> So it's name first, then content. Yet on the generated webpage, I get this: <meta content="...(200 chars or so here making it a very long line)..." name="description"/> Somehow the attributes have been inversed. Because the content follows the official W3C and Google recommendations, the content is a bit less than 200 characters long, which makes it a major pain to "visually verify" that the name attribute is correctly there (I've got to scroll). Anyway... Why are these attribute not appearing in the order defined in the .jsp? Can I force them to appear in the same order as I wrote them in my .jsp? I realize the resulting tag may be valid... But I can also imagine a lot of very creative ways to have valid tags which users would be very upset about. Does this make any sense to inverse these attributes? EDIT wow, just wow... If I invert the attributes in my .jsp (that is, writing them in the "wrong" order), then they appear as I want them to appear in the generated web page. (Tomcat 6.0.26 btw)

  Read the article

• Unit testing and mocking email sender in Python with Google AppEngine

  - by CVertex

  I'm a newbie to python and the app engine. I have this code that sends an email based on request params after some auth logic. in my Unit tests (i'm using GAEUnit), how do I confirm an email with specific contents were sent? - i.e. how do I mock the emailer with a fake emailer to verify send was called? class EmailHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): def bad_input(self): self.response.set_status(400) self.response.headers['Content-Type'] = 'text/plain' self.response.out.write("<html><body>bad input </body></html>") def get(self): to_addr = self.request.get("to") subj = self.request.get("subject") msg = self.request.get("body") if not mail.is_email_valid(to_addr): # Return an error message... # self.bad_input() pass # authenticate here message = mail.EmailMessage() message.sender = "[email protected]" message.to = to_addr message.subject = subj message.body = msg message.send() self.response.headers['Content-Type'] = 'text/plain' self.response.out.write("<html><body>success!</body></html>") And the unit tests, import unittest from webtest import TestApp from google.appengine.ext import webapp from email import EmailHandler class SendingEmails(unittest.TestCase): def setUp(self): self.application = webapp.WSGIApplication([('/', EmailHandler)], debug=True) def test_success(self): app = TestApp(self.application) response = app.get('http://localhost:8080/[email protected]&body=blah_blah_blah&subject=mySubject') self.assertEqual('200 OK', response.status) self.assertTrue('success' in response) # somehow, assert email was sent

  Read the article

• Applets failing to load

  - by Roy Tang

  While testing our setup for user acceptance testing, we got some reports that java applets in our web application would occasionally fail to load. The envt where it was reported was WinXP/IE6, and there were no errors found in the java console. Obviously we'd like to avoid it. What sort of things should we be checking for here? On our local servers, everything seems fine. There's some turnaround time when sending questions to the on-site guy, so I'd look to cover as many possible causes as possible. Some more info: We have multiple applets, in the instance that they fail loading, all of them fail loading. The applet jar files vary in size from 2MB to 8MB. I'm told it seems more likely to happen if the applet isn't cached yet, i.e. if they've been able to load the applets once on a given machine, further runs on that machine go smoothly. I'm wondering if there's some sort of network transfer error when downloading the applets, but I don't know how to verify that. Any advise is welcome!

  Read the article

• How should I unit test a code-generator?

  - by jkp

  This is a difficult and open-ended question I know, but I thought I'd throw it to the floor and see if anyone had any interesting suggestions. I have developed a code-generator that takes our python interface to our C++ code (generated via SWIG) and generates code needed to expose this as WebServices. When I developed this code I did it using TDD, but I've found my tests to be brittle as hell. Because each test essentially wanted to verify that for a given bit of input code (which happens to be a C++ header) I'd get a given bit of outputted code I wrote a small engine that reads test definitions from XML input files and generates test cases from these expectations. The problem is I dread going in to modify the code at all. That and the fact that the unit tests themselves are a: complex, and b: brittle. So I'm trying to think of alternative approaches to this problem, and it strikes me I'm perhaps tackling it the wrong way. Maybe I need to focus more on the outcome, IE: does the code I generate actually run and do what I want it to, rather than, does the code look the way I want it to. Has anyone got any experiences of something similar to this they would care to share?

  Read the article

• How to create a CGBitmapContext which works for Retina display and not wasting space for regular display?

  - by ????

  Is it true that if it is in UIKit, including drawRect, the HD aspect of Retina display is automatically handled? So does that mean in drawRect, the current graphics context for a 1024 x 768 view is actually a 2048 x 1536 pixel Bitmap context? (is there a way to print this size out to verify it). We actually enjoy the luxury of 1 point = 4 pixels automatically handled for us. However, if we use CGBitmapContextCreate, then those will really be pixels, not points? (at least if we provide a data buffer for that bitmap, the size is not for the higher resolution, but for the standard resolution, and even if we pass NULL as the buffer so that CGBitmapContextCreate handles the buffer for us, the size probably is the same as if we pass in a data buffer, and it is just standard resolution, not Retina's resolution). We can always create 2048 x 1536 for iPad 1 and iPad 2 as well as the New iPad, but it will waste memory and processor and GPU power, as it is only needed for the New iPad. So do we have to use a if () { } else { } to create such a bitmap context and how do we actually do so? And all our code CGContextMoveToPoint has to be adjusted for Retina display to use x * 2 and y * 2 vs non-retina display of just using x, y as well? That can be quite messy for the code. (or maybe we can define a local variable scaleFactor and set it to 1 for standard resolution and 2 if it is retina, so our x and y will always be x * scaleFactor, y * scaleFactor instead of just x and y.) It seems that UIGraphicsBeginImageContextWithOptions can create one for Retina automatically if the scale of 0.0 is passed in, but I don't think it can be used if I need to create the context and keep it (and using ivar or property of UIViewController to hold it). If I don't release it using UIGraphicsEndImageContext, then it stays in the graphics context stack, so it seems like I have to use CGBitmapContextCreate instead. (or do we just let it stay at the bottom of the stack and not worry about it?)

  Read the article

• Flash "visible" issue

  - by justkevin

  I'm writing a tool in Flex that lets me design composite sprites using layered bitmaps and then "bake" them into a low overhead single bitmapData. I've discovered a strange behavior I can't explain: toggling the "visible" property of my layers works twice for each layer (i.e., I can turn it off, then on again) and then never again for that layer-- the layer stays visible from that point on. If I override "set visible" on the layer as such: override public function set visible(value:Boolean):void { if(value == false) this.alpha = 0; else {this.alpha = 1;} } The problem goes away and I can toggle "visibility" as much as I want. Any ideas what might be causing this? Edit: Here is the code that makes the call: private function onVisibleChange():void { _layer.visible = layerVisible.selected; changed(); } The changed() method "bakes" the bitmap: public function getBaked():BitmapData { var w:int = _composite.width + (_atmosphereOuterBlur * 2); var h:int = _composite.height + (_atmosphereOuterBlur * 2); var bmpData:BitmapData = new BitmapData(w,h,true,0x00000000); var matrix:Matrix = new Matrix(); var bounds:Rectangle = this.getBounds(this); matrix.translate(w/2,h/2); bmpData.draw(this,matrix,null,null,new Rectangle(0,0,w,h),true); return bmpData; } Incidentally, while the layer is still visible, using the Flex debugger I can verify that the layer's visible value is "false".

  Read the article

• need primitive public key signature with out of band key distribution

  - by Mike D

  I pretty much a complete neophyte at this signature business so I don't know if what I'm asking is nonsense or not. Anyway, here goes... I want to send an out of band message (don't worry about how it gets there) to a program I've written on a distant machine. I want the program to have some confidence the message is legit by attaching a digital signature to the message. The message will be small less than 200 characters. It seems a public key based signature is what I want to use. I could embed the public key in the program. I understand that the program would be vulnerable to attack by anyone who modifies it BUT I'm not too worried about that. The consequences are not dire. I've looked through the MSDN and around the web but the prospect of diving in is daunting. I'm writing in straight c++, no NET framework or other fancy stuff. I've had no experience including NET framework stuff and little luck during previous attempts. Can anyone point me at some very basic resources to get me started? I need to know 1)how to generate the public and private keys 2)how to sign the message 3)how to verify the signature Any help much appreciated. TIA, Mike

  Read the article

• Does using ReadDirectoryChangesW require administrator rights?

  - by Alex Jenter

  The MSDN says that using ReadDirectoryChangesW implies the calling process having the Backup and Restore priviliges. Does this mean that only process launched under administrator account will work correctly? I've tried the following code, it fails to enable the required privileges when running as a restricted user. void enablePrivileges() { enablePrivilege(SE_BACKUP_NAME); enablePrivilege(SE_RESTORE_NAME); } void enablePrivilege(LPCTSTR name) { HANDLE hToken; DWORD status; if (::OpenProcessToken(::GetCurrentProcess(), TOKEN_ADJUST_PRIVILEGES, &hToken)) { TOKEN_PRIVILEGES tp = { 1 }; if( ::LookupPrivilegeValue(NULL, name, &tp.Privileges[0].Luid) ) { tp.Privileges[0].Attributes = SE_PRIVILEGE_ENABLED; BOOL result = ::AdjustTokenPrivileges(hToken, FALSE, &tp, 0, NULL, NULL); verify (result != FALSE); status = ::GetLastError(); } ::CloseHandle(hToken); } } Am I doing something wrong? Is there any workaround for using ReadDirectoryChangesW from a non-administrator user account? It seems that the .NET's FileSystemWatcher can do this. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Serialize a C# class to xml. Store the XML as a string in SQL Server and then restore the class late

  - by BrianK

  I want to serialize a class to xml and store that in a field in a database. I can serialize with this: StringWriter sw = new StringWriter(); XmlSerializer xmlser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(MyClass)); xmlser.Serialize(sw, myClassVariable); string s = sw.ToString(); sw.Close(); Thats works, but it has the namesapces in it. xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" Will these slow down the deserialization because it will go out to those and verify the XML? I got rid of the namespaces by creating a blank XmlSerializerNamespaces and using that to serialize, but then the xml still had namespaces around integer variables: <anyType xmlns:q1="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" d3p1:type="q1:int" xmlns:d3p1="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> 3 </anyType> My question is: Is it necessary to have the namesapces for deserialization and if not, how to get rid of them? How do I tell it fields are ints so it doesnt put in "anytype" Thanks, Brian

  Read the article

• What are the best workarounds for known problems with Hibernate's schema validation of floating poin

  - by Jason Novak

  I have several Java classes with double fields that I am persisting via Hibernate. For example, I have @Entity public class Node ... private double value; When Hibernate's org.hibernate.dialect.Oracle10gDialect creates the DDL for the Node table, it maps the value field to a "double precision" type. create table MDB.Node (... value double precision not null, ... It would appear that in Oracle, "double precision" is an alias for "float". So, when I try to verify the database schema using the org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationConfiguration.validateSchema() method, Oracle appears to describe the value column as a "float". This causes Hibernate to throw the following Exception org.hibernate.HibernateException: Wrong column type in DBO.ACL_RULE for column value. Found: float, expected: double precision A very similar problem is listed in Hibernate's JIRA database as HHH-1961 (http://opensource.atlassian.com/projects/hibernate/browse/HHH-1961). I'd like to avoid doing anything that will break MySql, Postgres, and Sql Server support so extending the Oracle10gDialect appears to be the most promising of the workarounds mentioned in HHH-1961. But extending a Dialect is something I've never done before and I'm afraid there may be some nasty gotchas. What is the best workaround for this problem that won't break our compatibility with MySql, Postgres, and Sql Server? Thanks for taking the time to look at this!

  Read the article

• PrinterSettings.IsValid always returning false

  - by Jarrod

  In our code, we have to give the users a list of printers to choose from. The user then chooses a printer and it is checked to verify it is valid before printing. On a windows 2003 server with IIS 6, this works fine. On a windows 2008 server with IIS 7, it fails each time impersonate is set to true. PrinterSettings printerSetting = new PrinterSettings(); printerSetting.PrinterName = ddlPrinterName.SelectedItem.Text; if (!printerSetting.IsValid) { lblMsg.Text = "Server Printer is not valid."; } else { lblMsg.Text = "Success"; } Each time this code is run, the "Server Printer is not valid" displays, only if impersonate is set to true. If impersonate is set to false, the success message is displayed. The impersonation user has full rights to the printer. Is there a way to catch the actual reason the printer is not valid? Is there some other 2008 setting I should check?

  Read the article

• How to distinguish between two different UDP clients on the same IP address?

  - by Ricket

  I'm writing a UDP server, which is a first for me; I've only done a bit of TCP communications. And I'm having trouble figuring out exactly how to distinguish which user is which, since UDP deals only with packets rather than connections and I therefore cannot tell exactly who I'm communicating with. Here is pseudocode of my current server loop: DatagramPacket p; socket.receive(p); // now p contains the user's IP and port, and the data int key = getKey(p); if(key == 0) { // connection request key = makeKey(p); clients.add(key, p.ip); send(p.ip, p.port, key); // give the user his key } else { // user has a key // verify key belongs to that IP address // lookup the user's session data based on the key // react to the packet in the context of the session } When designing this, I kept in mind these points: Multiple users may exist on the same IP address, due to the presence of routers, therefore users must have a separate identification key. Packets can be spoofed, so the key should be checked against its original IP address and ignored if a different IP tries to use the key. The outbound port on the client side might change among packets. Is that third assumption correct, or can I simply assume that one user = one IP+port combination? Is this commonly done, or should I continue to create a special key like I am currently doing? I'm not completely clear on how TCP negotiates a connection so if you think I should model it off of TCP then please link me to a good tutorial or something on TCP's SYN/SYNACK/ACK mess. Also note, I do have a provision to resend a key, if an IP sends a 0 and that IP already has a pending key; I omitted it to keep the snippet simple. I understand that UDP is not guaranteed to arrive, and I plan to add reliability to the main packet handling code later as well.

  Read the article

• How do I unit test controllers for an asp.net mvc site that uses StructureMap and NHibernate?

  - by Jim Geurts

  I have an asp.net mvc2 application that is using StructureMap 2.6 and NHibernate 3.x. I would like to add unit tests to the application but am sort of at a loss for how to accomplish it. Say I have a basic controller called Posts that has an action called Index. The controller looks something like: public class PostsController : Controller { private readonly IPostService _postService; public PostsController(IPostService postService) { _postService = postService; } public ActionResult Index() { return View(_postService.QueryOver<Post>().Future()); } } If I wanted to create an nunit test that would verify that the index action is returning all of the posts, how do I go about that? If mocking is recommended, do you just assume that interaction with the database will work? Sorry for asking such a broad question, but my web searches haven't turned up anything decent for how to unit test asp.net mvc actions that use StructureMap (or any other IOC) and NHibernate. btw, if you don't like that I return a QueryOver object from my post service, pretend it is an IQueryable object. I'm using it essentially in the same way.

  Read the article

• mysql to excel generation using php

  - by pmms

  <?php // DB Connection here mysql_connect("localhost","root",""); mysql_select_db("hitnrunf_db"); $select = "SELECT * FROM jos_users "; $export = mysql_query ( $select ) or die ( "Sql error : " . mysql_error( ) ); $fields = mysql_num_fields ( $export ); for ( $i = 0; $i < $fields; $i++ ) { $header .= mysql_field_name( $export , $i ) . "\t"; } while( $row = mysql_fetch_row( $export ) ) { $line = ''; foreach( $row as $value ) { if ( ( !isset( $value ) ) || ( $value == "" ) ) { $value = "\t"; } else { $value = str_replace( '"' , '""' , $value ); $value = '"' . $value . '"' . "\t"; } $line .= $value; } $data .= trim( $line ) . "\n"; } $data = str_replace( "\r" , "" , $data ); if ( $data == "" ) { $data = "\n(0) Records Found!\n"; } header("Content-type: application/octet-stream"); header("Content-Disposition: attachment; filename=your_desired_name.xls"); header("Pragma: no-cache"); header("Expires: 0"); print "$header\n$data"; ?> The code above is used for generating an Excel spreadsheet from a MySQL database, but we are getting following error: The file you are trying to open, 'users.xls', is in a different format than specified by the file extension. Verify that the file is not corrupted and is from a trusted source before opening the file. Do you want to open the file now? What is the problem and how do we fix it?

  Read the article

• Weird .net 4.0 exception when running unit tests

  - by vdh_ant

  Hi guys I am receiving the following exception when trying to run my unit tests using .net 4.0 under VS2010 with moq 3.1. Attempt by security transparent method 'SPPD.Backend.DataAccess.Test.Specs_for_Core.When_using_base.Can_create_mapper()' to access security critical method 'Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.UnitTesting.Assert.IsNotNull(System.Object)' failed. Assembly 'SPPD.Backend.DataAccess.Test, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' is marked with the AllowPartiallyTrustedCallersAttribute, and uses the level 2 security transparency model. Level 2 transparency causes all methods in AllowPartiallyTrustedCallers assemblies to become security transparent by default, which may be the cause of this exception. The test I am running is really straight forward and looks something like the following: [TestMethod] public void Can_create_mapper() { this.SetupTest(); var mockMapper = new Moq.Mock<IMapper>().Object; this._Resolver.Setup(x => x.Resolve<IMapper>()).Returns(mockMapper).Verifiable(); var testBaseDa = new TestBaseDa(); var result = testBaseDa.TestCreateMapper<IMapper>(); Assert.IsNotNull(result); //<<< THROWS EXCEPTION HERE Assert.AreSame(mockMapper, result); this._Resolver.Verify(); } I have no idea what this means and I have been looking around and have found very little on the topic. The closest reference I have found is this http://dotnetzip.codeplex.com/Thread/View.aspx?ThreadId=80274 but its not very clear on what they did to fix it... Anyone got any ideas?

  Read the article

• C++ : Avoid lot of boolean variable for multiple verification conditions in trading app

  - by Naveen

  Hi i am a junior dev in trading app... we have a order refresh verification unit. It has to verify order confirmation from exchange. We send a bunch of different request in bulk ( NEW, MODIFY, CANCEL ) to exchange... Verification has to happen for max N times with each T intervals for all orders. if verification successful for all the order before N retry then fine.. otherwise we need to indicate as verification unsuccessfull. i hv done a basic coding done in very urgent like below for( N times ) { for_each ( sent_request_order ) // SENT { 1) get all the refreshed order from DB or shared mem i.e REFRESHED 2) find current sent order in REFRESHED if( not_found ) not refreshed from exchange, continue to next order if( found ) case NEW : //check for new status, mark verification done case MODIFY : //check for modified status.. //if not mark pending, go to next order, //revisit the same after T time case CANCEL : //check for cancelled status.. //if not mark pending, go to next order, //revisit the same after T time } if( all_verified ) exit from verification. wait ( T sec ) } order_verification_pending, order_verification_done, order_visited, order_not_visited, all_verified, all_not_verified ... lot of boolean flags used for indication.. is there any better approach for doing this.... splitting responsibilities across the classes......???? i know this is not a general question.... but still flags are making me tidious to handle...

  Read the article

• libpcap read packet size

  - by spicyramen

  I started to write an application which will read RTP/H.264 video packets from an existing .pcap file, I need to read the packet size. I tried to use packet-len or header-len, but it never displays the right number of bytes for packets (I'm using wireshark to verify packet size - under Length column). How to do it? This is part of my code: while (packet = pcap_next(handle,&header)) { u_char *pkt_ptr = (u_char *)packet; struct ip *ip_hdr = (struct ip *)pkt_ptr; //point to an IP header structure struct pcap_pkthdr *pkt_hdr =(struct pcap_pkthdr *)packet; unsigned int packet_length = pkt_hdr->len; unsigned int ip_length = ntohs(ip_hdr->ip_len); printf("Packet # %i IP Header length: %d bytes, Packet length: %d bytes\n",pkt_counter,ip_length,packet_length); Packet # 0 IP Header length: 180 bytes, Packet length: 104857664 bytes Packet # 1 IP Header length: 52 bytes, Packet length: 104857600 bytes Packet # 2 IP Header length: 100 bytes, Packet length: 104857600 bytes Packet # 3 IP Header length: 100 bytes, Packet length: 104857664 bytes Packet # 4 IP Header length: 52 bytes, Packet length: 104857600 bytes Packet # 5 IP Header length: 100 bytes, Packet length: 104857600 bytes Another option I tried is to use: pkt_ptr- I get: read_pcapfile.c:67:43: error: request for member ‘len’ in something not a structure or union

  Read the article

• How to genrate a monochrome bit mask for a 32bit bitmap

  - by Mordachai

  Under Win32, it is a common technique to generate a monochrome bitmask from a bitmap for transparency use by doing the following: SetBkColor(hdcSource, clrTransparency); VERIFY(BitBlt(hdcMask, 0, 0, bm.bmWidth, bm.bmHeight, hdcSource, 0, 0, SRCCOPY)); This assumes that hdcSource is a memory DC holding the source image, and hdcMask is a memory DC holding a monochrome bitmap of the same size (so both are 32x32, but the source is 4 bit color, while the target is 1bit monochrome). However, this seems to fail for me when the source is 32 bit color + alpha. Instead of getting a monochrome bitmap in hdcMask, I get a mask that is all black. No bits get set to white (1). Whereas this works for the 4bit color source. My search-foo is failing, as I cannot seem to find any references to this particular problem. I have isolated that this is indeed the issue in my code: i.e. if I use a source bitmap that is 16 color (4bit), it works; if I use a 32 bit image, it produces the all-black mask. Is there an alternate method I should be using in the case of 32 bit color images? Is there an issue with the alpha channel that overrides the normal behavior of the above technique? Thanks for any help you may have to offer! ADDENDUM: I am still unable to find a technique that creates a valid monochrome bitmap for my GDI+ produced source bitmap. I have somewhat alleviated my particular issue by simply not generating a monochrome bitmask at all, and instead I'm using TransparentBlt(), which seems to get it right (but I don't know what they're doing internally that's any different that allows them to correctly mask the image). It might be useful to have a really good, working function: HBITMAP CreateTransparencyMask(HDC hdc, HBITMAP hSource, COLORREF crTransparency); Where it always creates a valid transparency mask, regardless of the color depth of hSource. Ideas?

  Read the article

• Registry remotley hacked win 7 need help tracking the perp

  - by user577229

  I was writing some .VBS code at thhe office that would allow certain file extensions to be downloaded without a warning dialog on a w7x32 system. The system I was writing this on is in a lab on a segmented subnet. All web access is via a proxy server. The only means of accessing my machine is via the internet or from within the labs MSFT AD domain. While writing and testing my code I found a message of sorts. Upon refresing the registry to verify my code changed a dword, instead the message HELLO was written and visible in regedit where the dword value wass called for. I took a screen shot and proceeded to edit my code. This same weird behavior occurred last time I was writing registry code except on another internal server. I understand that remote registry access exists for windows systems. I will block this immediately once I return to the office. What I want to know is, can I trace who made this connection? How would I do this? I suspect the cause of this is the cause of other "odd" behaviors I'm experiencing at work such as losing control of my input director master control for over an hour and unchanged code that all of a sudden fails for no logical region. These failures occur at funny times, whenver I'm about to give a demonstration of my test code. I know this sounds crazy however knowledge of the registry component makes this believable. Once the registry can be accessed, the entire system is compromised. Any help or sanity checking is appreciated.

  Read the article

• Non-latin-characters ordering in database with "order by"

  - by nybon

  I just found some strange behavior of database's "order by" clause. In string comparison, I expected some characters such as '[' and '_' are greater than latin characters such as 'i' considering their orders in the ASCII table. However, the sorting results from database's "order by" clause is different with my expectation. Here's my test: SQLite version 3.6.23 Enter ".help" for instructions Enter SQL statements terminated with a ";" sqlite> create table products(name varchar(10)); sqlite> insert into products values('ipod'); sqlite> insert into products values('iphone'); sqlite> insert into products values('[apple]'); sqlite> insert into products values('_ipad'); sqlite> select * from products order by name asc; [apple] _ipad iphone ipod This behavior is different from Java's string comparison (which cost me some time to find this issue). I can verify this in both SQLite 3.6.23 and Microsoft SQL Server 2005. I did some web search but cannot find any related documentation. Could someone shed me some light on it? Is it a SQL standard? Where can I find some information about this? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Fluent Nhibernate Mapping Single class on two database tables

  - by nabeelfarid

  Hi guys, I am having problems with Mapping. I have two tables in my database as follows: Employee and EmployeeManagers Employee EmployeeId int Name nvarchar EmployeeManagers EmployeeIdFk int ManagerIdFk int So the employee can have 0 or more Managers. A manager itself is also an Employee. I have the following class to represent the Employee and Managers public class Employee { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual IList<Employee> Managers { get; protected set; } public Employee() { Managers = new List<Employee>(); } } I don't have any class to represent Manager because I think there is no need for it, as Manager itself is an Employee. I am using autoMapping and I just can't figure out how to map this class to these two tables. I am implementing IAutoMappingOverride for overriding automappings for Employee but I am not sure what to do in it. public class NodeMap : IAutoMappingOverride { public void Override(AutoMapping<Node> mapping) { //mapping.HasMany(x => x.ValidParents).Cascade.All().Table("EmployeeManager"); //mapping.HasManyToMany(x => x.ValidParents).Cascade.All().Table("EmployeeManager"); } } I also want to make sure that an employee can not be assigned the same manager twice. This is something I can verify in my application but I would like to put constraint on the EmployeeManager table (e.g. a composite key) so a same manager can not be assigned to an employee more than once. Could anyone out there help me with this please? Awaiting Nabeel

  Read the article

• Can iPad/iPhone Touch Points be Wrong Due to Calibration?

  - by Kristopher Johnson

  I have an iPad application that uses the whole screen (that is, UIStatusBarHidden is set true in the Info.plist file). The main window's frame is set to (0, 0, 768, 1024), as is the main view in that frame. The main view has multitouch enabled. The view has code to handle touches: - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { for (UITouch *touch in touches) { CGPoint location = [touch locationInView:nil]; NSLog(@"touchesMoved at location %@", NSStringFromCGPoint(location)); } } When I run the app in the simulator, it works pretty much as expected. As I move the mouse from one edge of the screen to the other, reported X values go from 0 to 767. Reported Y values go from 20 to 1023, but it is a known issue that the simulator doesn't report touches in the top 20 pixels of the screen, even when there is no status bar. Here's what's weird: When I run the app on an actual iPad, the X values go from 0 to 767 as expected, but reported Y values go from -6 to 1017. The fact that it seems to work properly on the simulator leads me to suspect that real devices' touchscreens are not perfectly calibrated, and mine is simply reporting values six pixels too low. Can anyone verify that this is the case? Otherwise, is there anything else that could account for the Y values being six pixels off from what I expect? (In a few days, I should have a second iPad, so I can test this with another device and compare the results.)

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83  | Next Page >