Search Results

Search found 22900 results on 916 pages for 'pascal case'.

Page 791/916 | < Previous Page | 787 788 789 790 791 792 793 794 795 796 797 798  | Next Page >

  • Manipulating data in sql / asp.net / c# - how?

    - by SLC
    Not sure how to word the question... Basically, so far all my SQL stuff has been stored procedures and dumped into a gridview. The odd case where I had to perform an action based on a value (such as highlighting a row green if a certain value was true) were done as the gridview was rendering in one of the overrides. Now however I have to do something far more complicated - pull three sets of data down, run a series of checks on all three and some date related checks and stuff, then populate a gridview with some of the items. In logic terms, I want to run three queries, and store the lists of results (presumably in Lists?) then run some logic, then populate the gridview. Specifically what I don't know how to do is: Best way of pulling the data, and putting it into a List or other datastructure that lets me easily run through it, and retrieve data based on column (myList.age, or more likely, myList["Age"]). One I have compared the data, I assume I create a new list that will be put into the gridview... how do I put the contents of a list INTO a gridview? How would I add other stuff such as buttons or checkboxes at the same time? Any nudge in the right direction would be appreciated! Particularly doing cool stuff with lists and sql (if there is anything cool you can do with them)

    Read the article

  • Fastest container or algorithm for unique reusable ids in C++

    - by gman
    I have a need for unique reusable ids. The user can choose his own ids or he can ask for a free one. The API is basically class IdManager { public: int AllocateId(); // Allocates an id void FreeId(int id); // Frees an id so it can be used again bool MarkAsUsed(int id); // Let's the user register an id. // returns false if the id was already used. }; Assume ids happen to start at 1 and progress, 2, 3, etc. This is not a requirement, just to help illustrate. IdManager mgr; mgr.MarkAsUsed(3); printf ("%d\n", mgr.AllocateId()); printf ("%d\n", mgr.AllocateId()); printf ("%d\n", mgr.AllocateId()); Would print 1 2 4 Because id 3 has already been declared used. What's the best container / algorithm to both remember which ids are used AND find a free id? If you want to know the a specific use case, OpenGL's glGenTextures, glBindTexture and glDeleteTextures are equivalent to AllocateId, MarkAsUsed and FreeId

    Read the article

  • Enums and inheritance

    - by devoured elysium
    I will use (again) the following class hierarchy: Event and all the following classes inherit from Event: SportEventType1 SportEventType2 SportEventType3 SportEventType4 I have originally designed the Event class like this: public abstract class Event { public abstract EventType EventType { get; } public DateTime Time { get; protected set; } protected Event(DateTime time) { Time = time; } } with EventType being defined as: public enum EventType { Sport1, Sport2, Sport3, Sport4 } The original idea would be that each SportEventTypeX class would set its correct EventType. Now that I think of it, I think this approach is totally incorrect for two reasons: If I want to later add a new SportEventType class I will have to modify the enum If I later decide to remove one SportEventType that I feel I won't use I'm also in big trouble with the enum. I have a class variable in the Event class that makes, afterall, assumptions about the kind of classes that will inherit from it, which kinda defeats the purpose of inheritance. How would you solve this kind of situation? Define in the Event class an abstract "Description" property, having each child class implement it? Having an Attribute(Annotation in Java!) set its Description variable instead? What would be the pros/cons of having a class variable instead of attribute/annotation in this case? Is there any other more elegant solution out there? Thanks

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to create a running integer id on the AppEngine data storage?

    - by Freed
    For various reasons, I need a unique running integer id for my entities stored on the Google AppEngine. The automatically generated key sort of has this behaviour, but it doesn't start from 1 (or 0) and doesn't guarantee that the generated integer part will come from a continuous sequence. What would be the best way to efficiently implement this on AppEngine? Is there any support from the storage system? To add to the complexity, I might need to do this over entities from different entity groups, meaning I can't just get the highest id right now and save an entity with the next id in a transaction. Might memcache be the way to go..? Edit: I havn't yet implemented this, but to clarify on the memcache idea. I know memcache is unreliable, but in practice it probably won't lose data "too often" to hurt performance. Basically, I would have a memcache entry for the last used id, update it (somehow atomically) whenever I create a new entity and use that id. In the case of memcache not having a value for this entry, I'd get the highest id so far by doing a query on my entities sorted by the id and update memcache (unless someone else had already done so). The only problem I can see with this right now would be atomicity of the operation as a whole if the save of my new entity was also part of a transaction. Thoughts..?

    Read the article

  • php validate integer [updated]

    - by George Garchagudashvili
    Read B A: I'll give quick example: $a = "\n \t 34 3"; // string(9) $aint = intval($a); // int(34) var_dump($a == $aint); result: bool(true) call me noob but can you tell me why/how does these variables do pass equalization test? What I want to achieve is to check if '1989' equals 1989 would be true, but not any other case. ex: '1989 ' should not pass the test. Also I don't want to use regex. B: I need to validate if variable is integer, I've tried all the available built-in functions or helpful tips, but the only best solution would be regex which I don't want to use this time. also filter_var is not best because it also filters data, but I want to only validate it. 123 -123 '123' '-123' these inputs to be only true, false otherwise I've tried many different options: ctype_digit("-123"); // false - doesn't work is_int('123'); // false filter_var(' 123 ', FILTER_VALIDATE_INT) !== false; // true - doesn't work

    Read the article

  • Is there a unique computer identifier that can be used reliably even in a virtual machine?

    - by SaUce
    I'm writing a small client program to be run on a terminal server. I'm looking for a way to make sure that it will only run on this server and in case it is removed from the server it will not function. I understand that there is no perfect way of securing it to make it impossible to ran on other platforms, but I want to make it hard enough to prevent 95% of people to try anything. The other 5% who can hack it is not my concern. I was looking at different Unique Identifiers like Processor ID, Windows Product ID, Computer GUID and other UIs. Because the terminal server is a virtual machine, I cannot locate anything that is completely unique to this machine. Any ideas on what I should look into to make this 95% secure. I do not have time or the need to make it as secure as possible because it will defeat the purpose of the application itself. I do not want to user MAC address. Even though it is unique to each machine it can be easily spoofed. As far as Microsoft Product ID, because our system team clones VM servers and we use corporate volume key, I found already two servers that I have access to that have same Product ID Number. I have no Idea how many others out there that have same Product ID By 95% and 5% I just simply wanted to illustrate how far i want to go with securing this software. I do not have precise statistics on how many people can do what. I believe I might need to change my approach and instead of trying to identify the machine, I will be better off by identifying the user and create group based permission for access to this software.

    Read the article

  • Watching variables in SSIS during debug

    - by Tom H.
    I have a project in SSIS and I've added an Execute SQL Task which sends its result out to a variable. I wanted to confirm the value because I was worried that it would try to write it out as a resultset object rather than an actual integer (in this case I'm returning a COUNT). My first thought was just to run it in debug mode and add the global variable to my Watch window. Unfortunately, when I right-click on the Watch window, the option to "Add Variable" is greyed out. What am I missing here? I've gotten around confirming that my variable is set correctly, so I'm not interested in methods like putting a script in to do a MsgBox with the value or anything like that. For future reference I'd like to be able to watch variables in debug mode. If there are some kind of constraints on that then I'd like to know the what and why of it all if anyone knows. The help is woefully inadequate on this one and every "tutorial" that I can find just says, "Add the variable to the Watch window and debug" as though there should never be a problem doing that. Thanks for any insight!

    Read the article

  • Renaming the argument name in JAX-WS

    - by user182944
    I created a web service using JAX-WS in RSA 7.5 and Websphere 7 using bottom-up approach. When I open the WSDL in SOAP UI, then the arguments section is appearing like this: <!--Optional--> <arg0> <empID>?</empId> </arg0> <!--Optional--> <arg1> <empName>?</empName> </arg1> <!--Optional--> <arg2> <empAddress>?</empAddress> </arg2> <!--Optional--> <arg3> <empCountry>?</empCountry> </arg3> The service method takes the above 4 elements as the parameters to return the employee details. 1) I want to rename this arg0, arg1, and so on with some valid names. 2) I want to remove the <!--optional--> present above the arg tags. (For removing the <!--optional--> from elements name, I used @XMLElement(required=true)). But I am not sure where exactly to use this annotation in this case :( Please help. Regards,

    Read the article

  • Java: GatheringByteChannel advantages?

    - by Jason S
    I'm wondering when the GatheringByteChannel's write methods (taking in an array of ByteBuffers) have advantages over the "regular" WritableByteChannel write methods. I tried a test where I could use the regular vs. the gathering write method on a FileChannel, with approx 400KB/sec total in ByteBuffers of between 23-27 bytes in length in both cases. Gathering writes used an array of 64. The regular method used up approx 12% of my CPU, and the gathering method used up approx 16% of my CPU (worse than the regular method!) This tells me it's NOT useful to use gathering writes on a FileChannel around this range of operating parameters. Why would this be the case, and when would you ever use GatheringByteChannel? (on network I/O?) Relevant differences here: public void log(Queue<Packet> packets) throws IOException { if (this.gather) { int Nbuf = 64; ByteBuffer[] bbufs = new ByteBuffer[Nbuf]; int i = 0; Packet p; while ((p = packets.poll()) != null) { bbufs[i++] = p.getBuffer(); if (i == Nbuf) { this.fc.write(bbufs); i = 0; } } if (i > 0) { this.fc.write(bbufs, 0, i); } } else { Packet p; while ((p = packets.poll()) != null) { this.fc.write(p.getBuffer()); } } }

    Read the article

  • How to make Finder 'Open With' work for my application (XCode, OS X)?

    - by Adion
    I have created an application that is capable of playing audio files. This in itself works fine, and so does drag&drop from finder to my application. What I would like as well, is that people can use my application from Finder using the Open With menu (or even allow them to set my application as default for a certain file type) After a lot of searching, I found that I should configure a document type in XCode (Editing information property lists) I successfully added such a type named 'Music File', with UTI 'public.mp3' When I now right-click an MP3 file, my application is listed in the 'Open With' menu. Trying to use it, my app opens, but I get a warning message saying "The document could not be opened. App cannot open files in the 'Music File' format" It doesn't appear to be passed through the command line as is the case in Windows. My application does support drag&drop from Finder, and this is working fine too. I don't really know where to look next, so it would be great if anyone could point me in the right direction. My application isn't using NSDocument, so the 'Class' field doesn't apply for me I think (and according to the docs this field isn't required, but it doesn't say how to handle it without a Class)

    Read the article

  • Need help to solve sharedPreference probem

    - by HFherasen
    I am working on this app where I have one EditText field where you can write somthing and then it get saved and added to a list(TextView). I save the content of the EditText in this way : saved += "*" + editTextFelt.getText().toString() + ". \n"; saved is a String. Everything works fine, I can even reload the app and it's still displayed in the TextView, but if i try to write somthing and save it everything that was there, now dissapear. anyone know why ? It's kind of confusing, and I have to get it to work! Thank's!! CODE: init Mehtod() sp = getSharedPreferences(fileName, 0); betaView = (TextView)findViewById(R.id.betaTextView); Ive got a button to send the text, and this is like: p ublic void onClick(View v) { switch(v.getId()){ case R.id.btnSend: saved += "*" + editTextFelt.getText().toString() + ". \n"; SharedPreferences.Editor editor = sp.edit(); editor.putString("SAVED", saved); editor.commit(); betaView.setText(sp.getString("SAVED", "Empty"));

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET configuration inheritance

    - by NowYouHaveTwoProblems
    I have an ASP.NET application that defines a custom configuration section in web.config. Recently I had a customer who wanted to deploy two instances of the application (for testing in addition to an existing production application). The configuration chosen by the customer was: foo.com - production application foo.com/Testing - test application In this case, the ASP.NET configuration engine decided to apply the settings at foo.com/web.config to foo.com/Testing/web.config. Thankfully this caused a configuration error because the section was redefined at the second level rather than giving the false impression that the two web applications were isolated. What I would like to do is to specify that my configuration section is not inherited and must be re-defined for any web application that requires it but I haven't been able to find a way to do this. My web.config ends up something like this <configuration> <configSections> <section name="MyApp" type="MyApp.ConfigurationSection"/> </configSections> <MyApp setting="value" /> <NestedSettingCollection> <Item key="SomeKey" value="SomeValue" /> <Item key="SomeOtherKey" value="SomeOtherValue" /> </NestedSettingCollection> </MyApp> </configuration>

    Read the article

  • JS best practice for member functions

    - by MickMalone1983
    I'm writing a little mobile games library, and I'm not sure the best practice for declaring member functions of instantiated function objects. For instance, I might create a simple object with one property, and a method to print it: function Foo(id){ this.id = id; this.print = function(){ console.log(this.id); }; }; However, a function which does not need access to 'private' members of the function does not need to be declared in the function at all. I could equally have written: function print(){ console.log(this.id); }; function Foo(id){ this.id = id; this.print = print; }; When the function is invoked through an instance of Foo, the instance becomes the context for this, so the output is the same in either case. I'm not entirely sure how memory is allocated with JS, and I can't find anything that I can understand about something this specific, but it seems to me that with the first example all members of Foo, including the print function, are duplicated each time it is instantiated - but with the second, it just gets a pointer to one, pre-declared function, which would save any more memory having to be allocated as more instances of Foo are created. Am I correct, and if I am, is there any memory/performance benefit to doing this?

    Read the article

  • generate k distinct number less then n

    - by davit-datuashvili
    hi i have following question task is this generate k distinct positive numbers less then n without duplication my method is following first create array size of k where we should write these numbers int a[]=new int[k]; //now i am going to cretae another array where i check if (at given number position is 1 then generate number again else put this number in a array and continue cycle i put here a piece of code and explanations int a[]=new int[k]; int t[]=new int[n+1]; Random r=new Random(); for (int i==0;i<t.length;i++){ t[i]=0;//initialize it to zero } int m=0;//initialize it also for (int i=0;i<a.length;i++){ m=r.nextInt(n);//random element between 0 and n if (t[m]==1){ //i have problem with this i want in case of duplication element occurs repeats this steps afain until there will be different number else{ t[m]=1; x[i]=m; } } so i fill concret my problem if t[m]==1 it means that this element occurs already so i want to generate new number but problem is that number of generated numbers will not be k beacuse if i==0 and occurs duplicate element and we write continue then it will switch at i==1 i need like goto for repeat step or for (int i=0;i<x.length;i++){ loop: m=r.nextInt(n); if ( x[m]==1){ continue loop; } else{ x[m]=1; a[i]=m; continue;//continue next step at i=1 and so on } } i need this code in java please help

    Read the article

  • determining the starting speed for an accelerated animation (in flash/actionscript but it's a math question)

    - by vulkanino
    This question burns my brain. I have an object on a plane, but for the sake of simplicity let's work just on a single dimension, thus the object has a starting position xs. I know the ending position xe. The object has to move from starting to ending position with an accelerated (acceleration=a) movement. I know the velocity the object has to have at the ending position (=ve). In my special case the ending speed is zero, but of course I need a general formula. The only unknown is the starting velocity vs. The objects starts with vs in xs and ends with ve in xe, moving along a space x with an acceleration a in a time t. Since I'm working with flash, space is expressed in pixels, time is expressed in frames (but you can reason in terms of seconds, it's easy to convert knowing the frames-per-second). In the animation loop (think onEnterFrame) I compute the new velocity and the new position with (a=0.4 for example): vx *= a (same for vy) x += vx (same for y) I want the entire animation to last, say, 2 seconds, which at 30 fps is 60 frames. Now you know that in 60 frames my object has to move from xs to xe with a constant deceleration so that the ending speed is 0. How do I compute the starting speed vs? Maybe there's a simpler way to do this in Flash, but I am now interested in the math/physics behind this.

    Read the article

  • How to use JOIN using Hibernate's session.createSQLQuery()

    - by javauser71
    Hi All, I have two Entity (tables) - Employee & Project. An Employee can have multiple Projects. Project table's CREATOR_ID field refers to Employee table's ID field. Employee entity maintains a list of Project. Using EntityManager following query works fine - "entityManager.createQuery("select e from EmployeeDTO e, ProjectDTO p where p.id = ?1 and p.creator.id=e.id"); But since I have the LAZY association relationship, I get error: "Could not initialize proxy - no Session" if I try to access Project info from Employee entity. This is expected and so I am using Hibernate's Session to create query as shown below. Session session = HibernateUtil.getSessionFactory().openSession(); org.hibernate.Query q = session.createSQLQuery("SELECT E FROM EMPLOYEE_TAB E, PROJECT_TAB P WHERE P.ID = " + projectId + " AND P.CREATOR_ID = E.ID") .addEntity("EmployeeDTO ", EmployeeDTO.class) .addEntity("ProjectDTO", ProjectDTO.class); But I get error like: "Column 'E' is either not in any table in the FROM list or appears within a join specification and is outside the scope of the join specification..." Can anyone suggest what will be the right JOIN syntax for such case? If I use ("SELECT * FROM EMPLOYEE_TAB E, ........") - it gives other error: "java.lang.ClassCastException: [Ljava.lang.Object; cannot be cast to com.im.server.dto.EmployeeDTO". Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Best method to cache objects in PHP?

    - by Martin Bean
    Hi, I'm currently developing a large site that handles user registrations. A social networking website for argument's sake. However, I've noticed a lag in page loads and deciphered that it is the creation of objects on pages that's slowing things down. For example, I have a Member object, that when instantiated with an ID passed as a construct parameter, it queries the database for that members' row in the members database table. Not bad, but this is created each time a page is loaded; and called more than once when say, calling an array of that particular members' friends, as a new Member object is created for each friend. So on a single page I can have upwards of seven of the same object, but containing different properties. What I'm wanting to do is to find a way to reduce the database load, and to allow persist objects between page loads. For example, the logged in user's object to be created on login (which I can do) but then stored somewhere for retrieval so I don't have to keep re-creating the object between page loads. What is the best solution for this? I've had a look at Memcache, but with it being a third-party module I can't have the web host install it on this occasion. What are my alternatives, and/or best practices in my case? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Mysterious combination

    - by pstone
    I decided to learn concurrency and wanted to find out in how many ways instructions from two different processes could overlap. The code for both processes is just a 10 iteration loop with 3 instructions performed in each iteration. I figured out the problem consisted of leaving X instructions fixed at a point and then fit the other X instructions from the other process between the spaces taking into account that they must be ordered (instruction 4 of process B must always come before instruction 20). I wrote a program to count this number, looking at the results I found out that the solution is n Combination k, where k is the number of instructions executed throughout the whole loop of one process, so for 10 iterations it would be 30, and n is k*2 (2 processes). In other words, n number of objects with n/2 fixed and having to fit n/2 among the spaces without the latter n/2 losing their order. Ok problem solved. No, not really. I have no idea why this is, I understand that the definition of a combination is, in how many ways can you take k elements from a group of n such that all the groups are different but the order in which you take the elements doesn't matter. In this case we have n elements and we are actually taking them all, because all the instructions are executed ( n C n). If one explains it by saying that there are 2k blue (A) and red (B) objects in a bag and you take k objects from the bag, you are still only taking k instructions when 2k instructions are actually executed. Can you please shed some light into this? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Use jQuery.post() result in javascript function

    - by Juvlius
    I've got no clue how to do the following, so I wasn't sure what to search for either. For validating my registration form I've a javascript function that checkes the existence of the inserted username in the database onblur of the username textfield. function checkUsername(username){ $.post("checkmail.php", {mail: mailcheck} , function(data){ var $response=$(data); var response = $response.filter('#mail-response').text(); if(response == "taken") { document.getElementById('username').style.borderColor = rood; valid = false; } }); } This works fine, but now I want to validate it again onsubmit of the form in case users decide to submit an existing username. function validateForm() { var valid = true; //checks different fields //now check voor username existence var username = document.getElementById('username').value; checkUsername.call(username); if (!valid) { return false; } else { return true; } } I'm not familiar enough with Javascript to get this working. Probably thinking in the wrong direction...

    Read the article

  • geb StaleElementReferenceException

    - by Brian Mortenson
    I have just started using geb with webdriver for automating testing. As I understand it, when I define content on a page, the page element should be looked up each time I invoke a content definition. //In the content block of SomeModule, which is part of a moduleList on the page: itemLoaded { waitFor{ !loading.displayed } } loading { $('.loading') } //in the page definition moduleItems {index -> moduleList SomeModule, $("#module-list > .item"), index} //in a test on this page def item = moduleItems(someIndex) assert item.itemLoaded So in this code, I think $('.loading') should be called repeatedly, to find the element on the page by its selector, within the context of the module's base element. Yet I sometimes get a StaleElementReference exception at this point. As far as I can tell, the element does not get removed from the page, but even if it does, that should not produce this exception unless $ is doing some caching behind the scenes, but if that were the case it would cause all sorts of other problems. Can someone help me understand what's happening here? Why is it possible to get a StaleElementReferenceException while looking up an element? A pointer to relevant documentation or geb source code would be useful as well.

    Read the article

  • form_form and custom parameter in path_prefix

    - by fguillen
    Hi people, I have this route: # config/routes.rb map.namespace :backshop, :path_prefix => '/:shop_id/admin' do |backshop| backshop.resources :items end And I want to use the form_for magic to reuse the same form on both: new and edit views: <% form_for [:backshop, @item] do |f| %> This used to works, and used to build a create url for the item or update url for the item depending on the status of the @item object. But this is not working on this case because the routes don't exists without the shop_id parameter, and I don't know how to say to the form_for something like this: <% form_for [:backshop, @item], :shop_id => @shop do |f| %> Because it tries to use the @item like the :shop_id parameter. Or like this <% form_for [:backshop, @shop, @item] do |f| %> Because it tries to build this url: backshop_shop_order_path I Know I can just to extract the form_for declaration from the partial and do different calls on depending if new or edit: <% form_for( @item, :url => backshop_items_path( @shop ) ) do |f| %> and <% form_for( @item, :url => backshop_item_path( @shop, @item ) ) do |f| %> But I just wanted don't do this because I have a bunch of models and is a few boring :) Thanks for any suggestion f.

    Read the article

  • Writing all the html of a document with jquery instead of in the page body?

    - by Robert
    I'm a UI person currently working on a web application, where most of the people I work with are back end developers. I'm currently at a disagreement with them about whether or not the above is a prudent thing to do. This application doe use quite a bit of JavaScript, and wouldn't even work without it unfortunately. This being the case, One of the back end developers that I'm working with is claiming that pages could and even SHOULD be build completely with JavaScript or jquery. This caught me completely off guard. We're talking about div tags, lists, background images and text here. I'm trying to explain to him that this isn't the right way to do things at all, and from a best practices perspective: content(html) should be separate from presentation(css), and behavior(script etc.). I know that it's possible to write html in jquery, although I haven't done it, but am I wrong in my thinking that this isn't the way things should be done. Is it even possible to write ALL the code with jquery? would love to hear any thoughts either way, as I will be discussing this with him again tomorrow.

    Read the article

  • jQuery removeClass(), how it works

    - by centro
    I have images on my page. User can add more images onto the page by clicking a button. New images are added asynchronously. Initially, each image on page use a special class to be used when the image is loaded. After the image is loaded, that class is removed. Each image being loaded has the class imageLoading: <img class="imageLoading" scr="someimage.png"> After those images are loaded, I remove that class (simplified code without details): $('img.imageLoading') .each(function(){ $(this) .load(function(){ $(this) .removeClass('imageloading'); });}); Visually, I see that style is removed. But when I run the query again: $('img.imageLoading') I see via debugging that all images, not just loading ones, are returned, i.e. it works like I didn't remove the class for the images that were already loaded. I had a look into the page source, and I saw that actually in HTML the class was not removed, though removeClass() was called. Is that behavior by design that all visual changes are applied but the class attribute is not removed in HTML code? If so, how it can be workarounded in this case. Or, probably, I missed something.

    Read the article

  • Objects leaking immediately from allocation using either new or [[Object alloc] init];

    - by Sam
    While running Instruments to find leaks in my code, after I've loaded a file and populate an NSMutableArray with new objects, leaks pop up! I am correctly releasing the objects. Sample code below: //NSMutableArray declared as a retained property in the parent class if(!mutableArray) mutableArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:objectCount]; else [mutableArray removeAllObjects]; //Iterates through the read in data and populate the NSMutableArray for(int i = 0; i < objectCount; i++){ //Initializes a new object with data MyObject *object = [MyObject new]; //Adds the object to the mutableArray [mutableArray addObject:object]; //Releases the object [object release]; } I get a number of leaks from Instruments terminating at the addition of the 'object' into the 'mutableArray', but also including the allocation of the 'object' and the 'mutableArray'. I don't get it. Not to mention, this is happening on the first call of the enclosing method so the allocation of the NSMutableArray is being hit in the logic block, not the 'removeAllObjects' selector. Lastly, does Core Foundation have a major bug in it that randomly creates CFStrings and mismanages their memory? My code does not even use those, nor do the leaks where they occur have anything to do with my code. Almost all of my applications so far deal with OpenGL (in case anyone knows of a threading issue that arises from trying to synch the backend of the program with the front end of displaying the contents of an NSOpenGLView class or whatever it is).

    Read the article

  • How to store arbitrary data for some HTML tags

    - by nickf
    I'm making a page which has some interaction provided by javascript. Just as an example: links which send an AJAX request to get the content of articles and then display that data in a div. Obviously in this example, I need each link to store an extra bit of information: the id of the article. The way I've been handling it in case was to put that information in the href link this: <a class="article" href="#5"> I then use jQuery to find the a.article elements and attach the appropriate event handler. (don't get too hung up on the usability or semantics here, it's just an example) Anyway, this method works, but it smells a bit, and isn't extensible at all (what happens if the click function has more than one parameter? what if some of those parameters are optional?) The immediately obvious answer was to use attributes on the element. I mean, that's what they're for, right? (Kind of). <a articleid="5" href="link/for/non-js-users.html"> In my recent question I asked if this method was valid, and it turns out that short of defining my own DTD (I don't), then no, it's not valid or reliable. A common response was to put the data into the class attribute (though that might have been because of my poorly-chosen example), but to me, this smells even more. Yes it's technically valid, but it's not a great solution. Another method I'd used in the past was to actually generate some JS and insert it into the page in a <script> tag, creating a struct which would associate with the object. var myData = { link0 : { articleId : 5, target : '#showMessage' // etc... }, link1 : { articleId : 13 } }; <a href="..." id="link0"> But this can be a real pain in butt to maintain and is generally just very messy. So, to get to the question, how do you store arbitrary pieces of information for HTML tags?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 787 788 789 790 791 792 793 794 795 796 797 798  | Next Page >