Search Results

Search found 22900 results on 916 pages for 'pascal case'.

Page 788/916 | < Previous Page | 784 785 786 787 788 789 790 791 792 793 794 795  | Next Page >

  • how to filter text of the selected value in drop down

    - by Carlos
    I have a drop down menu. Has product types. Product types have associated value (from drop down) values correspond to machine groups. So each option should have three variables--Machine name, values, machine group. I can get the Machine name and I can get the machine value (and display them in a different field)...what I have not been able to figure out is how to change the value into the Machine group. jQuery('#MachineName').bind('change', function() { //get selected value from drop down; var selectedValue = jQuery("#MachineName").val(); //populate a text field with the selected drop down value jQuery("#MachineValue").val(selectedValue); What I would like to do is keep that MachineValue but then populate another text field with the sorted MachineGroup I have been trying to run it through something like switch(jQuery(this).val()){ case "236" : newVal = "8"; break; But I don't want to "change" the value I just want to do an "if then" type filter, so maybe something like: '236' => "8", '237' => "5", I just don't know how to properly say "assign the MachineGroup based on the MachineValue" (and then have it populate a different text field) In the end I would have three fields. The drop down, the MachineValue and the MachineGroup. Drop down and value are done, I just need to do Group. (And I can sort Group based on MachineName...just not sure which would be easier)

    Read the article

  • how to make custom ROMs for lesser-known Android devices (i.e., WellcoM A69)

    - by gonzobrains
    Hi, I have a WellcoM A69 Android phone I would like to start hacking. I bought it in Thailand (I think WellcoM is a Thai company). However, the docs don't explain how to get a recovery menu or anything like that. I would like to figure out how to make custom ROMs for it, because it doesn't have any Google Experience apps and I also want to change the boot screen. How can I go about doing this? If I can't do this, I want to at least be able to use the device in the Eclipse debugger. I select the debugging option under applications but the device still isn't recognized. Is this something that can be disabled by the manufacturer? In any case, I would like to re-enable it if a custom ROM can allow this. If this cannot be done at all, please at least point me in the direction of where I can start writing/building my own ROMs for the G1? I figured that would be a good starting point for learning. Thanks, Jeff

    Read the article

  • Renaming the argument name in JAX-WS

    - by user182944
    I created a web service using JAX-WS in RSA 7.5 and Websphere 7 using bottom-up approach. When I open the WSDL in SOAP UI, then the arguments section is appearing like this: <!--Optional--> <arg0> <empID>?</empId> </arg0> <!--Optional--> <arg1> <empName>?</empName> </arg1> <!--Optional--> <arg2> <empAddress>?</empAddress> </arg2> <!--Optional--> <arg3> <empCountry>?</empCountry> </arg3> The service method takes the above 4 elements as the parameters to return the employee details. 1) I want to rename this arg0, arg1, and so on with some valid names. 2) I want to remove the <!--optional--> present above the arg tags. (For removing the <!--optional--> from elements name, I used @XMLElement(required=true)). But I am not sure where exactly to use this annotation in this case :( Please help. Regards,

    Read the article

  • Custom collision

    - by bali182
    I was recently assigned to create a siple game using the Corona SDK. The main pillar of the game would be a simple event: the user should put a ball in a basket, and I should be able to handle this event. Here is a picture for better understanding: I successfully managed to create the collision shape for the basket, but i have trouble with the collision of the inside of this basket. My first thought was the following: create a new shape size and position it to fit the "belly" of this basket add it to the physics-world, and listen to the collision. With hybrid drawing it looks like this: But there is a problem: if i add this shape to the physics, it wouldn't let the ball fall into the, basket, it will handle this shape as a solid object as well. So my question is: How could I get this custom object to collide, without blocking the ball to fall through it? I have read a lots of forum post with similar questions but none of them got a proper answer. There must be a way to do this in an elegant way. And one note: Please don't suggest checking the collision manually, with rectangle intersection, because in this simple case it would work, but later I may need to change the shape of the basket, and then it will be useless!

    Read the article

  • [RAILS] Why is ssl_requirement clearing the Flash? (Chrome Mac)

    - by aaronrussell
    I am using ssl_requirement and since setting it up, my application's Flash messages are disappearing. I've modified the plugin slightly as accounts can optionally have a domain mapped to their account. In that case the non-ssl areas of the site should use the mapped domain, whereas the ssl areas should use the subdomain: def ensure_proper_protocol return true if ssl_allowed? if ssl_required? && !request.ssl? redirect_to "https://#{@account.subdomain}." + APP_CONF[:domain] + request.request_uri flash.keep return false elsif request.ssl? && !ssl_required? redirect_to "http://#{@account.sub_or_mapped_domain}" + request.request_uri flash.keep return false end end The application is broadly split into a website (front end) and an admin (back end). ALL of the admin area uses SSL so in the AdminController I have overwritten ssl_required? with: protected def ssl_required? return false if RAILS_ENV == "test" || RAILS_ENV == "development" true end Interestingly, Flash messages work fine in the development environment, where I am bypassing requiring SSL, but in my production environment where SSL is required, all Flash are gone. Any ideas? EDIT I've done some further testing and can add that this problem is ONLY occurring in Chrome on the Mac. Other Mac browsers and Chrome on windows are displaying the Flash messages as expected. This may be a bug with Chrome on the Mac then...?

    Read the article

  • Dynamic jQuery dialog after data append w/o reloading page. Possible?

    - by Arun
    Howdy, So I have a page with an enormous table in a CRUD interface of sorts. Each link within a span calls a jQuery UI Dialog Form which fetches it's content from another page. When the action taking place (in this case, a creation) has completed, it appends the resulting new data to the table and forces a resort of the table. This all happens within the JS and the DOM. The problem with this, is that the new table row's CRUD links don't actually trigger the dialog form creation as all the original links in spans are only scanned on document.ready and since I'm not reloading the page, the new links cannot be seen. Code is as follows: $(document).ready(function() { var $loading = $('<img src="/images/loading.gif" alt="Loading">'); $('span a').each(function() { var $dialog = $('<div></div>') .append($loading.clone()); var $link = $(this).one('click', function() { // Dialog Stuff success: function(data) { $('#studies tbody').append( '<tr>' + '<td><span><a href="./?action=update&study=' + data.study_id + '" title="Update Study">Update</a></span></td>' + '</tr>' ); fdTableSort.init(#studies); // This re-sorts the table. $(this).dialog('close'); } $link.click(function() { $dialog.dialog('open'); return false; }); return false; }); }); }); Basically, my question is if there is any way in which to trigger a jQuery re-evaluation of the pages links without forcing me to do a browser page refresh?

    Read the article

  • Is inheritance bad nowadays?

    - by mafutrct
    Personally, I think inheritance is a great tool, that, when applied reasonably, can greatly simplify code. However, I seems to me that many modern tools dislike inheritance. Let's take a simple example: Serialize a class to XML. As soon as inheritance is involved, this can easily turn into a mess. Especially if you're trying to serialize a derived class using the base class serializer. Sure, we can work around that. Something like a KnownType attribute and stuff. Besides being an itch in your code that you have to remember to update every time you add a derived class, that fails, too, if you receive a class from outside your scope that was not known at compile time. (Okay, in some cases you can still work around that, for instance using the NetDataContract serializer in .NET. Surely a certain advancement.) In any case, the basic principle still exists: Serialization and inheritance don't mix well. Considering the huge list of programming strategies that became possible and even common in the past decade, I feel tempted to say that inheritance should be avoided in areas that relate to serialization (in particular remoting and databases). Does that make sense? Or am messing things up? How do you handle inheritance and serialization?

    Read the article

  • Not Understanding Basics Of Dynamic DataBinding (bindPropety) In Flex

    - by Joshua
    I need to dynamically bind properties of components created at runtime. In this particular case please assume I need to use bindProperty. I don't quite understand why the following simplistic test is failing (see code). When I click the button, the label text does not change. I realize that there are simpler ways to go about this particular example using traditional non-dynamic binding, but I need to understand it in terms of using bindProperty. Can someone please help me understand what I'm missing? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:WindowedApplication xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" xmlns:ns1="Tools.*" minWidth="684" minHeight="484" xmlns:ns2="*" creationComplete="Init();"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.collections.ArrayCollection; import mx.binding.utils.*; public var Available:ArrayCollection=new ArrayCollection(); public function get Value():String { return (Available.getItemAt(0).toString()); } public function Init():void { Available.addItemAt('Before', 0); BindingUtils.bindProperty(Lab, 'text', this, 'Value'); } public function Test():void { Available.setItemAt('After', 0); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Label x="142" y="51" id="Lab"/> <mx:Button x="142" y="157" label="Button" click="Test();"/> </mx:WindowedApplication> Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Ruby - RegEx problem or maybe another solution altogether

    - by r3nrut
    Ok the problem I'm having is that I have a block of javascript I've successfully scraped out of a websites source and now I have to sift through the js to get the specific values I'm looking for. Below is the chunk i'm needing to deal with. I need to find "flvFileName" and get all the file names listed. In this case its: trailer1,trailer2,trailer3. At first I started using regex to match the start and end tags and them match the file names and extract them to an array but the problem is that there isn't always 3 videos in the list. Could be 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 etc. So matching doesn't work. Any thoughts on a way to approach this that won't make me continue to abuse my laptop? ["", "\r\n", "\n", "\r\n function IgnoreEnter(e) {\r\n var code;\r\n if (!e) // IE\r\n {\r\n var e = window.event;\r\n }\r\n if (e.keyCode) {\r\n code = e.keyCode;\r\n }\r\n else if (e.which) // Firefox, Opera\r\n {\r\n code = e.which;\r\n }\r\n\r\n if (code == 13) {\r\n e.cancelBubble = true;\r\n e.returnValue = false;\r\n }\r\n }\r\n\r\n function ResetDefault() {\r\n __defaultFired = false;\r\n }\r\n", "", "\r\n// <![CDATA[\r\n$(doc).ready(function () { $('#VideoObject').flash({ swf: '/scinema/video.swf', height: 300, width: 480, hasVersion: 8, menu: false, wmode: 'transparent', bgcolor: '#000',flashvars: {flvFileName: 'trailer1,trailer2,trailer3', age: 'no', isForced: 'true'} }); });

    Read the article

  • Modifying html of dom element that was created after page loaded

    - by Ben321
    I have two separate AJAX calls. One that gets a list of items from a txt file and creates an HTML table out of them and one that talks to a database to find how much each item costs and then lists this in the corresponding table cell for each item (I know this may sound like a strange approach, but it's a good option in our case...). The issue is that the price is not getting written to the table since the table is created (or to be precise, the rows of the table are created) after the page loads. I'm not sure how to fix this. $(document).ready(function() { makeItemTable(); listPrices(); ... }); function makeItemTable() { $.ajax({ url: 'products.php', type: 'GET' }) .done(function(response) { $('.price-table > tbody').html(response); }) } function listPrices() { .ajax({ url: 'prices.php', type: 'GET' }) .done(function(response) { priceData = $.parseJSON(response); $('.price-table tr').each(function() { var item = $(this).find('td:nth-child(1)').text(); if (priceData[item]) { var price = priceData[item]; $(this).find('td:nth-child(2)').text(price); } }) }

    Read the article

  • Are there concurrency problems when using -performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: ?

    - by mystify
    For example, I often use this: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:someDelay]; Now, lets say I call this 10 times to perform at the exact same delay, like: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; - (void)doSomethingAfterDelay:(id)someObject { /* access an array, read stuff, write stuff, do different things that would suffer in multithreaded environments .... all operations are nonatomic! */ } I have observed pretty strange behavior when doing things like this. For my understanding, this method schedules a timer to fire on the current thread, so in this case the main thread. But since it doesn't create new threads, it actually should not be possible to run into concurrency problems, right?

    Read the article

  • Are there concurrency problems when using -performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: ?

    - by mystify
    For example, I often use this: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:someDelay]; Now, lets say I call this 10 times to perform at the exact same delay, like: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; - (void)doSomethingAfterDelay:(id)someObject { /* access an array, read stuff, write stuff, do different things that would suffer in multithreaded environments .... all operations are nonatomic! */ } I have observed pretty strange behavior when doing things like this. For my understanding, this method schedules a timer to fire on the current thread, so in this case the main thread. But since it doesn't create new threads, it actually should not be possible to run into concurrency problems, right?

    Read the article

  • Is Maven really flexible?

    - by Dima
    I understand how Maven works with .java files in src/java/main. But may it be used for a more general case? Let us put it more abstract: Suppose I already have some a.exe that read some (not necessarily only .java) sources from directories A1, A2, A3 and puts some files (maybe some are generated .java) to directories B1, B2. I also have some b.exe that currently reads files from B1, B2, B3 and generates something else. Some more similar steps. (A real life problem stands behind). I would like to right POM.xml file so that maven will do this work. Is that possible? I assume that a.exe and b.exe should be warped as maven plugings. Next, in Maven docs I see : <build> <sourceDirectory>${basedir}/src/main/java</sourceDirectory> <scriptSourceDirectory>${basedir}/src/main/scripts</scriptSourceDirectory> <testSourceDirectory>${basedir}/src/test/java</testSourceDirectory> <outputDirectory>${basedir}/target/classes</outputDirectory> <testOutputDirectory>${basedir}/target/test-classes</testOutputDirectory> ... </build> What bothers me is that "sourceDirectory" looks by itself as a hard coded name. Will Maven accept A1 and A2 tags instead?

    Read the article

  • NHibernate Performance Optimization | Suggestions invited!!!

    - by user336749
    Hi, I’m facing an issue with NHibernate performance and can you please suggest me some optimizations? Below mentioned is a small summary of my application architecture I have a windows service which is listening to a messaging bus. On receiving a message the service creates an object out of which a property is the received xml snippet and saves the message to the DB (uses NH). There is a WPF UI with a readonly connection to the DB, and on refresh of the UI it displays the objects on the screen. While the UI does a refresh, it retrieves the xml and deserializes it , from which the object’s properties are derived and binded to the screen. For example assume an xml XXX is received by the service, it deserializes the xml , creates the book object and save it to the DB and a property/column is SCHEMA which contains the xml snippet. The UI while refreshed searches all book objects by ID and creates the book objects out of the xml which is being saved (yes, the xml is the constructor param). Now my issue is that the refresh takes more than 2 minutes to display say 50 book objects. I analyzed it using the NHibernate profiler, and found that the time spend within the DB is negligible, however time spent to create the entities is proportionally huge(10ms:1990 ms).I guess it’s due to the fairly huge size of xml snippet and it’s deserialization. My question is, how can I improve the performance. I dispose sessions after every refresh and is not lazy loading (please note that the time spend in DB is negligible). On every refresh it’s possible that all objects are updated by some downstream systems or maybe one of them are updated.Can I implement some sort of caching mechanism in this case? Thanks in advance for any suggestions. Regards, -Mike

    Read the article

  • Django - Problem with models/manager to organise a query...

    - by user296644
    Hi, I have an application to count the number of access to an object for each website in a same database. class SimpleHit(models.Model): """ Hit is the hit counter of a given object """ content_type = models.ForeignKey(ContentType) object_id = models.PositiveIntegerField() content_object = generic.GenericForeignKey('content_type', 'object_id') site = models.ForeignKey(Site) hits_total = models.PositiveIntegerField(default=0, blank=True) [...] class SimpleHitManager(models.Manager): def get_query_set(self): print self.model._meta.fields qset = super(SimpleHitManager, self).get_query_set() qset = qset.filter(hits__site=settings.SITE_ID) return qset class SimpleHitBase(models.Model): hits = generic.GenericRelation(SimpleHit) objects = SimpleHitManager() _hits = None def _db_get_hits(self, only=None): if self._hits == None: try: self._hits = self.hits.get(site=settings.SITE_ID) except SimpleHit.DoesNotExist: self._hits = SimpleHit() return self._hits @property def hits_total(self): return self._db_get_hits().hits_total [...] class Meta: abstract = True And I have a model like: class Model(SimpleHitBase): name = models.CharField(max_length=255) url = models.CharField(max_length=255) rss = models.CharField(max_length=255) creation = AutoNowAddDateTimeField() update = AutoNowDateTimeField() So, my problem is this one: when I call Model.objects.all(), I would like to have one request for the SQL (not two). In this case: one for Model in order to have information and one for the hits in order to have the counter (hits_total). This is because I cannot call directly hits.hits_total (due to SITE_ID?). I have tried select_related, but it seems to do not work... Question: - How can I add column automatically like (SELECT hits.hits_total, model.* FROM [...]) to the queryset? - Or use a functional select_related with my models? I want this model could be plugable on all other existing model. Thank you, Best regards.

    Read the article

  • Issue with changing an attribute with jquery

    - by rshivers
    Hello, I'm having an issue with changing the attribute for an id and can't seem to figure out what I'm doing wrong. I guess it doesn't help that I'm new to this also. I have a function that tests to make sure that I am pulling the correct id from the row in my form that I have dynamically created. It goes something like this: myFunction() { var id = $(id).attr("id"); alert("This is my id " + id); } This works with no problem and when I click the button assigned to alert me of my id it will give give me the id of the dynamic row in my form. The issue is now when I try to change the id with this: changeId() { var newId = $(id).attr("id", "x"); alert("This is my new id " + newId); } What happens in this case is that it will alert saying "This is my new id [object Object]" instead of giving me the new id. Any suggestions? I'd really appreciate any help with this.

    Read the article

  • Gmail Sync on Android phone

    - by sunocky
    Android has the Gmail push features, which means the new message arrives in the mailbox without checking or refreshing the mailbox. As I understand, the sync processes are like these: 1) User turns on the sync 2) There will be a alert msg and the sync flag in the Gmail DB of this device will be True 3) When a new email reach the Gmail Server, it will check if the device sync value, if it's True then send the email OK, here, I don't quite understand how exactly does it work, For a WiFi and cell signal connection, does the phone has a TCP socket open keep listening to the Gmail Server, or when a new email arrives the Server send a SMS alert to the phone, and then it will open the data channel to fetch the email? Are the two ways of connections have different approaches? And second question is which method is the priority one? Say when you are in the middle of receiving data(emails), and suddenly the phone connect to a wireless network, will the data socket be closed and then reopened for the WiFi one? What's the behavior for the case when carrier's data channel and WiFi flips? I have also downloaded the source code, anyone knows which part should I be looking into in order to solves my questions? I found a folder called "email" inside the folder "package", should I be looking at its code? I know I asked quite some questions here, I'd appreciate if you know the answer for any of them, thanks very much!

    Read the article

  • Rangy move boundaries of user selection out of header element

    - by Frank
    I'm using rangy and have a case with a contenteditable div where the users selection can be saved and later restored so that HTML can be inserted. My problem is that if the user selects within a header element, I don't want the html inserted within a header. So I'm trying to figure out how to use rangy so that if the the selection is made within a header then I can move it before the header element. So if the user selects within an h1: <div id="editable" contenteditable> <h1>|user selects here| Header Text</h1> </div> Then the saved selection would be moved before the h1: | selection boundary moved here |<div id="editable" contenteditable> <h1>|user selects here| Header Text</h1> </div> I've tried the following to see if I could move the selection boundary: var sel = rangy.getSelection(); var range = sel.getRangeAt(0); range.setStartBefore(sel.anchorNode.parentNode); sel.removeAllRanges(); sel.addRange(range); selected = rangy.saveSelection(); But when I select within the H1, it still sets the saved selection boundaries within the H1 and not before it. I'm not sure how I can get the boundaries moved before the header element.

    Read the article

  • byte and short data types in Java can accept the value outside the range by explicit cast. The higher data types however can not. Why?

    - by Lion
    Let's consider the following expressions in Java. byte a = 32; byte b = (byte) 250; int i = a + b; This is valid in Java even though the expression byte b = (byte) 250; is forced to assign the value 250 to b which is outside the range of the type byte. Therefore, b is assigned -6 and consequently i is assigned the value 26 through the statement int i = a + b;. The same thing is possible with short as follows. short s1=(short) 567889999; Although the specified value is outside the range of short, this statement is legal. The same thing is however wrong with higher data types such int, double, folat etc and hence, the following case is invalid and causes a compile-time error. int z=2147483648; This is illegal, since the range of int in Java is from -2,147,483,648 to 2147483647 which the above statement exceeds and issues a compile-time error. Why is such not wrong with byte and short data types in Java?

    Read the article

  • xml filtering with python

    - by saminny
    Hi, I have a following xml document: <node1> <node2 a1="x1"> ... </node2> <node2 a1="x2"> ... </node2> <node2 a1="x1"> ... </node2> </node1> I want to filter out node2 when a1 = x2. The user provides the xpath and attribute values that need to tested and filtered out. I looked at some solutions in python like BeautifulSoup but they are too complicated and dont preserve the case of text. I want to keep the document same as before with some stuff filtered out. Can you recommend a simple and succinct solution? This should not be too complicated from the looks of it. The actual xml document is not as simple as above but idea is the same.

    Read the article

  • OpenCalais API using jQuery

    - by Varun
    Hi I've wanted to do some language processing for an application and have been trying to use the OpenCalais API. The call to the API works perfectly and returns data. The problem is that even though I can see the data in the firebug, I cannot access it because the callback never triggers. Details: the call requires callback=? as it is a JSONP request. so callback=foo SHOULD call the foo method once the data is returned, it doesn't. in fact, if callback is anything other than ? the call fails and doesn't return any data. (i've also checked JSLint to make sure the returned JSON is valid). tried using $.ajax instead of $.getJSON so that I can get an error callback, but neither the success or error callbacks fire. in firebug, usually when you make a JSON request, the request shows up in the console. In this case, the request doesn't show up in the console, but instead shows in the "Net" tab in firebug...dunno what that means, but somehow the browser doesn't think its an XHR request. any ideas? thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why is post() not updating the DOM after it returns? Wierd timing problem observed.

    - by Sephrial
    Hi all, I have the following code that is really bugging me, I'm thinking perhaps the post() function needs to be blocking. I am new to jQuery(latest version) and AJAX, but I'm using ColdFusion which returns some HTML in the data variable. var dataResult; var statusResult; $.post('fh_result.cfm',$('#myform').serialize(),function(data,status){ dataResult = data; statusResult = status; }); //alert(statusResult); if ('success' == statusResult) { alert(statusResult); $('#result').html(dataResult); } When I uncomment out the first alert, it returns 'undefined' but then it goes into the if block and the next alert box it says 'success'. If I comment out that line it doesn't make it into the if statement at all. My guess is that I want to make this a blocking call or something because I want to insert the data on the page after the post. I also have a problem when I re-write the top code as follows: var dataResult; var statusResult; $.post('fh_result.cfm',$('#myform').serialize(),function(data,status){ dataResult = data; statusResult = status; alert(statusResult); $('#result').html(dataResult); }); //alert(statusResult); Now in this case, the alert says 'success' when I comment out the second alert box. When I uncomment it out, I get one alert that says success and the other that says undefined, but this time it updates the DOM with the result of the postback as desired. How can I do this without the alert box?

    Read the article

  • Calculating with a variable outside of its bounds in C

    - by aquanar
    If I make a calculation with a variable where an intermediate part of the calculation goes higher then the bounds of that variable type, is there any hazard that some platforms may not like? This is an example of what I'm asking: int a, b; a=30000; b=(a*32000)/32767; I have compiled this, and it does give the correct answer of 29297 (well, within truncating error, anyway). But the part that worries me is that 30,000*32,000 = 960,000,000, which is a 30-bit number, and thus cannot be stored in a 16-bit int. The end result is well within the bounds of an int, but I was expecting that whatever working part of memory would have the same size allocated as the largest source variables did, so an overflow error would occur. This is just a small example to show my problem, I am trying to avoid using floating points by making the fraction be a fraction of the max amount able to be stored in that variable (in this case, a signed integer, so 32767 on the positive side), because the embedded system I'm using I believe does not have an FPU. So how do most processors handle calculations out of the bounds of the source and destination variables?

    Read the article

  • iPhone: How to run a Beta build, in addition to the App Store build?

    - by rondoagogo
    Hi, All! I have an app on the Store for which we’re readying an update. The other members of our team have the App Store version already loaded up (~purchased) on their respective iPhones -- and those contain User Data which each member needs to be able to keep. In the meantime, we need to test out a Beta version of the next version of the app. Presumably, we’d need to have the two versions (ad hoc, and app store) co-existing on each device, at least until everyone’s signed off on the beta, and it’s uploaded to the store (at which point, they'd delete the beta version). [Once it’s on the Store, of course, they can each update their main (i.e., Release) version of the app via the usual App Store 'update' mechanism -- and then delete the beta version from their devices. In that case, all their user data is still retained intact.] So assuming that’s the proper workflow ... How do I issue a Beta to the team, and have it not replace/overwrite the existing App Store version? I’ve tried customizing parameters in the beta’s “[appname]-Info.plist”, but haven’t found a setting yet that allows the two versions (beta and release) to co-exist on the same device. Any ideas? And is this this is the proper approach to them being able to keep their data? (And last, how might I do it with & without a script? I assume there's just one parameter that'd need to be changed.) I hope this all makes sense -- thank you in advance for your help!

    Read the article

  • Git + SoA, one repo or many?

    - by parsenome
    Normally, when I start up a new application, I'd create a new git repository for it. That's well accepted and plays nice with Github when I want to share my code. At work, I'm working in a service oriented architecture. One very common pattern is to add some code to two different applications at the same time - perhaps adding a model with a RESTful interface to one and a web frontend for managing it on another. Using separate git repositories has some warts in this case. Here are what I see as the downsides of doing separate repositories: I have to commit twice I can't correllate related commits very well No single place to go back and trace history - I'd love to be able to bring up all my commits for the day in a single place Forgetting to pull one repo or another is a gotcha On the other hand, I've used perforce a lot and its one giant repository model has lots of warts too. Perforce has features designed to let help you with those, git doesn't. Has anyone else run into this situation? How did you handle it? What worked well, and what didn't?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 784 785 786 787 788 789 790 791 792 793 794 795  | Next Page >