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• Strategies for "Always-Connected" Windows Client Data Architecture

  - by magz2010

  Hi. Let me start by saying: this is my 1st post here, this is a bit lenghty, and I havent done Windows Forms development in years....with that in mind please excuse me if this isn't directly a programming question and please bear with me as I really need the help!! I have been asked to develop a Windows Forms app for our company that talks to a central (local area network) Linux Server hosting a PostgreSQL database. The app is to allow users to authenticate themselves into the system and thereafter conduct the usual transactions with the PG database. Ordinarily, I would propose writing a webforms app against Mono, but the clients need to utilise local resources such as USB peripheral devices, so that is out of the question. While it might not seem clear, my questions are italised below: Dilemma #1: The application is meant to be always connected. How should I structure my DAL/BLL - Should this reside on the server or with the client? Dilemma #2: I have been reading up on Client Application Services (CAS), and it seems like a great fit for authentication, as everything is exposed via URIs. I know that a .NET Data Provider exists for PostgreSQL, but not too sure if CAS will all work on a Linux (Debian) server? Believe me, I would get my hands dirty and try myself, but I need to come up with a logical design first before resources are allocated to me for "trial purposes"! Dilemma #3: If the DAL/BLL is to reside on the server, is there any way I can create data services, and expose only these services to authenticated clients. There is a (security) requirement whereby a connection string with username and password to the database cannot be present on any client machines...even if security on the database side is quite rigid. I'm guessing that the only way for this to work would be to create the various CRUD data service methods that are exposed by an ASP.NET app, and have the WindowsForms make a request for data or persist data to the ASP.NET app (thru a URI) and have that return a resultset or value. Would I be correct in assuming this? Should I be looking into WCF Data Services? and will WCF work with a non-SQL Server database? Thank you for taking the time out to read this, but know that I am desperately seeking any advice on this! THANKS A MILLION!!!!

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• ActionResult - Service

  - by cem

  I bored, writing same code for service and ui. Then i tried to write a converter for simple actions. This converter, converting Service Results to MVC result, seems like good solution for me but anyway i think this gonna opposite MVC pattern. So here, I need help, what you think about algorithm - is this good or not? Thanks ServiceResult - Base: public abstract class ServiceResult { public static NoPermissionResult Permission() { return new NoPermissionResult(); } public static SuccessResult Success() { return new SuccessResult(); } public static SuccessResult<T> Success<T>(T result) { return new SuccessResult<T>(result); } protected ServiceResult(ServiceResultType serviceResultType) { _resultType = serviceResultType; } private readonly ServiceResultType _resultType; public ServiceResultType ResultType { get { return _resultType; } } } public class SuccessResult<T> : ServiceResult { public SuccessResult(T result) : base(ServiceResultType.Success) { _result = result; } private readonly T _result; public T Result { get { return _result; } } } public class SuccessResult : SuccessResult<object> { public SuccessResult() : this(null) { } public SuccessResult(object o) : base(o) { } } Service - eg. ForumService: public ServiceResult Delete(IVUser user, int id) { Forum forum = Repository.GetDelete(id); if (!Permission.CanDelete(user, forum)) { return ServiceResult.Permission(); } Repository.Delete(forum); return ServiceResult.Success(); } Controller: public class BaseController { public ActionResult GetResult(ServiceResult result) { switch (result.ResultType) { case ServiceResultType.Success: var successResult = (SuccessResult)result; return View(successResult.Result); break; case ServiceResultType.NoPermission: return View("Error"); break; default: return View(); break; } } } [HandleError] public class ForumsController : BaseController { [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] [Transaction] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Delete(int id) { ServiceResult result = ForumService.Delete(WebUser.Current, id); /* Custom result */ if (result.ResultType == ServiceResultType.Success) { TempData[ControllerEnums.GlobalViewDataProperty.PageMessage.ToString()] = "The forum was successfully deleted."; return this.RedirectToAction(ec => Index()); } /* Custom result */ /* Execute Permission result etc. */ TempData[ControllerEnums.GlobalViewDataProperty.PageMessage.ToString()] = "A problem was encountered preventing the forum from being deleted. " + "Another item likely depends on this forum."; return GetResult(result); } }

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• (mySQL) Unable to query 2 tables properly for data

  - by Devner

  I have 2 tables. One is 'page_links' and the other is 'rpp'. Table page_links is the superset of table rpp. The following is the schema of my tables: -- Table structure for table `page_links` -- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `page_links` ( `page` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `page_link` varchar(100) NOT NULL, `heading_id` tinyint(3) unsigned NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`page`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; -- -- Dumping data for table `page_links` -- INSERT INTO `page_links` (`page`, `page_link`, `heading_id`) VALUES ('a1.php', 'A1', 8), ('b1.php', 'B1', 8), ('c1.php', 'C1', 5), ('d1.php', 'D1', 5), ('e1.php', 'E1', 8), ('f1.php', 'F1', 8), ('g1.php', 'G1', 8), ('h1.php', 'H1', 1), ('i1.php', 'I1', 1), ('j1.php', 'J1', 8), ('k1.php', 'K1', 8), ('l1.php', 'L1', 8), ('m1.php', 'M1', 8), ('n1.php', 'N1', 8), ('o1.php', 'O1', 8), ('p1.php', 'P1', 4), ('q1.php', 'Q1', 5), ('r1.php', 'R1', 4); -- Table structure for table `rpp` -- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `rpp` ( `role_id` tinyint(3) unsigned NOT NULL, `page` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `is_allowed` tinyint(1) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`role_id`,`page`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; -- -- Dumping data for table `rpp` -- INSERT INTO `rpp` (`role_id`, `page`, `is_allowed`) VALUES (3, 'a1.php', 1), (3, 'b1.php', 1), (3, 'c1.php', 1), (3, 'd1.php', 1), (3, 'e1.php', 1), (3, 'f1.php', 1), (3, 'h1.php', 1), (3, 'i1.php', 1), (3, 'l1.php', 1), (3, 'm1.php', 1), (3, 'n1.php', 1), (4, 'a1.php', 1), (4, 'b1.php', 1), (4, 'q1.php', 1), (5, 'r1.php', 1); WHAT I AM TRYING TO DO: I am trying to query both the above tables (in a single query) in such a way that all the pages from page_links are displayed along with the is_allowed value from rpp for a particular role. For example, I want to get the is_allowed value of all the pages from rpp for role_id = 3 and at the same time, list all the available pages from page_links. A clear example of my expected result would be: page is_allowed role_id ---------------------------------------- a1.php 1 3 b1.php 1 3 c1.php 1 3 d1.php 1 3 e1.php 1 3 f1.php 1 3 g1.php NULL NULL h1.php 1 3 i1.php 1 3 j1.php NULL NULL k1.php NULL NULL l1.php 1 3 m1.php 1 3 n1.php 1 3 o1.php NULL NULL p1.php NULL NULL q1.php NULL NULL r1.php NULL NULL One more example of my desired result could be achieved by doing a LEFT JOIN rpp ON page_links.page = rpp.page but we need to omit using role_id = 3 (or any value) to be able to get that. But I do want to specify the role_id as well and get the results. I need the query to be able to get this result. I would appreciate any replies that could help me with this. If you can suggest me any changes as well to the table(s) design to be able to achieve the desired result, that's good as well. Thanks in advance.

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• how to set a polyline on google maps every time when i click twice(make two markers) on maps,

  - by zjm1126

  this is my code : thanks <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//WAPFORUM//DTD XHTML Mobile 1.0//EN" "http://www.wapforum.org/DTD/xhtml-mobile10.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <meta name="viewport" content="width=device-width,minimum-scale=1.0,maximum-scale=5.0,user-scalable=yes"> </head> <body onload="initialize()" onunload="GUnload()"> <style type="text/css"> </style> <div id="map_canvas" style="width: 500px; height: 300px;float:left;"></div> <script src="jquery-1.4.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="jquery-ui-1.8rc3.custom.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://maps.google.com/maps?file=api&amp;v=2&amp;key=ABQIAAAA-7cuV3vqp7w6zUNiN_F4uBRi_j0U6kJrkFvY4-OX2XYmEAa76BSNz0ifabgugotzJgrxyodPDmheRA&sensor=false"type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> //********** function initialize() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible()){ //var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map_canvas")); //map.setCenter(new GLatLng(39.9493, 116.3975), 13); var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map_canvas")); var center=new GLatLng(39.917,116.397); map.setCenter(center, 13); map.addOverlay(new GMarker(new GLatLng(39.917,116.397))); map.enableDrawing() //GEvent.addListener(map, "mouseover", function() { //alert("???????"); //}); var one; aFn=function(y_scale,x_scale){ //************ //function p(){ var bounds = map.getBounds(); var southWest = bounds.getSouthWest(); var northEast = bounds.getNorthEast(); var lngSpan = northEast.lng() - southWest.lng(); var latSpan = northEast.lat() - southWest.lat(); var point = new GLatLng(southWest.lat() + latSpan * (1-y_scale), southWest.lng() + lngSpan * x_scale); if(!one){ map.addOverlay(new GMarker(point)); one=point; }else{ var polyline = new GPolyline([one,point], "#ff0000", 5); map.addOverlay(polyline); one=0; } } //********** //************* } } </script> </body> </html>

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• Is a Multi-DAL Approach the way to go here?

  - by Krisc

  Working on the data access / model layer in this little MVC2 project and trying to think things out to future projects. I have a database with some basic tables and I have classes in the model layer that represent them. I obviously need something to connect the two. The easiest is to provide some sort of 'provider' that can run operations on the database and return objects. But this is for a website that would potentially be used "a lot" (I know, very general) so I want to cache results from the data layer and keep the cache updated as new data is generated. This question deals with how best to approach this problem of dual DALS. One that returns cached data when possible and goes to the data layer when there is a cache miss. But more importantly, how to integrate the core provider (thing that goes into database) with the caching layer so that it too can rely on cached objects rather than creating new ones. Right now I have the following interfaces: IDataProvider is used to reach the database. It doesn't concern itself with the meaning of the objects it produces, but simply the way to produce them. interface IDataProvider{ // Select, Update, Create, et cetera access IEnumerable<Entry> GetEntries(); Entry GetEntryById(int id); } IDataManager is a layer that sits on top of the IDataProvider layer and manages the cache interface IDataManager : IDataProvider{ void ClearCache(); } Note that in practice the IDataManager implementation will have useful helper functions to add objects to their related cache stores. (In the future I may define other functions on the interface) I guess what I am looking for is the best way to approach a loop back from the IDataProvider implementations so that they can access the cache. Or a different approach entirely may be in order? I am not very interested in 3rd party products at the moment as I am interested in the design of these things much more than this specific implementation. Edit: I realize the title may be a bit misleading. I apologize for that... not sure what to call this question.

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• remove data layer and put into it's own domain

  - by user334768

  I have a SL4 application that uses EF4 & RIA Services. DB is SQL 2008. All is working well. Now I want to put the Database and web services on one domain (A.com) with the web service exposing the same methods available in my working project. (one listed at top of message) Then put a Silverlight application (same one as above) on domain(B.com) and call the web services on A.com. I thought I had a fair understanding of RIA Services. Enough to get the above application working. Now when I say "working" I do mean on my local dev machine. I have yet to deployed as SL4 & .NET 4 application to my hosting site. But I don't think I understand it well enough. I normally create a new business app, add EF then create the RIA DomainService. Add any [Includes] I need, modify my linq queries and run application. And it works. Now I need to break off my data layer and put it on another hosting site (A.com) And put my UI and business logic on another hosting site (B.com) I think I need to do the following : On the Database & web service site: domain(A.com) create application, create EF4, create RIA Services and deploy. At this time, are the methods exposed available as a "WEB SERVICE" to other applications calling by http:// a.com/serviceName.svc address? I think I need to do the following : On the application site : domain(B.com) create a business application (later will need authentication and navigation). How can I create an EF when I don't have access to the database? (I know I do have access but I want know what happens here when I do not have access to the database, but only data provided by a web service) If I can not create an EF how do I create my RIA Service? I hope any one who takes time to help me understands what I'm asking. Sorry so long.

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• Java loading user-specified classes at runtime

  - by user349043

  I'm working on robot simulation in Java (a Swing application). I have an abstract class "Robot" from which different types of Robots are derived, e.g. public class StupidRobot extends Robot { int m_stupidness; int m_insanityLevel; ... } public class AngryRobot extends Robot { float m_aggression; ... } As you can see, each Robot subclass has a different set of parameters. What I would like to do is control the simulation setup in the initial UI. Choose the number and type of Robots, give it a name, fill in the parameters etc. This is one of those times where being such a dinosaur programmer, and new to Java, I wonder if there is some higher level stuff/thinking that could help me here. So here is what I've got: (1) User Interface Scrolling list of Robot types on the left. "Add " and "<< Remove" buttons in the middle. Default-named scrolling list of Robots on the right. "Set Parameters" button underneath. (So if you wanted an AngryRobot, you'd select AngryRobot on the left list, click "Add" and "AngryRobot1" would show up on the right.) When selecting a Robot on the right, click "Set Parameters..." button which would call yet another model dialog where you'd fill in the parameters. Different dialog called for each Robot type. (2) Data structures an implementation As an end-product I think a HashMap would be most convenient. The keys would be Robot types and the accompanying object would be all of the parameters. The initializer could just retrieve each item one and a time and instantiate. Here's what the data structures would look like: enum ROBOT_TYPE {STUPID, ANGRY, etc} public class RobotInitializer { public ROBOT_TYPE m_type; public string m_name; public int[] m_int_params; public float[] m_float_params; etc. The initializer's constructor would create the appropriate length parameter arrays based on the type: public RobotInitializer(ROBOT_TYPE type, int[] int_array, float[] float_array, etc){ switch (type){ case STUPID: m_int_params = new int[STUPID_INT_PARAM_LENGTH]; System.arraycopy(int_array,0,m_int_params,0,STUPID_INT_PARAM_LENGTH); etc. Once all the RobotInitializers are instantiated, they are added to the HashMap. Iterating through the HashMap, the simulation initializer takes items from the Hashmap and instantiates the appropriate Robots. Is this reasonable? If not, how can it be improved? Thanks

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• Backbone.js (model instanceof Model) via Chrome Extension

  - by Leoncelot

  Hey guys, This is my first time ever posting on this site and the problem I'm about to pose is difficult to articulate due to the set of variables required to arrive at it. Let me just quickly explain the framework I'm working with. I'm building a Chrome Extension using jQuery, jQuery-ui, and Backbone The entire JS suite for the extension is written in CoffeeScript and I'm utilizing Rails and the asset pipeline to manage it all. This means that when I want to deploy my extension code I run rake assets:precompile and copy the resulting compressed JS to my extensions Directory. The nice thing about this approach is that I can actually run the extension js from inside my Rails app by including the library. This is basically the same as my extensions background.js file which injects the js as a content script. Anyway, the problem I've recently encountered was when I tried testing my extension on my buddy's site, whiskeynotes.com. What I was noticing is that my backbone models were being mangled upon adding them to their respective collections. So something like this.collection.add(new SomeModel) created some nonsense version of my model. This code eventually runs into Backbone's prepareModel code _prepareModel: function(model, options) { options || (options = {}); if (!(model instanceof Model)) { var attrs = model; options.collection = this; model = new this.model(attrs, options); if (!model._validate(model.attributes, options)) model = false; } else if (!model.collection) { model.collection = this; } return model; }, Now, in most of the sites on which I've tested the extension, the result is normal, however on my buddy's site the !(model instance Model) evaluates to true even though it is actually an instance of the correct class. The consequence is a super messed up version of the model where the model's attributes is a reference to the models collection (strange right?). Needless to say, all kinds of crazy things were happening afterward. Why this is occurring is beyond me. However changing this line (!(model instanceof Model)) to (!(model instanceof Backbone.Model)) seems to fix the problem. I thought maybe it had something to do with the Flot library (jQuery graph library) creating their own version of 'Model' but looking through the source yielded no instances of it. I'm just curious as to why this would happen. And does it make sense to add this little change to the Backbone source? Update: I just realized that the "fix" doesn't actually work. I can also add that my backbone Models are namespaced in a wrapping object so that declaration looks something like class SomeNamespace.SomeModel extends Backbone.Model

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• C++ DLL creation for C# project - No functions exported

  - by Yeti

  I am working on a project that requires some image processing. The front end of the program is C# (cause the guys thought it is a lot simpler to make the UI in it). However, as the image processing part needs a lot of CPU juice I am making this part in C++. The idea is to link it to the C# project and just call a function from a DLL to make the image processing part and allow to the C# environment to process the data afterwards. Now the only problem is that it seems I am not able to make the DLL. Simply put the compiler refuses to put any function into the DLL that I compile. Because the project requires some development time testing I have created two projects into a C++ solution. One is for the Dll and another console application. The console project holds all the files and I just include the corresponding header into my DLL project file. I thought the compiler should take out the functions that I marked as to be exported and make the DLL from them. Nevertheless this does not happens. Here it is how I defined the function in the header: extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) void _stdcall RobotData(BYTE* buf, int** pToNewBackgroundImage, int* pToBackgroundImage, bool InitFlag, ObjectInformation* robot1, ObjectInformation* robot2, ObjectInformation* robot3, ObjectInformation* robot4, ObjectInformation* puck); extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) CvPoint _stdcall RefPointFinder(IplImage* imgInput, CvRect &imgROI, CvScalar &refHSVColorLow, CvScalar &refHSVColorHi ); Followed by the implementation in the cpp file: extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) CvPoint _stdcall RefPointFinder(IplImage* imgInput, CvRect &imgROI,&refHSVColorLow, CvScalar &refHSVColorHi ) { \\... return cvPoint((int)( M10/M00) + imgROI.x, (int)( M01/M00 ) + imgROI.y) ;} extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) void _stdcall RobotData(BYTE* buf, int** pToNewBackgroundImage, int* pToBackgroundImage, bool InitFlag, ObjectInformation* robot1, ObjectInformation* robot2, ObjectInformation* robot3, ObjectInformation* robot4, ObjectInformation* puck) { \\ ...}; And my main file for the DLL project looks like: #ifdef _MANAGED #pragma managed(push, off) #endif /// <summary> Include files. </summary> #include "..\ImageProcessingDebug\ImageProcessingTest.h" #include "..\ImageProcessingDebug\ImageProcessing.h" BOOL APIENTRY DllMain( HMODULE hModule, DWORD ul_reason_for_call, LPVOID lpReserved) { return TRUE; } #ifdef _MANAGED #pragma managed(pop) #endif Needless to say it does not work. A quick look with DLL export viewer 1.36 reveals that no function is inside the library. I don't get it. What I am doing wrong ? As side not I am using the C++ objects (and here it is the C++ DLL part) such as the vector. However, only for internal usage. These will not appear in the headers of either function as you can observe from the previous code snippets. Any ideas? Thx, Bernat

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• how to update only the updated rows in gridview?

  - by user603007

  what is the handiest way to update only the updated rows (only the checkbox column) in this gridview? what is a handy way to check wether the row was updated? c# public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { List<customer> listCustomer = new List<customer>(); customer cust1 = new customer(){name="fred",email="[email protected]",jobless="true"}; customer cust2 = new customer(){name="mark",email="[email protected]",jobless="false"}; listCustomer.Add(cust1); listCustomer.Add(cust2); GridView1.DataSource=listCustomer; GridView1.DataBind(); } } protected void btnUpdate_Click1(object sender, EventArgs e) { foreach (GridViewRow rw in GridView1.Rows) { CheckBox thiscontrol = (CheckBox)rw.Cells[0].FindControl("cb"); var ch = thiscontrol.Checked; //only update the updated rows? } } public class customer { public string name { get; set; } public string email { get; set; } public string jobless { get; set; } } html <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="gridviewUpdate._Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" AutoGenerateColumns="false" runat="server"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:CheckBox ID="jobless" runat="server" Checked='<%# Eval("jobless").ToString().Equals("true") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:BoundField DataField="email" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="name" /> </Columns> </asp:GridView> </div>

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• Thoughts on streamlining multiple .Net apps

  - by John Virgolino

  We have a series of ASP.Net applications that have been written over the course of 8 years. Mostly in the first 3-4 years. They have been running quite well with little maintenance, but new functionality is being requested and we are running into IDE and platform issues. The apps were written in .Net 1.x and 2.x and run in separate spaces but are presented as a single suite of applications which use a common navigation toolbar (implemented as a user control). Every time we want to add something to a menu in the nav we have to modify it in all the apps which is a pain. Also, the various versions of Crystal reports and that we used tables to organize the visual elements and we end up with a mess, especially with all the multi-platform .Net versions running. We need to streamline the suite of apps and make it easier to add on new apps without a hassle. We also need to bring all these apps under one .Net platform and IDE. In addition, there is a WordPress blog styled to match the style of the application suite "integrated" into the UI and a link to a MediaWiki Wiki application as well. My current thinking is to use an open source content management system (CMS) like Joomla (PHP based unfortunately, but it works well) as the user interface framework for style templating and menu management. Joomla's article management would allow us to migrate the Wiki content into articles which could be published without interfering with the .Net apps. Then essentially use an IFrame within an "article" to "host" the .Net application, then... Upgrade the .Net apps to VS2010, strip out all the common header/footer controls and migrate the styles to use the style sheets used in the CMS. As I write this, I certainly realize this is a lot of work and there are optimization issues which this may cause as well as using IFrames seems a bit like cheating and I've read about issues with IFrames. I know that we could use .Net application styling, but it seems like a lot more work (not sure really). Also, the use of a CMS to handle the blog and wiki also seems appealing, unless there is a .Net CMS out there that can handle all of these requirements. Given this information, I am looking to know if I am totally going in the wrong direction? We tried to use open source and integrate it over time, but not this has become hard to maintain. Am I not aware of some technology out there that will meet our requirements? Did we do this right and should we just focus on getting the .Net streamlined? I understand that no matter what we do, it's going to be a lot of work. The communities considerable experience would be helpful. Thanks!! PS - A complete rewrite is not an option.

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• How do I Print a dynamically created Flex component/chart that is not being displayed on the screen?

  - by Adam Jones

  I have a several chart components that I have created in Flex. Basically I have set up a special UI that allows the user to select which of these charts they want to print. When they press the print button each of the selected charts is created dynamically then added to a container. Then I send this container off to FlexPrintJob. i.e. private function prePrint():void { var printSelection:Box = new Box(); printSelection.percentHeight = 100; printSelection.percentWidth = 100; printSelection.visible = true; if (this.chkMyChart1.selected) { var rptMyChart1:Chart1Panel = new Chart1Panel(); rptMyChart1.percentHeight = 100; rptMyChart1.percentWidth = 100; rptMyChart1.visible = true; printSelection.addChild(rptMyChart1); } print(printSelection); } private function print(container:Box):void { var job:FlexPrintJob; job = new FlexPrintJob(); if (job.start()) { job.addObject(container, FlexPrintJobScaleType.MATCH_WIDTH); job.send(); } } This code works fine if the chart is actually displayed somewhere on the page but adding it dynamically as shown above does not. The print dialog will appear but nothing happens when I press OK. So I really have two questions: Is it possible to print flex components/charts when they are not visible on the screen? If so, how do I do it / what am I doing wrong? UPDATE: Well, at least one thing wrong is my use of the percentages in the width and height. Using percentages doesn't really make sense when the Box is not contained in another object. Changing the height and width to fixed values actually allows the printing to progress and solves my initial problem. printSelection.height = 100; printSelection.width = 100; But a new problem arises in that instead of seeing my chart, I see a black box instead. I have previously resolved this issue by setting the background colour of the chart to #FFFFFF but this doesn't seem to be working this time. UPDATE 2: I have seen some examples on the adobe site that add the container to the application but don't include it in the layout. This looks like the way to go. i.e. printSelection.includeInLayout = false; addChild(printSelection);

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• getting Cannot identify image file when trying to create thumbnail in django

  - by Mo J. Mughrabi

  Am trying to create a thumbnail in django, am trying to build a custom class specifically to be used for generating thumbnails. As following from StringIO import StringIO from PIL import Image class Thumbnail(object): source = '' size = (50, 50) output = '' def __init__(self): pass @staticmethod def load(src): self = Thumbnail() self.source = src return self def generate(self, size=(50, 50)): if not isinstance(size, tuple): raise Exception('Thumbnail class: The size parameter must be an instance of a tuple.') self.size = size # resize properties box = self.size factor = 1 fit = True image = Image.open(self.source) # Convert to RGB if necessary if image.mode not in ('L', 'RGB'): image = image.convert('RGB') while image.size[0]/factor > 2*box[0] and image.size[1]*2/factor > 2*box[1]: factor *=2 if factor > 1: image.thumbnail((image.size[0]/factor, image.size[1]/factor), Image.NEAREST) #calculate the cropping box and get the cropped part if fit: x1 = y1 = 0 x2, y2 = image.size wRatio = 1.0 * x2/box[0] hRatio = 1.0 * y2/box[1] if hRatio > wRatio: y1 = int(y2/2-box[1]*wRatio/2) y2 = int(y2/2+box[1]*wRatio/2) else: x1 = int(x2/2-box[0]*hRatio/2) x2 = int(x2/2+box[0]*hRatio/2) image = image.crop((x1,y1,x2,y2)) #Resize the image with best quality algorithm ANTI-ALIAS image.thumbnail(box, Image.ANTIALIAS) # save image to memory temp_handle = StringIO() image.save(temp_handle, 'png') temp_handle.seek(0) self.output = temp_handle return self def get_output(self): return self.output.read() the purpose of the class is so i can use it inside different locations to generate thumbnails on the fly. The class works perfectly, I've tested it directly under a view.. I've implemented the thumbnail class inside the save method of the forms to resize the original images on saving. in my design, I have two fields for thumbnails. I was able to generate one thumbnail, if I try to generate two it crashes and I've been stuck for hours not sure whats the problem. Here is my model class Image(models.Model): article = models.ForeignKey(Article) title = models.CharField(max_length=100, null=True, blank=True) src = models.ImageField(upload_to='publication/image/') r128 = models.ImageField(upload_to='publication/image/128/', blank=True, null=True) r200 = models.ImageField(upload_to='publication/image/200/', blank=True, null=True) uploaded_at = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) Here is my forms class ImageForm(models.ModelForm): """ """ class Meta: model = Image fields = ('src',) def save(self, commit=True): instance = super(ImageForm, self).save(commit=True) file = Thumbnail.load(instance.src) instance.r128 = SimpleUploadedFile( instance.src.name, file.generate((128, 128)).get_output(), content_type='image/png' ) instance.r200 = SimpleUploadedFile( instance.src.name, file.generate((200, 200)).get_output(), content_type='image/png' ) if commit: instance.save() return instance the strange part is, when i remove the line which contains instance.r200 in the form save. It works fine, and it does the thumbnail and stores it successfully. Once I add the second thumbnail it fails.. Any ideas what am doing wrong here? Thanks Update: I tried earlier doing the following but I still got the same error class ImageForm(models.ModelForm): """ """ class Meta: model = Image fields = ('src',) def save(self, commit=True): instance = super(ImageForm, self).save(commit=True) instance.r128 = SimpleUploadedFile( instance.src.name, Thumbnail.load(instance.src).generate((128, 128)).get_output(), content_type='image/png' ) instance.r200 = SimpleUploadedFile( instance.src.name, Thumbnail.load(instance.src).generate((200, 200)).get_output(), content_type='image/png' ) if commit: instance.save() return instance

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• How to handle very frequent updates to a Lucene index

  - by fsm

  I am trying to prototype an indexing/search application which uses very volatile indexing data sources (forums, social networks etc), here are some of the performance requirements, Very fast turn-around time (by this I mean that any new data (such as a new message on a forum) should be available in the search results very soon (less than a minute)) I need to discard old documents on a fairly regular basis to ensure that the search results are not dated. Last but not least, the search application needs to be responsive. (latency on the order of 100 milliseconds, and should support at least 10 qps) All of the requirements I have currently can be met w/o using Lucene (and that would let me satisfy all 1,2 and 3), but I am anticipating other requirements in the future (like search relevance etc) which Lucene makes easier to implement. However, since Lucene is designed for use cases far more complex than the one I'm currently working on, I'm having a hard time satisfying my performance requirements. Here are some questions, a. I read that the optimize() method in the IndexWriter class is expensive, and should not be used by applications that do frequent updates, what are the alternatives? b. In order to do incremental updates, I need to keep committing new data, and also keep refreshing the index reader to make sure it has the new data available. These are going to affect 1 and 3 above. Should I try duplicate indices? What are some common approaches to solving this problem? c. I know that Lucene provides a delete method, which lets you delete all documents that match a certain query, in my case, I need to delete all documents which are older than a certain age, now one option is to add a date field to every document and use that to delete documents later. Is it possible to do range queries on document ids (I can create my own id field since I think that the one created by lucene keeps changing) to delete documents? Is it any faster than comparing dates represented as strings? I know these are very open questions, so I am not looking for a detailed answer, I will try to treat all of your answers as suggestions and use them to inform my design. Thanks! Please let me know if you need any other information.

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• SQL Server architecture guidance

  - by Liam

  Hi, We are designing a new version of our existing product on a new schema. Its an internal web application with possibly 100 concurrent users (max)This will run on a SQL Server 2008 database. On of the discussion items recently is whether we should have a single database of split the database for performance reasons across 2 separate databases. The database could grow anywhere from 50-100GB over 5 years. We are Developers and not DBAs so it would be nice to get some general guidance. [I know the answer is not simple as it depends on the schema, archiving policy, amount of data etc. ] Option 1 Single Main Database [This is my preferred option]. The plan would be to have all the tables in a single database and possibly to use file groups and partitioning to separate the data if required across multiple disks. [Use schema if appropriate]. This should deal with the performance concerns One of the comments wrt this was that the a single server instance would still be processing this data so there would still be a processing bottle neck. For reporting we could have a separate reporting DB but this is still being discussed. Option 2 Split the database into 2 separate databases DB1 - Customers, Accounts, Customer resources etc DB2 - This would contain the bulk of the data [i.e. Vehicle tracking data, financial transaction tables etc]. These tables would typically contain a lot of data. [It could reside on a separate server if required] This plan would involve keeping the main data in a smaller database [DB1] and retaining the [mainly] read only transaction type data in a separate DB [DB2]. The UI would mainly read from DB1 and thus be more responsive. [I'm aware that this option makes it harder for Referential Integrity to be enforced.] Points for consideration As we are at the design stage we can at least make proper use of indexes to deal performance issues so thats why option 1 to me is attractive and its more of a standard approach. For both options we are considering implementing an archiving database. Apologies for the long Question. In summary the question is 1 DB or 2? Thanks in advance, Liam

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• Function returning MYSQL_ROW

  - by Gabe

  I'm working on a system using lots of MySQL queries and I'm running into some memory problems I'm pretty sure have to do with me not handling pointers right... Basically, I've got something like this: MYSQL_ROW function1() { string query="SELECT * FROM table limit 1;"; MYSQL_ROW return_row; mysql_init(&connection); // "connection" is a global variable if (mysql_real_connect(&connection,HOST,USER,PASS,DB,0,NULL,0)){ if (mysql_query(&connection,query.c_str())) cout << "Error: " << mysql_error(&connection); else{ resp = mysql_store_result(&connection); //"resp" is also global if (resp) return_row = mysql_fetch_row(resp); mysql_free_result(resp); } mysql_close(&connection); }else{ cout << "connection failed\n"; if (mysql_errno(&connection)) cout << "Error: " << mysql_errno(&connection) << " " << mysql_error(&connection); } return return_row; } And function2(): MYSQL_ROW function2(MYSQL_ROW row) { string query = "select * from table2 where code = '" + string(row[2]) + "'"; MYSQL_ROW retorno; mysql_init(&connection); if (mysql_real_connect(&connection,HOST,USER,PASS,DB,0,NULL,0)){ if (mysql_query(&connection,query.c_str())) cout << "Error: " << mysql_error(&conexao); else{ // My "debugging" shows me at this point `row[2]` is already fubar resp = mysql_store_result(&connection); if (resp) return_row = mysql_fetch_row(resp); mysql_free_result(resp); } mysql_close(&connection); }else{ cout << "connection failed\n"; if (mysql_errno(&connection)) cout << "Error : " << mysql_errno(&connection) << " " << mysql_error(&connection); } return return_row; } And main() is an infinite loop basically like this: int main( int argc, char* args[] ){ MYSQL_ROW row = NULL; while (1) { row = function1(); if(row != NULL) function2(row); } } (variable and function names have been generalized to protect the innocent) But after the 3rd or 4th call to function2, that only uses row for reading, row starts losing its value coming to a segfault error... Anyone's got any ideas why? I'm not sure the amount of global variables in this code is any good, but I didn't design it and only got until tomorrow to fix and finish it, so workarounds are welcome! Thanks!

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• Sync services not actually syncing

  - by Paul Mrozowski

  I'm attempting to sync a SQL Server CE 3.5 database with a SQL Server 2008 database using MS Sync Services. I am using VS 2008. I created a Local Database Cache, connected it with SQL Server 2008 and picked the tables I wanted to sync. I selected SQL Server Tracking. It modified the database for change tracking and created a local copy (SDF) of the data. I need two way syncing so I created a partial class for the sync agent and added code into the OnInitialized() to set the SyncDirection for the tables to Bidirectional. I've walked through with the debugger and this code runs. Then I created another partial class for cache server sync provider and added an event handler into the OnInitialized() to hook into the ApplyChangeFailed event. This code also works OK - my code runs when there is a conflict. Finally, I manually made some changes to the server data to test syncing. I use this code to fire off a sync: var agent = new FSEMobileCacheSyncAgent(); var syncStats = agent.Synchronize(); syncStats seems to show the count of the # of changes I made on the server and shows that they were applied. However, when I open the local SDF file none of the changes are there. I basically followed the instructions I found here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc761546%28SQL.105%29.aspx and here: http://keithelder.net/blog/archive/2007/09/23/Sync-Services-for-SQL-Server-Compact-Edition-3.5-in-Visual.aspx It seems like this should "just work" at this point, but the changes made on the server aren't in the local SDF file. I guess I'm missing something but I'm just not seeing it right now. I thought this might be because I appeared to be using version 1 of Sync Services so I removed the references to Microsoft.Synchronization.* assemblies, installed the Sync framework 2.0 and added the new version of the assemblies to the project. That hasn't made any difference. Ideas? Edit: I wanted to enable tracing to see if I could track this down but the only way to do that is through a WinForms app since it requires entries in the app.config file (my original project was a class library). I created a WinForms project and recreated everything and suddenly everything is working. So apparently this requires a WinForm project for some reason? This isn't really how I planned on using this - I had hoped to kick off syncing through another non-.NET application and provide the UI there so the experience was a bit more seemless to the end user. If I can't do that, that's OK, but I'd really like to know if/how to make this work as a class library project instead.

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• Perl - Calling subclass constructor from superclass (OO)

  - by Emmel

  This may turn out to be an embarrassingly stupid question, but better than potentially creating embarrassingly stupid code. :-) This is an OO design question, really. Let's say I have an object class 'Foos' that represents a set of dynamic configuration elements, which are obtained by querying a command on disk, 'mycrazyfoos -getconfig'. Let's say that there are two categories of behavior that I want 'Foos' objects to have: Existing ones: one is, query ones that exist in the command output I just mentioned (/usr/bin/mycrazyfoos -getconfig`. Make modifications to existing ones via shelling out commands. Create new ones that don't exist; new 'crazyfoos', using a complex set of /usr/bin/mycrazyfoos commands and parameters. Here I'm not really just querying, but actually running a bunch of system() commands. Affecting changes. Here's my class structure: Foos.pm package Foos, which has a new($hashref-{name = 'myfooname',) constructor that takes a 'crazyfoo NAME' and then queries the existence of that NAME to see if it already exists (by shelling out and running the mycrazyfoos command above). If that crazyfoo already exists, return a Foos::Existing object. Any changes to this object requires shelling out, running commands and getting confirmation that everything ran okay. If this is the way to go, then the new() constructor needs to have a test to see which subclass constructor to use (if that even makes sense in this context). Here are the subclasses: Foos/Existing.pm As mentioned above, this is for when a Foos object already exists. Foos/Pending.pm This is an object that will be created if, in the above, the 'crazyfoo NAME' doesn't actually exist. In this case, the new() constructor above will be checked for additional parameters, and it will go ahead and, when called using -create() shell out using system() and create a new object... possibly returning an 'Existing' one... OR As I type this out, I am realizing it is perhaps it's better to have a single: (an alternative arrangement) Foos class, that has a -new() that takes just a name -create() that takes additional creation parameters -delete(), -change() and other params that affect ones that exist; that will have to just be checked dynamically. So here we are, two main directions to go with this. I'm curious which would be the more intelligent way to go.

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• invalid postback event instead of dropdown to datagrid

  - by rima

  I faced with funny situation. I created a page which is having some value, I set these value and control my post back event also. The problem is happening when I change a component index(ex reselect a combobox which is not inside my datagrid) then I dont know why without my page call the Page_Load it goes to create a new row in grid function and all of my parameter are null! I am just receiving null exception. So in other word I try to explain the situation: when I load my page I am initializing some parameter. then everything is working fine. in my page when I change selected item of my combo box, page suppose to go and run function related to that combo box, and call page_load, but it is not going there and it goes to rowcreated function. I am trying to illustrate part of my page. Please help me because I am not receiving any error except null exception and it triger wrong even which seems so complicated for me. public partial class W_CM_FRM_02 : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Page.IsPostBack && !loginFail) return; InitializeItems(); } } private void InitializeItems() { cols = new string[] { "v_classification_code", "v_classification_name" }; arrlstCMMM_CLASSIFICATION = (ArrayList)db.Select(cols, "CMMM_CLASSIFICATION", "v_classification_code <> 'N'", " ORDER BY v_classification_name"); } } protected void DGV_RFA_DETAILS_RowCreated(object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { //db = (Database)Session["oCon"]; foreach (DataRow dr in arrlstCMMM_CLASSIFICATION) ((DropDownList)DGV_RFA_DETAILS.Rows[index].Cells[4].FindControl("OV_RFA_CLASSIFICATION")).Items.Add(new ListItem(dr["v_classification_name"].ToString(), dr["v_classification_code"].ToString())); } protected void V_CUSTOMER_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (V_CUSTOMER.SelectedValue == "xxx" || V_CUSTOMER.SelectedValue == "ddd") V_IMPACTED_FUNCTIONS.Enabled = true; } } my form: <%@ Page Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/MasterPage.master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="W_CM_FRM_02.aspx.cs" Inherits="W_CM_FRM_02" Title="W_CM_FRM_02" enableeventvalidation="false" EnableViewState="true"%> <td>Project name*</td> <td><asp:DropDownList ID="V_CUSTOMER" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" onselectedindexchanged="V_CUSTOMER_SelectedIndexChanged" /></td> <td colspan = "8"> <asp:GridView ID="DGV_RFA_DETAILS" runat="server" ShowFooter="True" AutoGenerateColumns="False" CellPadding="1" ForeColor="#333333" GridLines="None" OnRowDeleting="grvRFADetails_RowDeleting" Width="100%" Style="text-align: left" onrowcreated="DGV_RFA_DETAILS_RowCreated"> <RowStyle BackColor="#FFFBD6" ForeColor="#333333" /> <Columns> <asp:BoundField DataField="ON_RowNumber" HeaderText="SNo" /> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="RFA/RAD/Ticket No*"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="OV_RFA_NO" runat="server" Width="120"></asp:TextBox> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField>

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• Rewriting Live TCP/IP (Layer 4) (i.e. Socket Layer) Streams

  - by user213060

  I have a simple problem which I'm sure someone here has done before... I want to rewrite Layer 4 TCP/IP streams (Not lower layer individual packets or frames.) Ettercap's etterfilter command lets you perform simple live replacements of Layer 4 TCP/IP streams based on fixed strings or regexes. Example ettercap scripting code: if (ip.proto == TCP && tcp.dst == 80) { if (search(DATA.data, "gzip")) { replace("gzip", " "); msg("whited out gzip\n"); } } if (ip.proto == TCP && tcp.dst == 80) { if (search(DATA.data, "deflate")) { replace("deflate", " "); msg("whited out deflate\n"); } } http://ettercap.sourceforge.net/forum/viewtopic.php?t=2833 I would like to rewrite streams based on my own filter program instead of just simple string replacements. Anyone have an idea of how to do this? Is there anything other than Ettercap that can do live replacement like this, maybe as a plugin to a VPN software or something? I would like to have a configuration similar to ettercap's silent bridged sniffing configuration between two Ethernet interfaces. This way I can silently filter traffic coming from either direction with no NATing problems. Note that my filter is an application that acts as a pipe filter, similar to the design of unix command-line filters: >[eth0] <----------> [my filter] <----------> [eth1]< What I am already aware of, but are not suitable: Tun/Tap - Works at the lower packet layer, I need to work with the higher layer streams. Ettercap - I can't find any way to do replacements other than the restricted capabilities in the example above. Hooking into some VPN software? - I just can't figure out which or exactly how. libnetfilter_queue - Works with lower layer packets, not TCP/IP streams. Again, the rewriting should occur at the transport layer (Layer 4) as it does in this example, instead of a lower layer packet-based approach. Exact code will help immensely! Thanks!

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• How to rectify this program?

  - by user1430719

  This is a program to display a pie chart. I also have a button. But the program I have written, creates two separate frames and one frame is for the pie chart and the other is for the button. How do I put both button and pie chart on the same frame?? Can you please rectify my program. import java.awt.*; import org.jfree.chart.*; import org.jfree.chart.title.*; import org.jfree.data.general.DefaultPieDataset; import org.jfree.ui.*; import java.io.*; import javax.swing.*; import java.awt.event.*; import javax.swing.filechooser.*; public class Pie{ public static void getFile(File f) { System.out.println("File is: "+f.getName()); } public static void main(String[] args) { JPanel panel=new JPanel(); panel.setLayout(null); JButton b=new JButton("Open File"); b.addActionListener(new ActionListener() { public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) { JFileChooser chooser=new JFileChooser(); int ret = chooser.showDialog(null, "Open file"); if (ret == JFileChooser.APPROVE_OPTION) { File file = chooser.getSelectedFile(); getFile(file); } } } ); b.setBounds(50,40,100,35); panel.add(b); DefaultPieDataset pieDataset = new DefaultPieDataset(); pieDataset.setValue("A", new Integer(10)); pieDataset.setValue("B", new Integer(20)); pieDataset.setValue("C", new Integer(30)); pieDataset.setValue("D", new Integer(10)); pieDataset.setValue("E", new Integer(20)); pieDataset.setValue("F", new Integer(10)); JFreeChart chart = ChartFactory.createPieChart("Pie Chart using JFreeChart", pieDataset, true,true,true); ChartFrame frame1=new ChartFrame("Pie Chart",chart); frame1.add(panel); frame1.setVisible(true); frame1.setSize(600,600); } }

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• Minutia on Objective-C Categories and Extensions.

  - by Matt Wilding

  I learned something new while trying to figure out why my readwrite property declared in a private Category wasn't generating a setter. It was because my Category was named: // .m @interface MyClass (private) @property (readwrite, copy) NSArray* myProperty; @end Changing it to: // .m @interface MyClass () @property (readwrite, copy) NSArray* myProperty; @end and my setter is synthesized. I now know that Class Extension is not just another name for an anonymous Category. Leaving a Category unnamed causes it to morph into a different beast: one that now gives compile-time method implementation enforcement and allows you to add ivars. I now understand the general philosophies underlying each of these: Categories are generally used to add methods to any class at runtime, and Class Extensions are generally used to enforce private API implementation and add ivars. I accept this. But there are trifles that confuse me. First, at a hight level: Why differentiate like this? These concepts seem like similar ideas that can't decide if they are the same, or different concepts. If they are the same, I would expect the exact same things to be possible using a Category with no name as is with a named Category (which they are not). If they are different, (which they are) I would expect a greater syntactical disparity between the two. It seems odd to say, "Oh, by the way, to implement a Class Extension, just write a Category, but leave out the name. It magically changes." Second, on the topic of compile time enforcement: If you can't add properties in a named Category, why does doing so convince the compiler that you did just that? To clarify, I'll illustrate with my example. I can declare a readonly property in the header file: // .h @interface MyClass : NSObject @property (readonly, copy) NSString* myString; @end Now, I want to head over to the implementation file and give myself private readwrite access to the property. If I do it correctly: // .m @interface MyClass () @property (readonly, copy) NSString* myString; @end I get a warning when I don't synthesize, and when I do, I can set the property and everything is peachy. But, frustratingly, if I happen to be slightly misguided about the difference between Category and Class Extension and I try: // .m @interface MyClass (private) @property (readonly, copy) NSString* myString; @end The compiler is completely pacified into thinking that the property is readwrite. I get no warning, and not even the nice compile error "Object cannot be set - either readonly property or no setter found" upon setting myString that I would had I not declared the readwrite property in the Category. I just get the "Does not respond to selector" exception at runtime. If adding ivars and properties is not supported by (named) Categories, is it too much to ask that the compiler play by the same rules? Am I missing some grand design philosophy?

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• Improving Javascript Load Times - Concatenation vs Many + Cache

  - by El Yobo

  I'm wondering which of the following is going to result in better performance for a page which loads a large amount of javascript (jQuery + jQuery UI + various other javascript files). I have gone through most of the YSlow and Google Page Speed stuff, but am left wondering about a particular detail. A key thing for me here is that the site I'm working on is not on the public net; it's a business to business platform where almost all users are repeat visitors (and therefore with caches of the data, which is something that YSlow assumes will not be the case for a large number of visitors). First up, the standard approach recommended by tools such as YSlow is to concatenate it, compress it, and serve it up in a single file loaded at the end of your page. This approach sounds reasonably effective, but I think that a key part of the reasoning here is to improve performance for users without cached data. The system I currently have is something like this * All javascript files are compressed and loaded at the bottom of the page * All javascript files have far future cache expiration dates, so will remain (for most users) in the cache for a long time * Pages only load the javascript files that they require, rather than loading one monolithic file, most of which will not be required Now, my understanding is that, if the cache expiration date for a javascript file has not been reached, then the cached version is used immediately; there is no HTTP request sent at to the server at all. If this is correct, I would assume that having multiple tags is not causing any performance penalty, as I'm still not having any additional requests on most pages (recalling from above that almost all users have populated caches). In addition to this, not loading the JS means that the browser doesn't have to interpret or execute all this additional code which it isn't going to need; as a B2B application, most of our users are unfortunately stuck with IE6 and its painfully slow JS engine. Another benefit is that, when code changes, only the affected files need to be fetched again, rather than the whole set (granted, it would only need to be fetched once, so this is not so much of a benefit). I'm also looking at using LabJS to allow for parallel loading of the JS when it's not cached. So, what do people think is a better approach? In a similar vein, what do you think about a similar approach to CSS - is monolithic better?

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• Is it possible to use CSS to align these divs/spans in a table-like manner?

  - by Justin L.

  I have <div class='line'> <div class='chord_line'> <span class='chord_block'></span> <span class='chord_block'>E</span> <span class='chord_block'>B</span> <span class='chord_block'>C#m</span> <span class='chord_block'>A</span> </div> <div class='lyric_line'> <span class='lyric_block'></span> <span class='lyric_block'>Just a</span> <span class='lyric_block'>small-town girl</span> <span class='lyric_block'>living in a</span> <span class='lyric_block'>lonely world</span> </div> </div> (Excuse me for not being too familiar with proper css conventions for when to use div/spans) I want to be able to display them so that each chord_block span and lyric_block span is aligned vertically, as if they were left-aligned and on the same row of a table. For example: E B C#m A Just a small-town girl living in a lonely world (There will often be cases where an empty chord block is matched up to non-empty lyric block, and vice-versa.) I'm completely new to using CSS to align things, and have had no real understanding/experience of CSS aside from changing background colors and link styles. Is this possible in CSS? If not, how could the div/class nesting structure be revised to make this possible? I could change the spans to divs if necessary. Some things I cannot use: I can't change the structure to group things by a chord_and_lyric_block div (and have their width stretch to the length of the lyric, and stack them horizontally), because I couldn't really copy/select the lyrical lines continuously in their entirety, which is extremely critical. I'm trying to avoid a table-like solution, because this data is not tabular at all. The chord line and the lyric line are meant to be read as one continuous line, not a set of cells. Also, apart from the design philosophy reasons, I think it might have the same problems as the previous thing bullet point. If this is possible, what div/span attributes should I be using? Can you provide sample css? If this is not possible, can it be done with javascript?

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• Android - binding to service

  - by tommy

  Hi: I can't seem to get an activity to bind to a service in the same package. The activity looks like this: public class myApp extends TabActivity { static private String TAG = "myApp"; private myService mService = null; private ServiceConnection mServiceConn = new ServiceConnection(){ public void onServiceConnected(ComponentName name, IBinder service) { Log.v(TAG, "Service: " + name + " connected"); mService = ((myService.myBinder)service).getService(); } public void onServiceDisconnected(ComponentName name) { Log.v(TAG, "Service: " + name + " disconnected"); } }; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); doBind(); Log.i(TAG, "Started (UI Thread)"); // set content setContentView(R.layout.main); Resources res = getResources(); // Resource object to get Drawables TabHost tabHost = getTabHost(); // The activity TabHost ... add some tabs here.... tabHost.setCurrentTab(0); } private void doBind(){ Intent i = new Intent(this,myService.class); if( bindService(i, mServiceConn, 0 )){ Log.i(TAG, "Service bound"); } else { Log.e(TAG, "Service not bound"); } } } Then the service: public class myService extends Service { private String TAG = "myService"; private boolean mRunning = false; @Override public int onStartCommand(Intent intent, int flags, int startid) { Log.i(TAG,"Service start"); mRunning = true; Log.d(TAG,"Finished onStartCommand"); return START_STICKY; } /* * Called on service stop */ @Override public void onDestroy(){ Log.i(TAG,"onDestroy"); mRunning = false; super.onDestroy(); } @Override public IBinder onBind(Intent intent) { return mBinder; } boolean isRunning() { return mRunning; } /* * class for binding */ private final IBinder mBinder = new myBinder(); public class myBinder extends Binder { myService getService() { return myService.this; } } } bindService returns true, but onServiceConnection is never called (mService is always null, so I can't do something like mService.isRunning() ) The manifest entry for the service is just: <service android:name=".myService"></service> I was copying the code direct from the Android developers site, but I must have missed something.

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