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  • zlib gzgets extremely slow?

    - by monkeyking
    I'm doing stuff related to parsing huge globs of textfiles, and was testing what input method to use. There is not much of a difference using c++ std::ifstreams vs c FILE, According to the documentation of zlib, it supports uncompressed files, and will read the file without decompression. I'm seeing a difference from 12 seconds using non zlib to more than 4 minutes using zlib.h This I've tested doing multiple runs, so its not a disk cache issue. Am I using zlib in some wrong way? thanks #include <zlib.h> #include <cstdio> #include <cstdlib> #include <fstream> #define LENS 1000000 size_t fg(const char *fname){ fprintf(stderr,"\t-> using fgets\n"); FILE *fp =fopen(fname,"r"); size_t nLines =0; char *buffer = new char[LENS]; while(NULL!=fgets(buffer,LENS,fp)) nLines++; fprintf(stderr,"%lu\n",nLines); return nLines; } size_t is(const char *fname){ fprintf(stderr,"\t-> using ifstream\n"); std::ifstream is(fname,std::ios::in); size_t nLines =0; char *buffer = new char[LENS]; while(is. getline(buffer,LENS)) nLines++; fprintf(stderr,"%lu\n",nLines); return nLines; } size_t iz(const char *fname){ fprintf(stderr,"\t-> using zlib\n"); gzFile fp =gzopen(fname,"r"); size_t nLines =0; char *buffer = new char[LENS]; while(0!=gzgets(fp,buffer,LENS)) nLines++; fprintf(stderr,"%lu\n",nLines); return nLines; } int main(int argc,char**argv){ if(atoi(argv[2])==0) fg(argv[1]); if(atoi(argv[2])==1) is(argv[1]); if(atoi(argv[2])==2) iz(argv[1]); }

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  • Help with IF THEN breaking when comparing results from MYSQL query.

    - by roydukkey
    I'm have a problem with an invite system. The if statement seems to break. It shows the message "Fail" but the UPDATE statement still executes. Why do both the THEN and the ELSE excute? $dbConn = new dbConn(); // Check if POST user_username and user_hash are matching and valid; both are hidden for fields $sql = "SELECT user_username " . "FROM table_users " . "WHERE user_id=".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["user_id"])." " . "AND user_hash='".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["user_hash"])."' " . "AND user_enabled=0;"; $objUser = $dbConn->query($sql); // If result contains 1 or more rows if( mysql_num_rows($objUser) != NULL ){ $objUser = mysql_fetch_assoc($objUser); $ssnUser->login( $objUser["user_username"] ); $sql = "UPDATE table_users SET " . "user_enabled=1, " . "user_first_name='".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["user_first_name"])."', " . "user_last_name='".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["user_last_name"])."', " . "user_password='".mysql_real_escape_string( md5($_POST["user_password"]) )."' " . "WHERE user_id=".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["user_id"]).";"; $dbConn->query($sql); echo "Success"; header( "Refresh: 5; url=/account/?action=domains" ); } else { echo "Fail"; } This dbConn Class is as follows: class dbConn{ var $username = "xxxx_admin"; var $password = "xxxxxxxx"; var $server = "localhost"; var $database = "xxxx"; var $objConn; function __construct(){ $conn = mysql_connect( $this->server, $this->username, $this->password, true ); if( !$conn ){ die("Could not connect: ".mysql_error() ); } else { $this->objConn = $conn; } unset($conn); } function __destruct(){ mysql_close( $this->objConn ); unset( $this ); } function query( $query, $db = false ){ mysql_select_db( $db != false ? $db : $this->database, $this->objConn ); $result = mysql_query( $query ); unset($query,$db); return $result; } }

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  • devise register confirmation

    - by mattherick
    hello! i have a user and an admin role in my project. i created my authentification with devise, really nice and goot tool for handling the authentification. in my admin role i don´t have any confirmation or something like that. it is really simple and doesn´t make problems. but in my user model i have following things: model: devise :database_authenticatable, :confirmable, :recoverable, :rememberable, :trackable, :validatable, :timeoutable, :registerable # Setup accessible (or protected) attributes for your model attr_accessible :email, :username, :prename, :surname, :phone, :street, :number, :location, :password, :password_confirmation and few validations, but they aren´t relevant this time. my migration looks like following one: class DeviseCreateUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table(:users) do |t| t.database_authenticatable :null = false t.confirmable t.recoverable t.rememberable t.trackable t.timeoutable t.validateable t.string :username t.string :prename t.string :surname t.string :phone t.string :street t.integer :number t.string :location t.timestamps end add_index :users, :email, :unique => true add_index :users, :confirmation_token, :unique => true add_index :users, :reset_password_token, :unique => true add_index :users, :username, :unique => true add_index :users, :prename, :unique => false add_index :users, :surname, :unique => false add_index :users, :phone, :unique => false add_index :users, :street, :unique => false add_index :users, :number, :unique => false add_index :users, :location, :unique => false end def self.down drop_table :users end end into my route.rb I added following statements: map.devise_for :admins map.devise_for :users, :path_names = { :sign_up = "register", :sign_in = "login" } map.root :controller = "main" and now my problem.. if I register a new user, I fill in all my data in the register form and submit it. After that I get redirected to the controller main with the flash-notice "You have signed up successfully." And I am logged in. But I don´t want to be logged in, because I don´t have confirmed my new user account yet. If I open the console I see the last things in the logs and there I see the confirmation-mail and the text and all stuff, but I am already logged in... I can´t explain why, ... does somebody of you have an idea? If I copy out the confirmation-token from the logs and confirm my account, I can log in, but if I don´t confirm, I also can log in..

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  • How do I find the Next Closest Date to today from a list of dates in a Plist on iOS?

    - by user1173823
    Situation: In short, I have a football schedule. I would like to use a custom cell which provides more info for only the next game date in the schedule. Issue: How do I find only the next closest game in the schedule (for iOS)? I've watched the WWDC 2013 video for "Solutions to Common Date and Time Issues" however this primarily applies to the Mac. I've searched numerous posts here and some are close but not what I need to find ONLY the next date from my list of dates in the schedule. From other posts I see where I can compare two specific dates, but this is not what I want to do. I want to find the next closest date that is equal to or after today from a list of dates. This is where I am now. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { //Populate the table from the plist NSDictionary *season = _schedContentArray[indexPath.section]; NSArray *schedule = season[@"Schedule"]; NSDictionary *game = schedule[indexPath.row]; //find the closest game date after today's date ?? NSString *gameDateStr = game[@"GameDate"]; NSCalendar *calendar = [[NSCalendar alloc] initWithCalendarIdentifier:NSGregorianCalendar]; NSDateFormatter *dateFormatter = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; dateFormatter.calendar=calendar; [dateFormatter setDateFormat:@"MM/dd/yy"]; NSDate *today = [NSDate date]; NSDate *gameDate = [dateFormatter dateFromString:gameDateStr]; //NSString *nextGame = NSLog(@"game date is %@",gameDate); The NSLog returns the game dates (except for the open date): 2013-11-11 16:10:05.979 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-08-31 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.982 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-09-07 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.985 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is (null) 2013-11-11 16:10:05.987 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-09-19 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.988 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-09-28 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.990 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-10-05 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.992 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-10-12 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.993 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-10-19 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.995 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-10-26 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.996 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-11-02 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.998 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-11-09 05:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:06.000 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-11-14 05:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:06.001 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-11-23 05:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:06.003 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-11-30 05:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:06.005 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-12-07 05:00:00 +0000 Thanks in advance for any assistance you can provide. This seems like it should be simple but has been fairly frustrating. Let me know if you need additional info.

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  • Simple Modal with Autocomplete in ASP.NET

    - by DanielJaymes
    Hello, I am quite new to this so any help is very much appreciated. I am generating a modal pop using Simple Modal, this works ok. I now want to add jquery autocomplete to the element txtEmail. When I run the page outside of Simple Modal I can use Autocomplete, however when the page is loaded through Simple Modal it does not work. I have checked to ensure the element is loaded, and it is allowing me to change the text color, but I can not add autocomplete to it. The code is /** * @author Daniel */ jQuery(function($) { $("input.ema, a.ema").click(function(e) { e.preventDefault(); $("#osx-modal-content").modal({ appendTo: 'form', overlayId: 'osx-overlay', containerId: 'osx-container', closeHTML: '<div class="close"><a href="#" class="simplemodal-close">X</a></div>', minHeight: 80, opacity: 65, position: ['0', ], overlayClose: true, onOpen: OSX.open, onClose: OSX.close, onShow: OSX.show }); }); var OSX = { container: null, open: function(d) { var self = this; $.ajax({ url: "/Message/UserMessage/", type: 'GET', dataType: 'html', // <-- to expect an html response success: function(result) { var data = "Core Selectors Attributes Traversing Manipulation CSS Events Effects Ajax Utilities".split(" "); $('div#osx-modal-data').html(result).find("#txtEmail").css('color', '#c00'); if ($('div#osx-modal-data').find("#txtEmail").length) { // implies *not* zero $('div#osx-modal-data').find("#txtEmail").autocomplete(data); alert('We found img elements on the page using "img"'); } else { alert('No txtEmail elements found'); } } }); self.container = d.container[0]; d.overlay.fadeIn('slow', function() { $("#osx-modal-content", self.container).show(); $('div#osx-modal-title').html("Send Email"); var title = $("#osx-modal-title", self.container); title.show(); d.container.slideDown('slow', function() { setTimeout(function() { var h = $("#osx-modal-data", self.container).height() + title.height() + 20; // padding d.container.animate({ height: h }, 200, function() { $("div.close", self.container).show(); $("#osx-modal-data", self.container).show(); }); }, 300); }); }) }, close: function(d) { var self = this; d.container.animate({ top: "-" + (d.container.height() + 20) }, 500, function() { self.close(); // or $.modal.close(); }); }, show: function(d) { // $('div#osx-modal-data').find("#txtEmail").css('color', '#ccc') } }; });

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  • Any way to allow classes implementing IEntity and downcast to have operator == comparisons?

    - by George Mauer
    Basically here's the issue. All entities in my system are identified by their type and their id. new Customer() { Id = 1} == new Customer() {Id = 1}; new Customer() { Id = 1} != new Customer() {Id = 2}; new Customer() { Id = 1} != new Product() {Id = 1}; Pretty standard scenario. Since all Entities have an Id I define an interface for all entities. public interface IEntity { int Id { get; set;} } And to simplify creation of entities I make public abstract class BaseEntity<T> : where T : IEntity { int Id { get; set;} public static bool operator ==(BaseEntity<T> e1, BaseEntity<T> e2) { if (object.ReferenceEquals(null, e1)) return false; return e1.Equals(e2); } public static bool operator !=(BaseEntity<T> e1, BaseEntity<T> e2) { return !(e1 == e2); } } where Customer and Product are something like public class Customer : BaseEntity<Customer>, IEntity {} public class Product : BaseEntity<Product>, IEntity {} I think this is hunky dory. I think all I have to do is override Equals in each entity (if I'm super clever, I can even override it only once in the BaseEntity) and everything with work. So now I'm expanding my test coverage and find that its not quite so simple! First of all , when downcasting to IEntity and using == the BaseEntity< override is not used. So what's the solution? Is there something else I can do? If not, this is seriously annoying. Upadate It would seem that there is something wrong with my tests - or rather with comparing on generics. Check this out [Test] public void when_created_manually_non_generic() { // PASSES! var e1 = new Terminal() {Id = 1}; var e2 = new Terminal() {Id = 1}; Assert.IsTrue(e1 == e2); } [Test] public void when_created_manually_generic() { // FAILS! GenericCompare(new Terminal() { Id = 1 }, new Terminal() { Id = 1 }); } private void GenericCompare<T>(T e1, T e2) where T : class, IEntity { Assert.IsTrue(e1 == e2); } Whats going on here? This is not as big a problem as I was afraid, but is still quite annoying and a completely unintuitive way for the language to behave. Update Update Ah I get it, the generic implicitly downcasts to IEntity for some reason. I stand by this being unintuitive and potentially problematic for my Domain's consumers as they need to remember that anything happening within a generic method or class needs to be compared with Equals()

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  • T-SQL generated from LINQ to SQL is missing a where clause

    - by Jimmy W
    I have extended some functionality to a DataContext object (called "CodeLookupAccessDataContext") such that the object exposes some methods to return results of LINQ to SQL queries. Here are the methods I have defined: public List<CompositeSIDMap> lookupCompositeSIDMap(int regionId, int marketId) { var sidGroupId = CompositeSIDGroupMaps.Where(x => x.RegionID.Equals(regionId) && x.MarketID.Equals(marketId)) .Select(x => x.CompositeSIDGroup); IEnumerator<int> sidGroupIdEnum = sidGroupId.GetEnumerator(); if (sidGroupIdEnum.MoveNext()) return lookupCodeInfo<CompositeSIDMap, CompositeSIDMap>(x => x.CompositeSIDGroup.Equals(sidGroupIdEnum.Current), x => x); else return null; } private List<TResult> lookupCodeInfo<T, TResult>(Func<T, bool> compLambda, Func<T, TResult> selectLambda) where T : class { System.Data.Linq.Table<T> dataTable = this.GetTable<T>(); var codeQueryResult = dataTable.Where(compLambda) .Select(selectLambda); List<TResult> codeList = new List<TResult>(); foreach (TResult row in codeQueryResult) codeList.Add(row); return codeList; } CompositeSIDGroupMap and CompositeSIDMap are both tables in our database that are represented as objects in my DataContext object. I wrote the following code to call these methods and display the T-SQL generated after calling these methods: using (CodeLookupAccessDataContext codeLookup = new CodeLookupAccessDataContext()) { codeLookup.Log = Console.Out; List<CompositeSIDMap> compList = codeLookup.lookupCompositeSIDMap(5, 3); } I got the following results in my log after invoking this code: SELECT [t0].[CompositeSIDGroup] FROM [dbo].[CompositeSIDGroupMap] AS [t0] WHERE ([t0].[RegionID] = @p0) AND ([t0].[MarketID] = @p1) -- @p0: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [5] -- @p1: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [3] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2005) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.1 SELECT [t0].[PK_CSM], [t0].[CompositeSIDGroup], [t0].[InputSID], [t0].[TargetSID], [t0].[StartOffset], [t0].[EndOffset], [t0].[Scale] FROM [dbo].[CompositeSIDMap] AS [t0] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2005) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.1 The first T-SQL statement contains a where clause as specified and returns one column as expected. However, the second statement is missing a where clause and returns all columns, even though I did specify which rows I wanted to view and which columns were of interest. Why is the second T-SQL statement generated the way it is, and what should I do to ensure that I filter out the data according to specifications via the T-SQL? Also note that I would prefer to keep lookupCodeInfo() and especially am interested in keeping it enabled to accept lambda functions for specifying which rows/columns to return.

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  • ASP.Net MVC Ajax form with jQuery validation

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I have an MVC view with a form built with the Ajax.BeginForm() helper method, and I'm trying to validate user input with the jQuery Validation plugin. I get the plugin to highlight the inputs with invalid input data, but despite the invalid input the form is posted to the server. How do I stop this, and make sure that the data is only posted when the form validates? My code The form: <fieldset> <legend>leave a message</legend> <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Post", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "GBPostList", InsertionMode = InsertionMode.InsertBefore, OnSuccess = "getGbPostSuccess", OnFailure = "showFaliure" })) { %> <div class="column" style="width: 230px;"> <p> <label for="Post.Header"> Rubrik</label> <%= Html.TextBox("Post.Header", null, new { @style = "width: 200px;", @class="text required" }) %></p> <p> <label for="Post.Post"> Meddelande</label> <%= Html.TextArea("Post.Post", new { @style = "width: 230px; height: 120px;" }) %></p> </div> <p> <input type="submit" value="OK!" /></p> </fieldset> The JavaScript validation: $(document).ready(function() { // for highlight var elements = $("input[type!='submit'], textarea, select"); elements.focus(function() { $(this).parents('p').addClass('highlight'); }); elements.blur(function() { $(this).parents('p').removeClass('highlight'); }); // for validation $("form").validate(); }); EDIT: As I was getting downvotes for publishing follow-up problems and their solutions in answers, here is also the working validate method... function ajaxValidate() { return $('form').validate({ rules: { "Post.Header": { required: true }, "Post.Post": { required: true, minlength: 3 } }, messages: { "Post.Header": "Please enter a header", "Post.Post": { required: "Please enter a message", minlength: "Your message must be 3 characters long" } } }).form(); }

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  • Application error when drawing to SurfaceView

    - by DKDiveDude
    I'm am doing a simple coding attempt trying to draw on a SurfaceView created on my main.xml layout. I can change background color and display an icon fine, but when I try to draw I get an error. I am a newbie so obvious I am missing something, please lent a helping hint, thanks! main.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <SurfaceView android:id="@+id/Paper" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_width="fill_parent"> </SurfaceView> and code here; package com.example.SurfaceViewTest; import android.app.Activity; import android.graphics.Bitmap; import android.graphics.Canvas; import android.graphics.Color; import android.graphics.Paint; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.SurfaceHolder; import android.view.SurfaceView; public class SurfaceViewTest extends Activity implements SurfaceHolder.Callback { private SurfaceView mSurfaceView; private SurfaceHolder mSurfaceHolder; private Paint paint; private Canvas canvas; Bitmap mDrawing; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); mSurfaceView = (SurfaceView) this.findViewById(R.id.Paper); mSurfaceHolder = mSurfaceView.getHolder(); mSurfaceHolder.addCallback(this); mSurfaceHolder.setType(SurfaceHolder.SURFACE_TYPE_PUSH_BUFFERS); } @Override public void surfaceChanged(SurfaceHolder holder, int format, int width, int height) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void surfaceCreated(SurfaceHolder holder) { mSurfaceView.setBackgroundColor(Color.rgb(0, 255, 0)); //mSurfaceView.setBackgroundResource(R.drawable.icon); canvas = holder.lockCanvas(null); mDrawing = Bitmap.createBitmap(100, 100, Bitmap.Config.RGB_565); canvas.setBitmap(mDrawing); paint = new Paint(); paint.setColor(Color.rgb(255, 255,255)); canvas.drawLine(1,1,200,300, paint); holder.unlockCanvasAndPost(canvas); } @Override public void surfaceDestroyed(SurfaceHolder holder) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } }

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  • Helping linqtosql datacontext use implicit conversion between varchar column in the database and tab

    - by user213256
    I am creating an mssql database table, "Orders", that will contain a varchar(50) field, "Value" containing a string that represents a slightly complex data type, "OrderValue". I am using a linqtosql datacontext class, which automatically types the "Value" column as a string. I gave the "OrderValue" class implicit conversion operators to and from a string, so I can easily use implicit conversion with the linqtosql classes like this: // get an order from the orders table MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); Order order = db.Orders(o => o.id == 1); // use implicit converstion to turn the string representation of the order // value into the complex data type. OrderValue value = order.Value; // adjust one of the fields in the complex data type value.Shipping += 10; // use implicit conversion to store the string representation of the complex // data type back in the linqtosql order object order.Value = value; // save changes db.SubmitChanges(); However, I would really like to be able to tell the linqtosql class to type this field as "OrderValue" rather than as "string". Then I would be able to avoid complex code and re-write the above as: // get an order from the orders table MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); Order order = db.Orders(o => o.id == 1); // The Value field is already typed as the "OrderValue" type rather than as string. // When a string value was read from the database table, it was implicity converted // to "OrderValue" type. order.Value.Shipping += 10; // save changes db.SubmitChanges(); In order to achieve this desired goal, I looked at the datacontext designer and selected the "Value" field of the "Order" table. Then, in properties, I changed "Type" to "global::MyApplication.OrderValue". The "Server Data Type" property was left as "VarChar(50) NOT NULL" The project built without errors. However, when reading from the database table, I was presented with the following error message: Could not convert from type 'System.String' to type 'MyApplication.OrderValue'. at System.Data.Linq.DBConvert.ChangeType(Object value, Type type) at Read_Order(ObjectMaterializer1 ) at System.Data.Linq.SqlClient.ObjectReaderCompiler.ObjectReader2.MoveNext() at System.Linq.Buffer1..ctor(IEnumerable1 source) at System.Linq.Enumerable.ToArray[TSource](IEnumerable`1 source) at Example.OrdersProvider.GetOrders() at ... etc From the stack trace, I believe this error is happening while reading the data from the table. When presented with converting a string to my custom data type, even though the implicit conversion operators are present, the DBConvert class gets confused and throws an error. Is there anything I can do to help it not get confused and do the implicit conversion? Thanks in advance, and apologies if I have posted in the wrong forum. cheers / Ben

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  • using dictionaries with WebServices

    - by umit-alba
    Hi! I tried to pass a dictionary via WebServices. However it is not serializeable. So i wrote an Own Class that makes it serializeable: using System; using System.Net; using System.Windows; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Xml.Serialization; using System.Xml; using System.Xml.Schema; namespace Platform { public class SaDictionary<TKey, TValue> : Dictionary<TKey, TValue>, IXmlSerializable { #region Constructors public SaDictionary() : base() { } public SaDictionary(IDictionary<TKey, TValue> dictionary) : base(dictionary) { } public SaDictionary(IEqualityComparer<TKey> comparer) : base(comparer) { } public SaDictionary(int capacity) : base(capacity) { } public SaDictionary(IDictionary<TKey, TValue> dictionary, IEqualityComparer<TKey> comparer) : base(dictionary, comparer) { } public SaDictionary(int capacity, IEqualityComparer<TKey> comparer) : base(capacity, comparer) { } //protected SaDictionary(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) // : base(info, context) //{ //} #endregion public XmlSchema GetSchema() { return null; } public void ReadXml(XmlReader reader) { XmlSerializer keySerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(TKey)); XmlSerializer valueSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(TValue)); bool wasEmpty = reader.IsEmptyElement; reader.Read(); if (wasEmpty) return; while (reader.NodeType != XmlNodeType.EndElement) { reader.ReadStartElement("item"); reader.ReadStartElement("key"); TKey key = (TKey)keySerializer.Deserialize(reader); reader.ReadEndElement(); //key reader.ReadStartElement("value"); TValue value = (TValue)valueSerializer.Deserialize(reader); reader.ReadEndElement(); //value this.Add(key, value); reader.ReadEndElement(); //item // reader.MoveToContent(); } reader.ReadEndElement(); } public void WriteXml(XmlWriter writer) { XmlSerializer keySerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(TKey)); XmlSerializer valueSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(TValue)); foreach (TKey key in this.Keys) { writer.WriteStartElement("item"); writer.WriteStartElement("key"); keySerializer.Serialize(writer, key); writer.WriteEndElement(); //key writer.WriteStartElement("value"); TValue value = this[key]; valueSerializer.Serialize(writer, value); writer.WriteEndElement(); //value writer.WriteEndElement(); //item } } } } However i get an ArrayOfXElement back. Is there a way to cast it back to a Dictionary? greets

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  • Problem on creating font using a custom ant task, which extends LWUIT's FontTask.

    - by Smithy
    Hi. I am new to LWUIT and j2me, and I am building a j2me application for showing Japanese text vertically. The phonetic symbol part of the text should be shown in relatively small font size (about half the size of the text), small Kanas need to be shown as normal ones, and some 'vertical only' characters need to be put into the Private Use Area, etc. I tried to build this font into a bitmap font using the FontTask ant task LWUIT provided, but found that it does support the customizations mentioned above. So I decided to write my own task and add those. Below is what I have achieved: 1 An ant task extending the LWUITTask task to support a new nested element <verticalfont>. public class VerticalFontBuildTask extends LWUITTask { public void addVerticalfont(VerticalFontTask anVerticalFont) { super.addFont(anVerticalFont); } } 2 The VerticalFontTask task, which extends the original FontTask. Instead of inserting a EditorFont object, it inserts a VerticalEditorFont object(derived from EditorFont) into the resource. public class VerticalFontTask extends FontTask { // some constants are omitted public VerticalFontTask() { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); sb.append(UPPER_ALPHABET); sb.append(UPPER_ALPHABET.toLowerCase()); sb.append(HALFWIDTH); sb.append(HIRAGANA); sb.append(HIRAGANA_SMALL); sb.append(KATAKANA); sb.append(KATAKANA_SMALL); sb.append(WIDE); this.setCharset(sb.toString()); } @Override public void addToResources(EditableResources e) { log("Putting rigged font into resource..."); super.addToResources(e); //antialias settings Object aa = this.isAntiAliasing() ? RenderingHints.VALUE_TEXT_ANTIALIAS_ON :RenderingHints.VALUE_TEXT_ANTIALIAS_OFF; VerticalEditorFont ft = new VerticalEditorFont( Font.createSystemFont( this.systemFace, this.systemStyle, this.systemSize), null, getLogicalName(), isCreateBitmap(), aa, getCharset()); e.setFont(getName(), ft); } VerticalEditorFont is just a bunch of methods logging to output and call the super. I am still trying to figure out how to extend it. But things are not going well: none of the methods on the VerticalEditorFont object get called when executing this task. My questions are: 1 where did I do wrong? 2 I want to embed a truetype font to support larger screens. I only need a small part of the font inside my application and I don't want it to carry a font resource weighing 1~2MB. Is there a way to extract only the characters needed and pack them into LWUIT?

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  • Issue accessing class variable from thread.

    - by James
    Hello, The code below is meant to take an arraylist of product objects as an input, spun thread for each product(and add the product to the arraylist 'products'), check product image(product.imageURL) availability, remove the products without images(remove the product from the arraylist 'products'), and return an arraylist of products with image available. package com.catgen.thread; import java.util.ArrayList; import java.util.Iterator; import java.util.List; import com.catgen.Product; import com.catgen.Utils; public class ProductFilterThread extends Thread{ private Product product; private List<Product> products = new ArrayList<Product>(); public ProductFilterThread(){ } public ProductFilterThread(Product product){ this.product = product; } public synchronized void addProduct(Product product){ System.out.println("Before add: "+getProducts().size()); getProducts().add(product); System.out.println("After add: "+getProducts().size()); } public synchronized void removeProduct(Product product){ System.out.println("Before rem: "+getProducts().size()); getProducts().remove(product); System.out.println("After rem: "+getProducts().size()); } public synchronized List<Product> getProducts(){ return this.products; } public synchronized void setProducts(List<Product> products){ this.products = products; } public void run(){ boolean imageExists = Utils.fileExists(this.product.ImageURL); if(!imageExists){ System.out.println(this.product.ImageURL); removeProduct(this.product); } } public List<Product> getProductsWithImageOnly(List<Product> products){ ProductFilterThread pft = null; try{ List<ProductFilterThread> threads = new ArrayList<ProductFilterThread>(); for(Product product: products){ pft = new ProductFilterThread(product); addProduct(product); pft.start(); threads.add(pft); } Iterator<ProductFilterThread> threadsIter = threads.iterator(); while(threadsIter.hasNext()){ ProductFilterThread thread = threadsIter.next(); thread.join(); } }catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); } System.out.println("Total returned products = "+getProducts().size()); return getProducts(); } } Calling statement: displayProducts = new ProductFilterThread().getProductsWithImageOnly(displayProducts); Here, when addProduct(product) is called from within getProductsWithImageOnly(), getProducts() returns the list of products, but that's not the case(no products are returned) when the method removeProduct() is called by a thread, because of which the products without images are never removed. As a result, all the products are returned by the module whether or not the contained products have images. What can be the problem here? Thanks in advance. James.

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  • Inserting a string array as a row into an Excel document using the Open XML SDK 2.0

    - by Sam
    The code runs, but corrupts my excel document. Any help would be mucho appreciated! I used this as a reference. public void AddRow(string fileName, string[] values) { using (SpreadsheetDocument doc = SpreadsheetDocument.Open(fileName, true)) { SharedStringTablePart sharedStringPart = GetSharedStringPart(doc); WorksheetPart worksheetPart = doc.WorkbookPart.WorksheetParts.First(); uint rowIdx = AppendRow(worksheetPart); for (int i = 0; i < values.Length; ++i) { int stringIdx = InsertSharedString(values[i], sharedStringPart); Cell cell = InsertCell(i, rowIdx, worksheetPart); cell.CellValue = new CellValue(stringIdx.ToString()); cell.DataType = new EnumValue<CellValues>( CellValues.SharedString); worksheetPart.Worksheet.Save(); } } } private SharedStringTablePart GetSharedStringPart( SpreadsheetDocument doc) { if (doc.WorkbookPart. GetPartsCountOfType<SharedStringTablePart>() > 0) return doc.WorkbookPart. GetPartsOfType<SharedStringTablePart>().First(); else return doc.WorkbookPart. AddNewPart<SharedStringTablePart>(); } private uint AppendRow(WorksheetPart worksheetPart) { SheetData sheetData = worksheetPart.Worksheet. GetFirstChild<SheetData>(); uint rowIndex = (uint)sheetData.Elements<Row>().Count(); Row row = new Row() { RowIndex = rowIndex }; sheetData.Append(row); return rowIndex; } private int InsertSharedString(string s, SharedStringTablePart sharedStringPart) { if (sharedStringPart.SharedStringTable == null) sharedStringPart.SharedStringTable = new SharedStringTable(); int i = 0; foreach (SharedStringItem item in sharedStringPart.SharedStringTable. Elements<SharedStringItem>()) { if (item.InnerText == s) return i; ++i; } sharedStringPart.SharedStringTable.AppendChild( new Text(s)); sharedStringPart.SharedStringTable.Save(); return i; } private Cell InsertCell(int i, uint rowIdx, WorksheetPart worksheetPart) { SheetData sheetData = worksheetPart.Worksheet. GetFirstChild<SheetData>(); string cellReference = AlphabetMap.Instance[i] + rowIdx; Cell cell = new Cell() { CellReference = cellReference }; Row row = sheetData.Elements<Row>().ElementAt((int)rowIdx); row.InsertAt(cell, i); worksheetPart.Worksheet.Save(); return cell; }

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  • SQL Invalid Object Name 'AddressType'

    - by salvationishere
    I am getting the above error in my VS 2008 C# method when I try to invoke the SQL getColumnNames stored procedure from VS. This SP accepts one input parameter, the table name, and works successfully from SSMS. Currently I am selecting the AdventureWorks AddressType table for it to pull the column names from this table. I can see teh AdventureWorks table available in VS from my Server Explorer / Data Connection. And I see both the AddressType table and getColumnNames SP showing in Server Explorer. But I am still getting this error listed above. Here is the C# code snippet I use to execute this: public static DataTable DisplayTableColumns(string tt) { SqlDataReader dr = null; string TableName = tt; string connString = "Data Source=.;AttachDbFilename=\"C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL10.MSSQLSERVER\MSSQL\DATA\AdventureWorks_Data.mdf\";Initial Catalog=AdventureWorks;Integrated Security=True;Connect Timeout=30;User Instance=False"; string errorMsg; SqlConnection conn2 = new SqlConnection(connString); SqlCommand cmd = conn2.CreateCommand(); try { cmd.CommandText = "dbo.getColumnNames"; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.Connection = conn2; SqlParameter parm = new SqlParameter("@TableName", SqlDbType.VarChar); parm.Value = TableName; parm.Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; cmd.Parameters.Add(parm); conn2.Open(); dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); } catch (Exception ex) { errorMsg = ex.Message; } And when I examine the errorMsg it says the following: " at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Run(RunBehavior runBehavior, SqlCommand cmdHandler, SqlDataReader dataStream, BulkCopySimpleResultSet bulkCopyHandler, TdsParserStateObject stateObj)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.ConsumeMetaData()\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.get_MetaData()\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.FinishExecuteReader(SqlDataReader ds, RunBehavior runBehavior, String resetOptionsString)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReaderTds(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, Boolean async)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method, DbAsyncResult result)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior behavior, String method)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteReader()\r\n at ADONET_namespace.ADONET_methods.DisplayTableColumns(String tt) in C:\Documents and Settings\Admin\My Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\AddFileToSQL\AddFileToSQL\ADONET methods.cs:line 35" Where line 35 is dr = cmd.ExecuteReader();

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  • Fast response on first Socket I/O request but slow every other time when communicating with remote serial port

    - by GreenGodot
    I'm using sockets to pass Serial commands to a remote device. And the response to that request is sent back and printed out. However, I am having a problem in that the first time it is instant but the rest of the time it can take up to 20 seconds to receive a reply. I think the problem is with my attempt at threading but I am not entirely sure. new Thread() { @Override public void run() { System.out.println("opened"); try { isSocketRetrieving.setText("Opening Socket"); socket = new Socket(getAddress(), getRemotePort())); DataOutput = new DataOutputStream(socket .getOutputStream()); inFromServer = new BufferedReader( new InputStreamReader(socket .getInputStream())); String line = ""; isSocketRetrieving.setText("Reading Stream......"); while ((line = inFromServer.readLine()) != null) { System.out.println(line); if (line.contains(getHandshakeRequest())) { DataOutput.write((getHandshakeResponse()toString() + "\r").getBytes()); DataOutput.flush(); DataOutput .write((getCommand().toString() + "\r").getBytes()); DataOutput.flush(); int pause = (line.length()*8*1000)/getBaud(); sleep(pause); } else if (line.contains(readingObject .getExpected())) { System.out.println(line); textArea.append("value = " + line + "\n"); textAreaScroll.revalidate(); System.out.println("Got Value"); break; } } System.out.println("Ended"); try { inFromServer.close(); DataOutput.close(); socket.close(); isSocketRetrieving.setText("Socket is inactive..."); rs232Table.addMouseListener(listener); interrupt(); join(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (InterruptedException e) { System.out.println("Thread exited"); } } catch (NumberFormatException e1) { e1.printStackTrace(); } catch (UnknownHostException e1) { e1.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e1) { e1.printStackTrace(); } catch (InterruptedException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } }.start();

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  • iPad web app: Prevent input focus AFTER ajax call

    - by Mike Barwick
    So I've read around and can't for the life of me figure out of to solve my issue effectively. In short, I have a web app built for the iPad - which works as it should. However, I have an Ajax form which also submits as it should. But, after the callback and I clear/reset my form, the "iPad" automatically focuses on an input and opens the keyboard again. This is far from ideal. I managed to hack my way around it, but it's still not perfect. The code below is run on my ajax callback, which works - except there's still a flash of the keyboard quickly opening and closing. Note, my code won't work unless I use setTimeout. Also, from my understanding, document.activeElement.blur(); only works when there's a click event, so I triggered one via js. IN OTHER WORDS, HOW DO I PREVENT THE KEYBOARD FROM REOPENING AFTER AJAX CALL ON WEB APP? PS: Ajax call works fine and doesn't open the keyboard in Safari on the iPad, just web app mode. Here's my code: hideKeyboard: function () { // iOS web app only, iPad IS_IPAD = navigator.userAgent.match(/iPad/i) != null; if (IS_IPAD) { $(window).one('click', function () { document.activeElement.blur(); }); setTimeout(function () { $(window).trigger('click'); }, 500); } } Maybe it's related to how I'm clearing my forms, so here's that code. Note, all inputs have tabindex="-1" as well. clearForm: function () { // text, textarea, etc $('#campaign-form-wrap > form')[0].reset(); // checkboxes $('input[type="checkbox"]').removeAttr('checked'); $('#campaign-form-wrap > form span.custom.checkbox').removeClass('checked'); // radio inputs $('input[type="radio"]').removeAttr('checked'); $('#campaign-form-wrap > form span.custom.radio').removeClass('checked'); // selects $('form.custom .user-generated-field select').each(function () { var selection = $(this).find('option:first').text(), labelFor = $(this).attr('name'), label = $('[for="' + labelFor + '"]'); label.find('.selection-choice').html(selection); }); optin.hideKeyboard(); }

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  • How can I progrommatically change the target framework from 4.0 to 3.5 of a project/solution?

    - by scott
    Edit 3: After more googling it looks like you can't have the TargetFrameworkMoniker property in a .NET 3.5 application. So I guess I should be asking a different question. How do I change the Target framework from 4.0 to 3.5? Unfortunately, I can only find stuff on how to go the other way. or better yet how do i progrommatically set the target framework version of a project to something other than 4.0? Original question: I just switched to vs2010. I have an application that uses .net 3.5. It loads plugins which are generated by a different app. The plugins are using .net 4 and there for cannot be loaded. I'm using EnvDTE.Project to create a project and set the settings. I can't find what setting needs to be set for this. Edit 1: I'm generating code for about 50 solutions. When I made the switch from vs2005 to vs2010 the projects in those solutions are defaulting to .NET Framework 4.0. So I need to set the .NET Framework to 3.5 when I am generating the code for these solutions. Edit 2: After a lot of googling I found this. so then I tried this: loProp = vsGetProperty("TargetFrameworkMoniker"); vsSetValue(loProp, ".NETFramework,Version=v3.5"); the definitions for those two methods are below. as far as I can tell they do the same this as project.Properties.Item("TargetFrameworkMoniker").Value = ".NETFramework,Version=v4.0,Profile=Client"; I start getting an Property Unavailable Exception later in the code. When I remove the new lines everything works except the projects target framework is still 4.0. The code generators target framework is 3.5 so I can't use the FrameworkName class like shown in the second example in that link. here is vsGetProperty protected Property vsGetProperty(string aProperty) { bool lbDone = false; int liCount = 0; Property loProp; while (!lbDone && liCount < pMaxRetries) { try { loProp = pProject.Properties.Item(aProperty); lbDone = true; return loProp; } catch (System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException loE) { liCount++; if ((uint)loE.ErrorCode == 0x80010001) { // RPC_E_CALL_REJECTED - sleep half sec then try again System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(pDelayBetweenRetry); } } } return null; } and vsSetValue protected void vsSetValue(Property aProperty, string aValue) { bool lbDone = false; int liCount = 0; while (!lbDone && liCount < pMaxRetries) { try { aProperty.Value = aValue; lbDone = true; } catch (System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException loE) { liCount++; if ((uint)loE.ErrorCode == 0x80010001) { // RPC_E_CALL_REJECTED - sleep half sec then try again System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(pDelayBetweenRetry); } } } }

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  • using a Singleton to pass credentials in a multi-tenant application a code smell?

    - by Hans Gruber
    Currently working on a multi-tenant application that employs Shared DB/Shared Schema approach. IOW, we enforce tenant data segregation by defining a TenantID column on all tables. By convention, all SQL reads/writes must include a Where TenantID = '?' clause. Not an ideal solution, but hindsight is 20/20. Anyway, since virtually every page/workflow in our app must display tenant specific data, I made the (poor) decision at the project's outset to employ a Singleton to encapsulate the current user credentials (i.e. TenantID and UserID). My thinking at the time was that I didn't want to add a TenantID parameter to each and every method signature in my Data layer. Here's what the basic pseudo-code looks like: public class UserIdentity { public UserIdentity(int tenantID, int userID) { TenantID = tenantID; UserID = userID; } public int TenantID { get; private set; } public int UserID { get; private set; } } public class AuthenticationModule : IHttpModule { public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.AuthenticateRequest += new EventHandler(context_AuthenticateRequest); } private void context_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { var userIdentity = _authenticationService.AuthenticateUser(sender); if (userIdentity == null) { //authentication failed, so redirect to login page, etc } else { //put the userIdentity into the HttpContext object so that //its only valid for the lifetime of a single request HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"] = userIdentity; } } } public static class CurrentUser { public static UserIdentity Instance { get { return HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"]; } } } public class WidgetRepository: IWidgetRepository{ public IEnumerable<Widget> ListWidgets(){ var tenantId = CurrentUser.Instance.TenantID; //call sproc with tenantId parameter } } As you can see, there are several code smells here. This is a singleton, so it's already not unit test friendly. On top of that you have a very tight-coupling between CurrentUser and the HttpContext object. By extension, this also means that I have a reference to System.Web in my Data layer (shudder). I want to pay down some technical debt this sprint by getting rid of this singleton for the reasons mentioned above. I have a few thoughts on what an better implementation might be, but if anyone has any guidance or lessons learned they could share, I would be much obliged.

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  • Pass param to a silverlight application

    - by Lucas_Santos
    In my javascript I create my <OBJECT> tag var htmlEmbedSilverlight = "<div id='silverlightControlHost'> " + "<object data='data:application/x-silverlight-2,' type='application/x-silverlight-2' width='550px' height='250px'> " + "<param name='source' value='../../ClientBin/FotoEmprestimoChave.xap'/> " + "<param name='onError' value='onSilverlightError' /> " + "<param name='background' value='white' /> " + "<param name='minRuntimeVersion' value='4.0.60310.0' /> " + "<param name='autoUpgrade' value='true' /> " + "<param name='initparams' values='chave_id=" + data + "' /> " + "<a href='http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=149156&v=4.0.60310.0' style='text-decoration:none'> " + "<img src='http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=161376' alt='Get Microsoft Silverlight' style='border-style:none'/> " + "</a> " + "</object><iframe id='_sl_historyFrame' style='visibility:hidden;height:0px;width:0px;border:0px'></iframe></div>"; $("#tiraFotoSilverlight").html(htmlEmbedSilverlight); This is a reference to my Silverlight application where I call in my Web Application. The problem is my <param name='initparams' values='chave_id=" + data + "' /> " because in my App.xaml in Silverlight, I have the code below private void Application_Startup(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { if (e.InitParams != null) { foreach (var item in e.InitParams) { this.Resources.Add(item.Key, item.Value); } } this.RootVisual = new MainPage(); } Where InitParams always has Count = 0 and I don't know why. Can someone help me ? I'm just trying to pass a value to my Silverlight application, without a PostBack. Rendered <object width="550px" height="250px" type="application/x-silverlight-2" data="data:application/x-silverlight-2,"> <param value="../../ClientBin/FotoEmprestimoChave.xap" name="source"> <param value="onSilverlightError" name="onError"> <param value="white" name="background"> <param value="4.0.60310.0" name="minRuntimeVersion"> <param value="true" name="autoUpgrade"> <param values="chave_id=1" name="initparams"> <a style="text-decoration:none" href="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=149156&v=4.0.60310.0"> </object>

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  • JSP to Bean to Java class Validation

    - by littlevahn
    I have a rather simple form in JSP that looks like this: <form action="response.jsp" method="POST"> <label>First Name:</label><input type="text" name="firstName" /><br> <label>Last Name:</label><input type="text" name="lastName" /><br> <label>Email:</label><input type="text" name="email" /><br> <label>Re-enter Email:</label><input type="text" name="emailRe" /><br> <label>Address:</label><input type="text" name="address" /><br> <label>Address 2:</label><input type="text" name="address2" /><br> <label>City:</label><input type="text" name="city" /><br> <label>Country:</label> <select name="country"> <option value="0">--Country--</option> <option value="1">United States</option> <option value="2">Canada</option> <option value="3">Mexico</option> </select><br> <label>Phone:</label><input type="text" name="phone" /><br> <label>Alt Phone:</label><input type="text" name="phoneAlt" /><br> <input type="submit" value="submit" /> </form> But when I try and access the value of the select box in my Java class I get null. Ive tried reading it in as a String and an Array of strings neither though seems to be grabbing the right value. The response.jsp looks like this: <%@ page language="java" %> <%@ page import="java.util.*" %> <%@page contentType="text/html" pageEncoding="UTF-8"%> <%! %> <jsp:useBean id="formHandler" class="validation.RegHandler" scope="request"> <jsp:setProperty name="formHandler" property="*" /> </jsp:useBean> <% if (formHandler.validate()) { %> <jsp:forward page="success.jsp"/> <% } else { %> <jsp:forward page="retryReg.jsp"/> <% } %> I already have Java script validation in place but I wanted to make sure I covered validation and checking for non-JS users. The RegHandler just uses the name field to refer to the value in the form. Any Idea how I could access the select box's value?

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  • Feedback on Optimizing C# NET Code Block

    - by Brett Powell
    I just spent quite a few hours reading up on TCP servers and my desired protocol I was trying to implement, and finally got everything working great. I noticed the code looks like absolute bollocks (is the the correct usage? Im not a brit) and would like some feedback on optimizing it, mostly for reuse and readability. The packet formats are always int, int, int, string, string. try { BinaryReader reader = new BinaryReader(clientStream); int packetsize = reader.ReadInt32(); int requestid = reader.ReadInt32(); int serverdata = reader.ReadInt32(); Console.WriteLine("Packet Size: {0} RequestID: {1} ServerData: {2}", packetsize, requestid, serverdata); List<byte> str = new List<byte>(); byte nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); while (nextByte != 0) { str.Add(nextByte); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); } // Password Sent to be Authenticated string string1 = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(str.ToArray()); str.Clear(); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); while (nextByte != 0) { str.Add(nextByte); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); } // NULL string string string2 = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(str.ToArray()); Console.WriteLine("String1: {0} String2: {1}", string1, string2); // Reply to Authentication Request MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream(); BinaryWriter writer = new BinaryWriter(stream); writer.Write((int)(1)); // Packet Size writer.Write((int)(requestid)); // Mirror RequestID if Authenticated, -1 if Failed byte[] buffer = stream.ToArray(); clientStream.Write(buffer, 0, buffer.Length); clientStream.Flush(); } I am going to be dealing with other packet types as well that are formatted the same (int/int/int/str/str), but different values. I could probably create a packet class, but this is a bit outside my scope of knowledge for how to apply it to this scenario. If it makes any difference, this is the Protocol I am implementing. http://developer.valvesoftware.com/wiki/Source_RCON_Protocol

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  • How to change button's image in visual c++ at run time?

    - by karikari
    After trying and error for many times, I decided to ask here. My objective is I wanted to change the feature of my IE toolbar button. The button is firstly setup by IE at IE startup using the function CRebarHandler::onSetRedraw and CRebarHandler::setButtonMenu2(). And then, I create a call from another cpp file, to call CRebarHandler::setButtonMenu2(). I intent to change just the button's image. I assigned the ID of the image correctly. But somehow it does not work. When I put other code inside this function,like a code for writing to file, it is proven work. Means, it is properly being called from the other file. But the thing is, the code for the button inside CRebarHandler::setButtonMenu2() seems does not work. Need help. Here is the code I am working on (I modify John Lister's button code): LRESULT CRebarHandler::onSetRedraw(UINT uMsg, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam, BOOL& bHandled){ bHandled=false; if (m_ieVer==6){ if (!m_hWndToolbar) scanForToolbarSlow(); if (m_hWndToolbar){ findButton(m_hWndToolbar); if (m_buttonID>0) setButtonMenu(); } } return S_OK; } void CRebarHandler::setButtonMenu(){ HIMAGELIST hImageList = ImageList_Create(32, 32,ILC_COLOR16 | ILC_MASK,1, 0); HINSTANCE module = _AtlBaseModule.GetResourceInstance(); TBBUTTONINFO inf; inf.cbSize=sizeof(inf); inf.dwMask = TBIF_IMAGE; char psBuffer[128]; FILE *pPipe; float f = 0; pPipe = _popen("javaw -jar c:\\simmetrics.jar c:\\chtml.txt c:\\thtml.txt", "rt" ); char* p = fgets(psBuffer, 128, pPipe); std::istringstream iss(p); iss >> f; if (f > 0.9) { inf.iImage = 1; SendMessage(m_hWndToolbar, TB_SETBUTTONINFO, m_buttonID, (LPARAM)(&inf)); iss.clear(); f = 0; } else { inf.iImage = 2; SendMessage(m_hWndToolbar, TB_SETBUTTONINFO, m_buttonID, (LPARAM)(&inf)); iss.clear(); f = 0; } iss.clear(); f = 0; } void CRebarHandler::setButtonMenu2(){ TBBUTTONINFO inf; inf.cbSize=sizeof(inf); inf.dwMask = TBIF_IMAGE; inf.iImage = 1; //green SendMessage(NULL, TB_SETBUTTONINFO, m_buttonID, (LPARAM)(&inf)); }

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  • FB Connect going in an infinite loop with google chrome

    - by Mitesh
    Hi, I am having the following php code which i am trying for testing FB Connect <?php define('FACEBOOK_APP_ID', 'YOUR_APP_ID'); define('FACEBOOK_SECRET', 'YOUR_APP_SECRET'); function get_facebook_cookie($app_id, $application_secret) { enter code here $args = array(); parse_str(trim($COOKIE['fbs' . $app_id], '\"'), $args); ksort($args); $payload = ''; foreach ($args as $key = $value) { if ($key != 'sig') { $payload .= $key . '=' . $value; } } if (md5($payload . $application_secret) != $args['sig']) { return null; } return $args; } $cookie = get_facebook_cookie(FACEBOOK_APP_ID, FACEBOOK_SECRET); ? <!DOCTYPE html <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:fb="http://www.facebook.com/2008/fbml" <body <?php if ($cookie) { ? Your user ID is <?= $cookie['uid'] ? <br / Your Acess Token is <br / <?php $user = json_decode(file_get_contents( 'https://graph.facebook.com/me?access_token=' . $cookie['access_token'])); if($user) { echo "<br /Display Name = " . $user-name; echo "<br /First Name = " . $user-first_name; echo "<br /Last Name = " . $user-last_name; echo "<br /Birthday = " . $user-birthday; echo "<br /Home Town = " . $user-hometown-name; echo "<br /Location = " . $user-location-name; echo "<br /Email = " . $user-email . "<br /"; } ? <?php } else { ? <fb:login-button perms="email,user_birthday,publish_stream"</fb:login-button <?php } ? <div id="fb-root">&lt;/div> <script src="http://connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js"></script> <script> FB.init({appId: '<?= FACEBOOK_APP_ID ?>', status: true, cookie: true, xfbml: true}); FB.Event.subscribe('auth.login', function(response) { window.location.reload(); }); </script> </body </html The problem faced by me is it works fine with IE and Firefox, however when done the same with google chrome I am running into an infinite loop when I click on reload/refresh button of chrome after logging in. Any hints as to why is it happening with chrome? Also how can it be avoided. Thanks, Mitesh

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  • Android Notification with AlarmManager, Broadcast and Service

    - by user2435829
    this is my code for menage a single notification: myActivity.java public class myActivity extends Activity { protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.mylayout); cal = Calendar.getInstance(); // it is set to 10.30 cal.set(Calendar.HOUR, 10); cal.set(Calendar.MINUTE, 30); cal.set(Calendar.SECOND, 0); long start = cal.getTimeInMillis(); if(cal.before(Calendar.getInstance())) { start += AlarmManager.INTERVAL_FIFTEEN_MINUTES; } Intent mainIntent = new Intent(this, myReceiver.class); pIntent = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(this, 0, mainIntent, PendingIntent.FLAG_UPDATE_CURRENT); AlarmManager myAlarm = (AlarmManager)getSystemService(ALARM_SERVICE); myAlarm.setRepeating(AlarmManager.RTC_WAKEUP, start, AlarmManager.INTERVAL_FIFTEEN_MINUTES, pIntent); } } myReceiver.java public class myReceiver extends BroadcastReceiver { @Override public void onReceive(Context c, Intent i) { Intent myService1 = new Intent(c, myAlarmService.class); c.startService(myService1); } } myAlarmService.java public class myAlarmService extends Service { @Override public IBinder onBind(Intent arg0) { return null; } @Override public void onCreate() { super.onCreate(); } @SuppressWarnings("deprecation") @Override public void onStart(Intent intent, int startId) { super.onStart(intent, startId); displayNotification(); } @Override public void onDestroy() { super.onDestroy(); } public void displayNotification() { Intent mainIntent = new Intent(this, myActivity.class); PendingIntent pIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(this, 0, mainIntent, PendingIntent.FLAG_UPDATE_CURRENT); NotificationManager nm = (NotificationManager) this.getSystemService(Context.NOTIFICATION_SERVICE); Notification.Builder builder = new Notification.Builder(this); builder.setContentIntent(pIntent) .setAutoCancel(true) .setSmallIcon(R.drawable.ic_noti) .setTicker(getString(R.string.notifmsg)) .setContentTitle(getString(R.string.app_name)) .setContentText(getString(R.string.notifmsg)); nm.notify(0, builder.build()); } } AndroidManifest.xml <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.WAKE_LOCK" /> ... ... ... <service android:name=".myAlarmService" android:enabled="true" /> <receiver android:name=".myReceiver"/> IF the time has NOT past yet everything works perfectly. The notification appears when it must appear. BUT if the time HAS past (let's assume it is 10.31 AM) the notification fires every time... when I close and re-open the app, when I click on the notification... it has a really strange behavior. I can't figure out what's wrong in it. Can you help me please (and explain why, if you find a solution), thanks in advance :)

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