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• How to send Event signal through Processes - C

  - by Jamie Keeling

  Hello all! I have an application consisting of two windows, one communicates to the other and sends it a struct constaining two integers (In this case two rolls of a dice). I will be using events for the following circumstances: Process a sends data to process b, process b displays data Process a closes, in turn closing process b Process b closes a, in turn closing process a I have noticed that if the second process is constantly waiting for the first process to send data then the program will be just sat waiting, which is where the idea of implementing threads on each process occurred and I have started to implement this already. The problem i'm having is that I don't exactly have a lot of experience with threads and events so I'm not sure of the best way to actually implement what I want to do. I'm trying to work out how the other process will know of the event being fired so it can do the tasks it needs to do, I don't understand how one process that is separate from another can tell what the states the events are in especially as it needs to act as soon as the event has changed state. Thanks for any help Edit: I can only use the Create/Set/Open methods for events, sorry for not mentioning it earlier.

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• jQuery: bind generated elements

  - by superUntitled

  Hello, thank you for taking time to look at this. I am trying to code my very first jQuery plugin and have run into my first problem. The plugin is called like this <div id="kneel"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> $("#kneel").zod(1, { }); </script> It takes the first option (integer), and returns html content that is dynamically generated by php. The content that is generated needs to be bound by a variety of functions (such as disabling form buttons and click events that return ajax data. The plugin looks like this (I have included the whole plugin in case that matters)... (function( $ ){ $.fn.zod = function(id, options ) { var settings = { 'next_button_text': 'Next', 'submit_button_text': 'Submit' }; return this.each(function() { if ( options ) { $.extend( settings, options ); } // variables var obj = $(this); /* these functions contain html elements that are generated by the get() function below */ // disable some buttons $('div.bario').children('.button').attr('disabled', true); // once an option is selected, enable the button $('input[type="radio"]').live('click', function(e) { $('div.bario').children('.button').attr('disabled', false); }) // when a button is clicked, return some data $('.button').bind('click', function(e) { e.preventDefault(); $.getJSON('/returnSomeData.php, function(data) { $('.text').html('<p>Hello: ' + data + '</p>'); }); // generate content, this is the content that needs binding... $.get('http://example.com/script.php?id='+id, function(data) { $(obj).html(data); }); }); }; })( jQuery ); The problem I am having is that the functions created to run on generated content are not binding to the generated content. How do I bind the content created by the get() function?

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• Google Charts - Adding Tooltip to Colorized Column Chart

  - by David K

  I created a column chart with google charts that has a different color assigned to each column using the following posting: Assign different color to each bar in a google chart But now I'm trying to figure out how to customize the tooltips for each column to also include the number of users in addition to the percent, so "raw_data[i][1]" I would like it to look like "70% (80 Users)" I understand that there is "data.addColumn({type:'number',role:'tooltip'});" but I'm having trouble understanding how to implement it for this use-case. function drawAccountsChart() { var data = new google.visualization.DataTable(); var raw_data = [ ['Parents', 80, 160], ['Students', 94, 128], ['Teachers', 78, 90], ['Admins', 68, 120], ['Staff', 97, 111] ]; data.addColumn('string', 'Columns'); for (var i = 0; i < raw_data.length; ++i) { data.addColumn('number', raw_data[i][0]); } data.addRows(1); for (var i = 0; i < raw_data.length; ++i) { data.setValue(0, i+1, raw_data[i][1]/raw_data[i][2]*100); } var options = { height:220, chartArea: { left:30, width: "70%", height: "70%" }, backgroundColor: { fill:"transparent" }, tooltop:{ textStyle: {fontSize: "12px",}}, vAxis: {minValue: 0} }; var formatter = new google.visualization.NumberFormat({ suffix: '%', fractionDigits: 1 }); formatter.format(data, 1); formatter.format(data, 2); formatter.format(data, 3); formatter.format(data, 4); formatter.format(data, 5); var chart = new google.visualization.ColumnChart(document.getElementById('emailAccountsChart')); chart.draw(data, options); }

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• Is there unreachable code in this snippet? I don't think so, but Resharper is telling me otherwise.

  - by The Matt

  I have the following method I came across in a code review. Inside the loop Resharper is telling me that if (narrativefound == false) is incorrect becuase narrativeFound is always true. I don't think this is the case, because in order to set narrativeFound to true it has to pass the conditional string compare first, so how can it always be true? Am I missing something? Is this a bug in Resharper or in our code? public Chassis GetChassisForElcomp(SPPA.Domain.ChassisData.Chassis asMaintained, SPPA.Domain.ChassisData.Chassis newChassis) { Chassis c = asMaintained; List<Narrative> newNarrativeList = new List<Narrative>(); foreach (Narrative newNarrative in newChassis.Narratives) { bool narrativefound = false; foreach (Narrative orig in asMaintained.Narratives) { if (string.Compare(orig.PCode, newNarrative.PCode) ==0 ) { narrativefound = true; if (newNarrative.NarrativeValue.Trim().Length != 0) { orig.NarrativeValue = newNarrative.NarrativeValue; newNarrativeList.Add(orig); } break; } if (narrativefound == false) { newNarrativeList.Add(newNarrative); } } } c.SalesCodes = newChassis.SalesCodes; c.Narratives = newNarrativeList; return c; }

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• How can I change a form's input value with javascript

  - by Biroka

  How can I change a form's input value with javascript depending on witch combobox item is selected. I have a form with some imported values, and there is a field of witch imported value can be changed via a combobox. In my case: print("<input type='hidden' name='issue_array[{$issue["nr"]}][\"supplier\"]' value='{$issue["supplier"]}' />"); I have a combobox, that if I change it's value, should change the value of the input above. This is what I tried: print("<select name='supplier_combo' onchange='setSupplierInputValue(this.value, ${issue['nr']})'>"); and the script: echo "\r\n" . '<SCRIPT TYPE="text/javascript">' . "\r\n"; echo 'function setSupplierInputValue(value, issue_nr)' . "\r\n"; echo '{' . "\r\n"; echo ' issue_array[issue_nr]["supplier"] = value;'; echo '}' . "\r\n"; echo '</SCRIPT>'. "\r\n"; But it doesn't work, please help.

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• Trying to fadein divs in a sequence, over time, using JQuery

  - by user346602

  Hi, I'm trying to figure out how to make 4 images fade in sequentially when the page loads. The following is my (amateurish) code: Here is the HTML: <div id="outercorners"> <img id="corner1" src="images/corner1.gif" width="6" height="6" alt=""/> <img id="corner2" src="images/corner2.gif" width="6" height="6" alt=""/> <img id="corner3" src="images/corner3.gif" width="6" height="6" alt=""/> <img id="corner4" src="images/corner4.gif" width="6" height="6" alt=""/> </div><!-- end #outercorners--> Here is the JQuery: $(document).ready(function() { $("#corner1").fadeIn("2000", function(){ $("#corner3").fadeIn("4000", function(){ $("#corner2").fadeIn("6000", function(){ $("#corner4").fadeIn("8000", function(){ }); }); }); }); Here is the css: #outercorners { position: fixed; top:186px; left:186px; width:558px; height:372px; } #corner1 { position: fixed; top:186px; left:186px; display: none; } #corner2 { position: fixed; top:186px; left:744px; display: none; } #corner3 { position: fixed; top:558px; left:744px; display: none; } #corner4 { position: fixed; top:558px; left:186px; display: none; } They seem to just wink at me, rather than fade in in the order I've ascribed to them. Should I be using the queue() function? And, if so, how would I implement it in this case? Thank you for any assistance.

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• How to close InAppBrowser itself in Phonegap Application?

  - by Shashi

  I am developing Phonegap application and currently i am using InAppBrowser to display external pages. On some of the external pages I place a close button and i want to close the InAppBrowser itself. because InAppBrowser displays these pages that is why the reference of it is not accessed on itself to close it and Please do not suggest me to use ChildBrowser Plugin. window.close(); //Not Worked for me or iabRef.close(); //Also not Worked for me because iabRef is not accessible on InAppBrowser. It is created on Parent Window Some of the Android device and iOS device display a Done Button to close it. As well as the iPad also display the Done button. but in Case of Android tablet there is not any kind of button to close it. UPDATE :- Here is my full code :- var iabRef = null; function iabLoadStart(event) { } function iabLoadStop(event) { } function iabClose(event) { iabRef.removeEventListener('loadstart', iabLoadStart); iabRef.removeEventListener('loadstop', iabLoadStop); iabRef.removeEventListener('exit', iabClose); } function startInAppB() { var myURL=encodeURI('http://www.domain.com/some_path/mypage.html'); iabRef = window.open(myURL,'_blank', 'location=yes'); iabRef.addEventListener('loadstart', iabLoadStart); iabRef.addEventListener('loadstop', iabLoadStop); iabRef.addEventListener('exit', iabClose); }

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• Is there some formal way to update the browser detection files for ASP.Net?

  - by Deane

  I have an ASP.Net site on which we're using control adapters. We have the adapters mapped to a "refID" of "Default." These adapters are working fine on all browsers except Chrome and Safari. For those browsers, they do not execute. I've given up trying to figure out why -- I have a question here on SO that no one has been able to answer, and I've been researching it for days now. It's just inexplicable. I have tested the same code in my local environment, and it works just fine. Additionally, no one else can replicate my problem on other servers. It seems to be somehow confined to the machines at my client's site. Could they be somehow out-of-date? If this is the case, is there some way to "update" the .browser files? I'm half-tempted to just copy the .browser files out of the Framework directory from my machine over to theirs, but I'm curious is there's something more formal than this? Is there some other source of data that ASP.Net uses for browser detection other than these files?

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• OptimisticLockException in inner transaction ruins outer transaction

  - by Pace

  I have the following code (OLE = OptimisticLockException)... public void outer() { try { middle() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); outer(); } } @Transactional public void middle() { try { inner() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); middle(); } @Transactional public void inner() { //Do DB operation } inner() is called by other non-transactional methods which is why both middle() and inner() are transactional. As you can see, I deal with OLEs by updating the entities and retrying the operation. The problem I'm having is that when I designed things this way I was assuming that the only time one could get an OLE was when a transaction closed. This is apparently not the case as the call to inner() is throwing an OLE even when the stack is outer()->middle()->inner(). Now, middle() is properly handling the OLE and the retry succeeds but when it comes time to close the transaction it has been marked rollbackOnly by Spring. When the middle() method call finally returns the closing aspect throws an exception because it can't commit a transaction marked rollbackOnly. I'm uncertain what to do here. I can't clear the rollbackOnly state. I don't want to force create a transaction on every call to inner because that kills my performance. Am I missing something or can anyone see a way I can structure this differently? EDIT: To clarify what I'm asking, let me explain my main question. Is it possible to catch and handle OLE if you are inside of an @Transactional method? FYI: The transaction manager is a JpaTransactionManager and the JPA provider is Hibernate.

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• how i can retrive files from folder on hard-disk and how to display uplaoded file data into a textar

  - by Deepak Narwal

  I have made a application form in which i am asking for username,password,email id and user's resume.Now after uploading resume i am storing it into hard disk into htdocs/uploadedfiles/..in a format something like this username_filename.In database i am storing file name,file size,file type.Some coading for this i am showing here $filesize=$_FILES['file']['size']; $filename=$_FILES['file']['name']; $filetype=$_FILES['file']['type']; $temp_name=$_FILES['file']['tmp_name']; //temporary name of uploaded file $pwd_hash = hash('sha1',$_POST['password']); $target_path = "uploadedfiles/"; $target_path = $target_path.$_POST['username']."_".basename( $_FILES['file']['name']); move_uploaded_file($_FILES['file']['tmp_name'], $target_path) ; $sql="insert into employee values ('NULL','{$_POST[username]}','{$pwd_hash}','{$filename}','{$filetype}','$filesize',NOW())"; Now i have two questions 1.NOw how i can display this file data into a textarea(something like naukri.com resume section) 2.How one can retrive that resume file from folder on hard-disk.What query should i write to fetch this file from that folder.I know how to retrive data from database but i dont know how to retrive data from a folder in hard-disk like in the case if user want to delete this file or he wnat to download this file.How i can do this

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• Is there a way to transfrom a list of key/value pairs into a data transfer object

  - by weevie

  ...apart from the obvious looping through the list and a dirty great case statement! I've turned over a few Linq queries in my head but nothing seems to get anywhere close. Here's the an example DTO if it helps: class ClientCompany { public string Title { get; private set; } public string Forenames { get; private set; } public string Surname { get; private set; } public string EmailAddress { get; private set; } public string TelephoneNumber { get; private set; } public string AlternativeTelephoneNumber { get; private set; } public string Address1 { get; private set; } public string Address2 { get; private set; } public string TownOrDistrict { get; private set; } public string CountyOrState { get; private set; } public string PostCode { get; private set; } } We have no control over the fact that we're getting the data in as KV pairs, I'm afraid.

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• Django: How can I identify the calling view from a template?

  - by bryan

  Short version: Is there a simple, built-in way to identify the calling view in a Django template, without passing extra context variables? Long (original) version: One of my Django apps has several different views, each with its own named URL pattern, that all render the same template. There's a very small amount of template code that needs to change depending on the called view, too small to be worth the overhead of setting up separate templates for each view, so ideally I need to find a way to identify the calling view in the template. I've tried setting up the views to pass in extra context variables (e.g. "view_name") to identify the calling view, and I've also tried using {% ifequal request.path "/some/path/" %} comparisons, but neither of these solutions seems particularly elegant. Is there a better way to identify the calling view from the template? Is there a way to access to the view's name, or the name of the URL pattern? Update 1: Regarding the comment that this is simply a case of me misunderstanding MVC, I understand MVC, but Django's not really an MVC framework. I believe the way my app is set up is consistent with Django's take on MVC: the views describe which data is presented, and the templates describe how the data is presented. It just happens that I have a number of views that prepare different data, but that all use the same template because the data is presented the same way for all the views. I'm just looking for a simple way to identify the calling view from the template, if this exists. Update 2: Thanks for all the answers. I think the question is being overthought -- as mentioned in my original question, I've already considered and tried all of the suggested solutions -- so I've distilled it down to a "short version" now at the top of the question. And right now it seems that if someone were to simply post "No", it'd be the most correct answer :) Update 3: Carl Meyer posted "No" :) Thanks again, everyone.

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• Hashtable is that fast

  - by Costa

  Hi s[0]*31^(n-1) + s[1]*31^(n-2) + ... + s[n-1]. Is the hash function of the java string, I assume the rest of languages is similar or close to this implementation. If we have hash-Table and a list of 50 elements. each element is 7 chars ABCDEF1, ABCDEF2, ABCDEF3..... ABCDEFn If each bucket of hashtable contains 5 strings (I think this function will make it one string per bucket, but let us assume it is 5). If we call col.Contains("ABCDEFn"); // will do 6 comparisons and discover the difference on the 7th. The hash-table will take around 70 operations (multiplication and additions) to get the hashcode and to compare with 5 strings in bucket. and BANG it found. For list it will take around 300 comparisons to find it. for the case that there is only 10 elements, the list will take around 70 operations but the Hashtable will take around 50 operations. and note that hashtable operations are more time consuming (it is multiplications). I conclude that HybirdDictionary in .Net probably is the best choice for that most cases that require Hashtable with unknown size, because it will let me use a list till the list becomes more than 10 elements. still need something like HashSet rather than a Dictionary of keys and values, I wonder why there is no HybirdSet!! So what do u think? Thanks

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• Getting started with open source

  - by lola

  Hi all, I'm an undergraduate who has decided that he wants to join the open source community and contribute. However, I have come to think that, once you have chosen an open source project, a lot of time is spent in learning the nitty gritties of that project in addition to stuff like subversion,etc which a typical undergraduate isn't exposed to. So, you have to stick with that project for a long time, say a year or two, before moving on to other projects. In this case, choosing the right(for you) initial project is very important since if you choose one,and say, the development in your field of interest(in that project) is a low priority and not exciting enough, you'll lose interest and stop contributing to open source all together. So what I wanted to know was, since there are thousands of open source projects, is all this being documented somewhere with tags,etc so that a beginner can choose his projects. The GSoc 2010 ideas list is a great starting point, but it only covers a handful. Hence, I thought why not ask this at stackoverflow: if you have any pointers as to where to start, when choosing a FOSS project or any other tips related to starting with FOSS. P.S. I'm interested in projects involving mobile ad hoc networks(those using TinyOS, preferably), so pointers related to these will be great. I'm looking through Freifunk and OLPC as of now, needed more ideas.

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• Thread Safety of C# List<T> for readers

  - by ILIA BROUDNO

  I am planning to create the list once in a static constructor and then have multiple instances of that class read it (and enumerate through it) concurrently without doing any locking. In this article http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/6sh2ey19.aspx MS describes the issue of thread safety as follows: Public static (Shared in Visual Basic) members of this type are thread safe. Any instance members are not guaranteed to be thread safe. A List can support multiple readers concurrently, as long as the collection is not modified. Enumerating through a collection is intrinsically not a thread-safe procedure. In the rare case where an enumeration contends with one or more write accesses, the only way to ensure thread safety is to lock the collection during the entire enumeration. To allow the collection to be accessed by multiple threads for reading and writing, you must implement your own synchronization. The "Enumerating through a collection is intrinsically not a thread-safe procedure." Statement is what worries me. Does this mean that it is thread safe for readers only scenario, but as long as you do not use enumeration? Or is it safe for my scenario?

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• VB.NET: Dialog exits when enter pressed?

  - by Camilo Martin

  Hi all; My problem seems to be quite simple, but it's not working the intuitive way. I'm designing a Windows Forms Application, and there is a dialog that should NOT exit when the enter key is pressed, instead it has to validate data first, in case enter was pressed after changing the text of a ComboBox. I've tried by telling it what to do on KeyPress event of the ComboBox if e is the Enter key: Private Sub ComboBoxSizeChoose_KeyPress(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.KeyPressEventArgs) Handles ComboBoxSizeChoose.KeyPress If e.KeyChar = Convert.ToChar(Keys.Enter) Then Try TamanhoDaNovaFonte = Single.Parse(ComboBoxSizeChoose.Text) Catch ex As Exception Dim Dialogo2 As New Dialog2 Dialog2.ShowDialog() ComboBoxSizeChoose.Text = TamanhoDaNovaFonte End Try End If End Sub But no success so far. When the Enter key is pressed, even with the ComboBox on focus, the whole dialog is closed, returning to the previous form. The validation is NOT done at all, and it has to be done before exiting. In fact, I don't even want to exit on the form's enter KeyPress, the only purpose of the enter key on the whole dialog is to validate the ComboBox (but only when in focus, for the sake of an intuitive UI). I've also tried appending the validation to the KeyPress event of the whole dialog's form, if the key is Enter. NO SUCCESS! It's like my code wasn't there at all. What should I do? (Visual Studio 2008, VB.NET)

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• How to catch YouTube embed code and turn into URL

  - by Jonathan Vanasco

  I need to strip YouTube embed codes down to their URL only. This is the exact opposite of all but one question on StackOverflow. Most people want to turn the URL into an embed code. This question addresses the usage patttern I want, but is tied to a specific embed code's regex ( Strip YouTube Embed Code Down to URL Only ) I'm not familiar with how YouTube has offered embeds over the years - or how the sizes differ. According to their current site, there are 2 possible embed templates and a variety of options. If that's it, I can handle a regex myself -- but I was hoping someone had more knowledge they could share, so I could write a proper regex pattern that matches them all and not run into endless edge-cases. The full use case scenario : user enters content in web based wysiwig editor backend cleans out youtube & other embed codes; reformats approved embeds into an internal format as the text is all converted to markdown. on display, appropriate current template/code display for youtube or other 3rd party site is generated At a previous company, our tech-team devised a plan where YouTube videos were embedded by listing the URL only. That worked great , but it was in a CMS where everyone was trained. I'm trying to create a similar storage, but for user-generated-content.

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• Is hardware accelerated CSS3 in Safari 4 & 5 broken, or my CSS and JS?

  - by Dan Forys

  Hi all, I've created a somewhat silly site that shows you the expected weather forecast for any city in the World. On webkit based browsers, when the weather is sunny a sun with CSS3 animated rotated sunbeams appears. This works fine on Chrome. An example (sunny, at the moment) page is: http://willitraintoday.co.uk/iceland/reykjavik/ However, when viewed in Safari 4 or 5 on Mac Snow Leopard, when the sun appears the sky background appears over it. Weirder still, as the cloud containing the advert moves across the sky, it squashes the main text. When the cloud reaches the left edge, the text appears wider than normal and starts squashing down again. I've tried: - Disabling the CSS3 animation; it works fine in Safari - Juggling the z-index of various elements; to no avail Is there something up with my Javascript or CSS, or is the hardware accelerated snow leopard Safari broken in this case? It seems not to happen in Safari 4 on Leopard, but I don't have Leopard any more to test myself. Grateful for any opinions!

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• URLLoader.load() issue when using the same URLRequest

  - by Rudy

  Hello, I have an issue with my eventListeners with the URLLoader, but this issue happens in IE, not in FF. public function getUploadURL():void { var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest(); request.url = getPath(); request.method = URLRequestMethod.GET; _loader = new URLLoader(); _loader.dataFormat = URLLoaderDataFormat.TEXT; _loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, getBaseURL); _loader.load(request); } private function getBaseURL(event:Event):void { _loader.removeEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, getBaseURL); } The issue is that my getBaseURL gets executed automatically after I have executed the code at least once, but that is the case only in IE. What happens is I call my getUploadURL, I make sure the server sends an event that will result in an Event.COMPLETE, so the getBaseURL gets executed, and the listener is removed. If I call the getUploadURL method and put the wrong path, I do not get an Event.COMPLETE but some other event, and getBaseURL should not be executed. That is the correct behavior in FireFox. In IE, it looks like the load() method does not actually call the server, it jumps directly to the getBaseURL() for the Event.COMPLETE. I checked the willTrigger() and hasEventListener() on _loader before assigning the new URLLoader, and it turns out the event has been well removed. I hope I make sense, I simplified my code. To sum up quickly: in FireFox it works well, but in IE, the first call will work but the second call won't really call the .load() method; it seems it uses the previously stored result from the first call. I hope someone can please help me, Thank you, Rudy

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• Jquery .Show() .Hide() not working as expected

  - by fizgig07

  I'm trying to use the show and hide to display a different set of select options when a certain report type is selected. I have a couple problems with this: The .show .hide only execute properly if I pass params, slow fast, in the the first result of my conditional statement. If I take out the params or pass params in both results, only one select shows and it never changes.. here's is the code that currently kind of works. if ($('#ReportType').val() == 'PbuseExport') { $('#PbuseServices').show('fast'); $('#ReportServiceDropdown').hide('fast'); } else { $('#PbuseServices').hide(); $('#ReportServiceDropdown').show(); } After i've used this control I am taken to a differnt page. When I use the control again, it reatins the original search values and repopulates the control. Then again I only want to show one select option if a certain report is chosen.. This works correctly if the report type I originally searched on is not the "PbuseExport". If I searched on the report type "PbuseExport", then both selects show on the screen, and only until I change the report type does it show only one select. I know this probably isn't very clear.. Here is the code that handles the change event on the report type drop down. var serviceValue = $("#ReportType").val(); switch (serviceValue) { case 'PbuseExport': $('#PbuseServices').show('fast'); $('#ReportServiceDropdown').hide('fast'); default: $('#PbuseServices').hide(); $('#ReportServiceDropdown').show(); break; }

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• MS Access (Jet) transactions, workspaces & scope

  - by Eric G

  I am having trouble with committing a transaction (using Access 2003 DAO). It's acting as if I never had called BeginTrans -- I get error 3034 on CommitTrans, "You tried to commit or rollback a transaction without first beginning a transaction"; and the changes are written to the database (presumably because they were never wrapped in a transaction). However, BeginTrans is run, if you step through it. I am running it within the Access environment using the DBEngine(0) workspace. The tables I'm updating are all opened via a Jet database connection (to the same database) and updated using DAO.Recordset.update. The connection is opened before starting BeforeTrans. I'm not doing anything weird in the middle of the transaction like closing/opening connections or multiple workspaces etc. There is one nested transaction level (basically it's wrapping multiple transacted updates in an outer transaction, so if any fail they all fail). The inner transactions run without errors, it's the outer transaction that doesn't work. Here are a few things I've looked into and ruled out: The transaction is spread across several methods and BeginTrans and CommitTrans (and Rollback) are all in different places. But when I tried a simple test of running a transaction this way, it doesn't seem like this should matter. I thought maybe the database connection gets closed when it goes out of local scope, even though I have another 'global' reference to it (I'm never sure what DAO does with dbase connections to be honest). But this seems not to be the case -- right before the commit, the connection and its recordsets are alive (I can check their properties, EOF = False, etc.) My CommitTrans and Rollback are done within event callbacks. (Very basically, a parser program is throwing an 'onLoad' or 'onLoadFail' event at the end of parsing, which I am handling by either committing or rolling back the inserts I made during processing.) However, again, trying a simple test, it doesn't seem like this should matter. Any ideas why this isn't working for me? Thanks.

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• How do common web frameworks (Django, Rails, Symfony, etc) handle multiple instances of the same plu

  - by Steven Wei

  Do any of the popular web frameworks solve this problem well? Here's an example: suppose you're running one of these web frameworks and you want to install a blog plugin. Except instead of a single blog, you need to run two separate instances of the blog plugin, and you want to keep them segregated. Or say you want to install multiple instances of a user authentication plugin, because you want to segregate your administrative users from your customer user accounts. Or say you want to install multiple instances of a wiki plugin for different parts of your site, or multiple instances of a comments plugin, or whatever else. It seems to me that at the basic level, each instance of plugin would need to be able to configured with a different set of database tables, and would need to be 'installed' at a different URL path. My experience is mostly with Django and Symfony, and I haven't seen a clean solution to this problem in either of them. They both tend to assume that each plugin (or app, in Django's case) is only ever going to be installed once. I'm curious if the Rails folks have figured out a clean solution to this problem, or any other framework authors (in any language). And if you were going to design a solution to this problem, what would it look like?

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• Self referencing update SQL statement for Informix

  - by CheeseConQueso

  Need some Informix SQL... Courses get a regular grade, but their associated labs get a grade of 'LAB'. I need to update the table so that the lab grade matches the course grade. Also, if there is no corresponding course for a lab, it means the course was canceled. In that case, I want to place a flag value of 'X' for its grade. Example data before update: id yr sess crs_no hrs grd 725 2009 FA COLL101 3.000000000000 C 725 2009 FA ENGL021 3.000000000000 FI 725 2009 FA ENGL021L 1.000000000000 LAB 725 2009 FA ENGL031 3.000000000000 FNI 725 2009 FA ENGL031L 1.000000000000 LAB 725 2009 FA MATH010 3.000000000000 FNI 725 2010 SP AOTE101 3.000000000000 C 725 2010 SP ENGL021L 1.000000000000 LAB 725 2010 SP ENGL031 3.000000000000 FI 725 2010 SP ENGL031L 1.000000000000 LAB 725 2010 SP MATH010 3.000000000000 FNI 726 2010 SP SPAN101 3.000000000000 FN Example data after update: id yr sess crs_no hrs grd 725 2009 FA COLL101 3.000000000000 C 725 2009 FA ENGL021 3.000000000000 FI 725 2009 FA ENGL021L 1.000000000000 FI 725 2009 FA ENGL031 3.000000000000 FNI 725 2009 FA ENGL031L 1.000000000000 FNI 725 2009 FA MATH010 3.000000000000 FNI 725 2010 SP AOTE101 3.000000000000 C 725 2010 SP ENGL021L 1.000000000000 X 725 2010 SP ENGL031 3.000000000000 FI 725 2010 SP ENGL031L 1.000000000000 FI 725 2010 SP MATH010 3.000000000000 FNI 726 2010 SP SPAN101 3.000000000000 FN I worked out a solution for this, but it required a lot of on-the-fly composite foreign keys built from concatenating the id, yr, sess, and substring'd crs_no. My solution is not only overkill, but it has gaps in it and it takes too long to process. I know there is an easier way to do this, but I've gone so far down one road that I am having trouble thinking of a different approach.

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• How to copy generically superclass instances to subclass instances?

  - by gerry

  Hi @all, I have a class hierarchy / inheritance like this: public class A { private String name; // with getters & setters public void doAWithName(){ ... } } public class B extends A { public void doBWithName(){ // a differnt implementation to what I do in class A } } public class C extends B { public void doCWithName(){ // a differnt implementation to what I do in class A and B } } So at one time there is a instance of class A with the initialized field "name". Later I want this instance of A get wrapped into instance of B or C. So the superclasses should be get wrapped with a subclass! How can I make this most efficent with respect to DRY? I've thought about a constructor that does some copying with the getters/setters. But in this case I have to repeat myself - and this doesn't respect anymore to my initial requirement of DRY! So, how can I warp A to B by just initializing B's new fields (with default values) and delegating the rest to a method in A (which knows more than B about which fields of A should be accessed...). In the same way: If A should be wrapped into C only a method in c should init C's 'new' fields, delegate to B's wrap method (which therefore inits B's 'new' fields in C) and at last B delegates to A which copies it's fields to the fields of C). So in the end I have a new instance of C which has the values of A wrapped (and some default init values to the fields which the inheritance hierarchy has added).

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• Is the Java classpath final after JVM startup?

  - by Jens

  Hi, I have read a lot about the Java class loading process lately. Often I came across texts that claimed that it is not possible to add classes to the classpath during runtime and load them without class loader hackery (URLClassLoaders etc.) As far as I know classes are loaded dynamically. That means their bytecode representation is only loaded and transformed to a java.lang.Class object when needed. So shouldn't it be possible to add a JAR or *.class file to the classpath after the JVM started and load those classes, provided they haven't been loaded yet? (To be clear: In this case the classpath is simple folder on the filesystem. "Adding a JAR or *.class file" simply means dropping them in this folder.) And if not, does that mean that the classpath is searched on JVM startup and all fully qualified names of the found classes are cached in an internal "list"? It would be nice of you if you could point me to some sources in your answers. Preferably the offical SUN documentation: Sun JVM Spec. I have read the spec but could not find anything about the classpath and if it's finalized on JVM startup. P.s. This is a theoretical question. I just want to know if it is possible. There is nothing practical I want to achieve. There is just my thirst for knowledge :)

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