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  • how can i check ID of a clicked element js

    - by necker
    how can i check if an ID of a clicked element is lets say 'target'. what i am trying to do is actually show and hide comment form on clicking in the text field and hide it when the user clicks out of the form. the problem is that if the user clicks Submit button the form hides and nothing is sent over. so i'll have to check if the submit buttons id matches the clicked element and not hide it in this case. i am using ruby on rails remote_form_for and onblur and onfocus events now. this is my bigger form that i am showing. <div id="bigArea" style="display:none"> <% remote_form_for @horses do |f|%> <%= f.text_area :description, {:onBlur=>"{$(bigArea').hide();$('smallField').show();}"} %> <%= f.submit "Submit"%> <% end %> </div> and this is the smaller form field that hides everytime you click in it. <div id="smallField"> <%= text_field_tag 'sth',"Click to comment, {:onFocus=>"$('bigArea').show();$('smallField').hide();"} %> </div> My question is how can i disallow the form to hide when a user clicks submit button? i suppose i should check which element's id has been clicked. and if it's submit button's ID i should not hide the form. Or maybe there is some other way to do all this? i would greatly appreciate any answers!

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  • ScriptManager duplicates javascript

    - by Andreas
    Hi! I have a usercontrol that can be used in for example a gridview itemtemplate, this means that the control might or might not be on the page at page load. In the case where the control is inside an itemtemplate i will popupate the gridview via asyncronous postbacks (via updatepanels). The control itselfs registrers scriptblocks since it is depending on javascripts. First i used Page.ClientScript.RegistrerClientScriptBlock But this doesn't work on asyncronous postbacks (updatepanels) so i then tried the same using ScriptManager which allows me to registrer scripts on the page after async postbacks. great!. ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock However, ScriptManager (what i know of) does not have the functionallity to see if a script already is on the page, so i will for every postback generate duplicates of the script blocks, this is ofcourse unwanted behaviour. I did a run at Google and found that i can call the Dispose() method of the PageRequestManager can be used, this does work since it clears the scripts and then adding them again (this also solves my issue with removing unused script blocks from removed controls). Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance().Dispose() However, ofcourse there is a downside since im posting here :). The Dispose() method disposes the instance on the master page as well which leads to scripts running there will stop to function after an async postback (updateprogress for example). So, is there a way to check if a script already exists on the page using ScriptManager or any other tools, that will prevent me of inserting duplicate scripts? Also, is there a way to remove certain script blocks (when i am removing an item in itemtemplate for example). Big thanks in advance.

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  • iPhone Apps, Objective C, a Graph, and Functions vs. Objects (or something like that)

    - by BillEccles
    Gentleones, I've got a UIImageView that I have in a UIView. This particular UIImageView displays a PNG of a graph. It's important for this particular view controller and another view controller to know what the graph "looks like," i.e., the function described by the PNG graph. These other view controllers need to be able to call a "function" of some sort with the X value returning the Y value. Please ignore the fact (from an outsider's perspective) that I could probably generate the graph programmatically. So my questions are: 1 - Where should I put this function? Should it go in one view controller or the other, or should it go in its own class or main or...? 2 - Should it be an object in some way? Or should it be a straight function? (In either case, where's it belong?) Pardon the apparent n00b-iness of the question. It's 'cause I'm honestly a n00b! This OOP stuff is giving my head a spin having been a procedural programmer for 30 years. (And I choose to learn it by jumping into an iPhone app. Talk about baptism by fire!) Thanks in advance,Bill

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  • PHP/Javascript limiting amount of checkboxes

    - by Carl294
    Hi everyone Im trying to limit the amount of checkboxes that can be checked, in this case only 3 can be checked. When using plain HTML this works fine. The code can be seen below. HTML example <td ><input type=checkbox name=ckb value=2 onclick='chkcontrol()';></td><td>Perl</td> Javascript Function <script type="text/javascript"> function chkcontrol(j) { var total=0; for(var i=0; i < document.form1.ckb.length; i++){ if(document.form1.ckb[i].checked){ total =total +1;} if(total > 3){ alert("Please Select only three") document.form1.ckb[j].checked = false; return false; } } } </script> The problem appears when replacing the fixed HTML values with values from a MYSQL database. All the information appears correctly, and can be posted to another page via a submit button. However, it seems like the 'value' assigned to each record from the database is not making its way too the javascript function. <td><input name="checkbox[]" type="checkbox" value="<?php echo $rows['TCA_QID'];?>" onclick="chkcontrol();"></td> I have tried changed the name in the javascript function to match the 'checkbox' name.Any advice would be greatly appreciated Thanks

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  • c# "==" operator : compiler behaviour with different structs

    - by Moe Sisko
    Code to illustrate : public struct MyStruct { public int SomeNumber; } public string DoSomethingWithMyStruct(MyStruct s) { if (s == null) return "this can't happen"; else return "ok"; } private string DoSomethingWithDateTime(DateTime s) { if (s == null) return "this can't happen"; // XX else return "ok"; } Now, "DoSomethingWithStruct" fails to compile with : "Operator '==' cannot be applied to operands of type 'MyStruct' and '<null>'". This makes sense, since it doesn't make sense to try a reference comparison with a struct, which is a value type. OTOH, "DoSomethingWithDateTime" compiles, but with compiler warning : "Unreachable code detected" at line marked "XX". Now, I'm assuming that there is no compiler error here, because the DateTime struct overloads the "==" operator. But how does the compiler know that the code is unreachable ? e.g. Does it look inside the code which overloads the "==" operator ? (This is using Visual Studio 2005 in case that makes a difference). Note : I'm more curious than anything about the above. I don't usually try to use "==" on structs and nulls.

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  • many to many and integrity when saving the null

    - by user369759
    I have two classes Software, Tag - they are related by ManyToMany. We CAN NOT create Software without putting the Tag to it. I want to write a test which check that: @Test public void createSoftwareWithNullTags() { List<Tag> tags = null; Software software = new Software("software1", "description1", tags); try { software.save(); fail("tags should not be null"); } catch (Exception ex) { // NEVER COME HERE !!! } } So, this test fails. I guess it is not good test for that case - because it even do not try to SAVE data to SOFTWARE_TAG table. Of course i could do validation manually but i want implement it with hibernate, using some annotation or something. Is it possible? Or how would you do this? My entities: @Entity public class Tag extends Model { public String title; public Tag(String title) { this.title = title; } @ManyToMany( cascade = {CascadeType.ALL}, mappedBy = "tags", targetEntity = Software.class ) public List<Software> softwares; } @Entity public class Software extends Model { public String title; public String description; @ManyToOne(optional = false) public Author author; @ManyToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable( name = "SOFTWARE_TAG", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "Software_id"), inverseJoinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "Tag_id") ) public List<Tag> tags; public Software(String title, String description, Author author, List<Tag> tags) { this.title = title; this.description = description; this.author = author; this.tags = tags; } }

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  • Async task ASP.net HttpContext.Current.Items is empty - How do handle this?

    - by GuruC
    We are running a very large web application in asp.net MVC .NET 4.0. Recently we had an audit done and the performance team says that there were a lot of null reference exceptions. So I started investigating it from the dumps and event viewer. My understanding was as follows: We are using Asyn Tasks in our controllers. We rely on HttpContext.Current.Items hashtable to store a lot of Application level values. Task<Articles>.Factory.StartNew(() => { System.Web.HttpContext.Current = ControllerContext.HttpContext.ApplicationInstance.Context; var service = new ArticlesService(page); return service.GetArticles(); }).ContinueWith(t => SetResult(t, "articles")); So we are copying the context object onto the new thread that is spawned from Task factory. This context.Items is used again in the thread wherever necessary. Say for ex: public class SomeClass { internal static int StreamID { get { if (HttpContext.Current != null) { return (int)HttpContext.Current.Items["StreamID"]; } else { return DEFAULT_STREAM_ID; } } } This runs fine as long as number of parallel requests are optimal. My questions are as follows: 1. When the load is more and there are too many parallel requests, I notice that HttpContext.Current.Items is empty. I am not able to figure out a reason for this and this causes all the null reference exceptions. 2. How do we make sure it is not null ? Any workaround if present ? NOTE: I read through in StackOverflow and people have questions like HttpContext.Current is null - but in my case it is not null and its empty. I was reading one more article where the author says that sometimes request object is terminated and it may cause problems since dispose is already called on objects. I am doing a copy of Context object - its just a shallow copy and not a deep copy.

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  • AJAX Post Not Sending Data?

    - by Jascha
    I can't for the life of me figure out why this is happening. This is kind of a repost, so forgive me, but I have new data. I am running a javascript log out function called logOut() that has make a jQuery ajax call to a php script... function logOut(){ var data = new Object; data.log_out = true; $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'http://www.mydomain.com/functions.php', data: data, success: function() { alert('done'); } }); } the php function it calls is here: if(isset($_POST['log_out'])){ $query = "INSERT INTO `token_manager` (`ip_address`) VALUES('logOutSuccess')"; $connection->runQuery($query); // <-- my own database class... // omitted code that clears session etc... die(); } Now, 18 hours out of the day this works, but for some reason, every once in a while, the POST data will not trigger my query. (this will last about an hour or so). I figured out the post data is not being set by adding this at the end of my script... $query = "INSERT INTO `token_manager` (`ip_address`) VALUES('POST FAIL')"; $connection->runQuery($query); So, now I know for certain my log out function is being skipped because in my database is the following data: if it were NOT being skipped, my data would show up like this: I know it is being skipped for two reasons, one the die() at the end of my first function, and two, if it were a success a "logOutSuccess" would be registered in the table. Any thoughts? One friend says it's a janky hosting company (hostgator.com). I personally like them because they are cheap and I'm a fan of cpanel. But, if that's the case??? Thanks in advance. -J

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  • php mailer attachments

    - by Matthew
    I have been using this script to send emails to certain staff but because of changes to my system i have to now send attachements with the email and i have tried multipul peices of code to accomplish this but have been unsuccessful... I still recive the email but without the attachement which is quite pointless in this case i have placed the script i am using bellow i have removed the real addresses i was using and smtp server require("PHPMailer/class.phpmailer.php"); $mail = new PHPMailer(); $mail->IsSMTP(); // set mailer to use SMTP $mail->Host = "SMTP.SErver.com"; $mail->From = "[email protected]"; $mail->FromName = "HCSC"; $mail->AddAddress("[email protected]", "Example"); $mail->AddReplyTo("[email protected]", "Hcsc"); $mail->WordWrap = 50; $mail->IsHTML(false); $mail->Subject = "AuthSMTP Test"; $mail->Body = "AuthSMTP Test Message!"; $mail->AddAttachment("matt.txt"); //this is basicly what i am trying to attach as a test but will be using excel spreadsheets in the production if(!$mail->Send()) { echo "Message could not be sent. <p>"; echo "Mailer Error: " . $mail->ErrorInfo; exit; } echo "Message has been sent"; i have also tried a few other emtods of attaching the file but none seem to work any help is greatly appricated

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  • Parsing multiple files at a time in Perl

    - by sfactor
    I have a large data set (around 90GB) to work with. There are data files (tab delimited) for each hour of each day and I need to perform operations in the entire data set. For example, get the share of OSes which are given in one of the columns. I tried merging all the files into one huge file and performing the simple count operation but it was simply too huge for the server memory. So, I guess I need to perform the operation each file at a time and then add up in the end. I am new to perl and am especially naive about the performance issues. How do I do such operations in a case like this. As an example two columns of the file are. ID OS 1 Windows 2 Linux 3 Windows 4 Windows Lets do something simple, counting the share of the OSes in the data set. So, each .txt file has millions of these lines and there are many such files. What would be the most efficient way to operate on the entire files.

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  • Checking multiple conditions in Ruby (within Rails, which may not matter)

    - by Ev
    Hello rubyists and railers, I have a method which checks over a params hash to make sure that it contains certain keys, and to make sure that certain values are set within a certain range. This is for an action that responds to a POST query by an iPhone app. Anyway, this method is checking for about 10 different conditions - any of which will result in an HTTP error being returned (I'm still considering this, but possibly a 400: bad request error). My current syntax is basically this (paraphrased): def invalid_submission_params?(params) [check one] or [check two] or [check three] or [check four] etc etc end Where each of the check statements returns true if that particular parameter check results in an invalid parameter set. I call it as a before filter with params[:submission] as the argument. This seems a little ugly (all the strung together or statements). Is there a better way? I have tried using case but can't see a way to make it more elegant. Or, perhaps, is there a rails method that lets me check the incoming params hash for certain conditions before handing control off to my action method?

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  • Why is Request not available for my PDF request?

    - by Beska
    We're trying to create a .NET aspx page that will have a PDF within it. Doing this by hardcoding it is easy. <object height="1250px" width="100%" type="application/pdf" data="our.pdf"> <param value="our.pdf" name="src" /> <param value="transparent" name="wmode" /> </object> (don't worry too much about the transparent thing...we're doing that for other reasons...but I include it here "just in case".) The problem is when we want to generate the PDF dynamically. Our code to populate the literal on the front end looks like this: ltrPDF.Text = String.Format("<object height=\"1250px\" width=\"100%\" type=\"application/pdf\" data=\"ourPdfGenerator.aspx?var0={0}&var1={1}&var2={2}\">", var0, var1, var2); ltrPDF.Text += String.Format("<param value=\"ourPdfGenerator.aspx?var0={0}&var1={1}&var2={2}\">", var0, var1, var2); ltrPDF.Text += "<param value=\"transparent\" name=\"wmode\"/>"; ltrPDF.Text += "</object>"; Kind of ugly, but it seems like it should work. But it doesn't. When I debug, and put a breakpoint on the first line of ourPdfGenerator.aspx.cs Page_Load method, I reach the breakpoint without any difficulty. However, the first thing we do is try to use Request.QueryString: string var0 = Request.QueryString["var0"]; which immediately throws an HttpException: "Request is not available in this context." I'm not clear on: Why isn't it available? What can I do about it?

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  • Strategies for Mapping Views in NHibernate

    - by Nathan Fisher
    It seems that NHibernate needs to have an id tag specified as part of the mapping. This presents a problem for views as most of the time (in my experience) a view will not have an Id. I have mapped views before in nhibernate, but they way I did it seemed to be be messy to me. Here is a contrived example of how I am doing it currently. Mapping <class name="ProductView" table="viewProduct" mutable="false" > <id name="Id" type="Guid"> <generator class="guid.comb" /> </id> <property name="Name" /> <!-- more properties --> </class> View SQL Select NewID() as Id, ProductName as Name, --More columns From Product Class public class ProductView { public virtual Id {get; set;} public virtual Name {get; set;} } I don't need an Id for the product or in the case of some views I may not have an id for the view, depending on if I have control over the View Is there a better way of mapping views to objects in nhibernate?

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  • design an extendable database model

    - by wishi_
    Hi! Currently I'm doing a project whose specifications are unclear - well who doesn't. I wonder what's the best development strategy to design a DB, that's going to be extended sooner or later with additional tables and relations. I want to include "changeability". My main concern is that I want to apply design patterns (it's a university project) and I want to separate the constant factors from those, that change by choosing appropriate design patterns - in my case MVC and a set of sub-patterns at model level. When it comes to the DB however, I may have to resdesign my model in my MVC approach, because my domain model at a later stage my require a different set of classes representing the DB tables. I use Hibernate as an abstraction layer between DB and application. Would you start with a very minimal DB, just a few tables and relations? And what if I want an efficient DB, too? I wonder what strategies are applied in the real world. Stakeholder analysis for example isn't a sufficient planing solution when it comes to changing requirements. I think - at a DB level - my design pattern ends. So there's breach whose impact I'd like to minimize with a smart strategy.

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  • Python: Created nested dictionary from list of paths

    - by sberry2A
    I have a list of tuples the looks similar to this (simplified here, there are over 14,000 of these tuples with more complicated paths than Obj.part) [ (Obj1.part1, {<SPEC>}), (Obj1.partN, {<SPEC>}), (ObjK.partN, {<SPEC>}) ] Where Obj goes from 1 - 1000, part from 0 - 2000. These "keys" all have a dictionary of specs associated with them which act as a lookup reference for inspecting another binary file. The specs dict contains information such as the bit offset, bit size, and C type of the data pointed to by the path ObjK.partN. For example: Obj4.part500 might have this spec, {'size':32, 'offset':128, 'type':'int'} which would let me know that to access Obj4.part500 in the binary file I must unpack 32 bits from offset 128. So, now I want to take my list of strings and create a nested dictionary which in the simplified case will look like this data = { 'Obj1' : {'part1':{spec}, 'partN':{spec} }, 'ObjK' : {'part1':{spec}, 'partN':{spec} } } To do this I am currently doing two things, 1. I am using a dotdict class to be able to use dot notation for dictionary get / set. That class looks like this: class dotdict(dict): def __getattr__(self, attr): return self.get(attr, None) __setattr__ = dict.__setitem__ __delattr__ = dict.__delitem__ The method for creating the nested "dotdict"s looks like this: def addPath(self, spec, parts, base): if len(parts) > 1: item = base.setdefault(parts[0], dotdict()) self.addPath(spec, parts[1:], item) else: item = base.setdefault(parts[0], spec) return base Then I just do something like: for path, spec in paths: self.lookup = dotdict() self.addPath(spec, path.split("."), self.lookup) So, in the end self.lookup.Obj4.part500 points to the spec. Is there a better (more pythonic) way to do this?

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  • PHP OOP singleton doesn't return object

    - by Misiur
    Weird trouble. I've used singleton multiple times but this particular case just doesn't want to work. Dump says that instance is null. define('ROOT', "/"); define('INC', 'includes/'); define('CLS', 'classes/'); require_once(CLS.'Core/Core.class.php'); $core = Core::getInstance(); var_dump($core->instance); $core->settings(INC.'config.php'); $core->go(); Core class class Core { static $instance; public $db; public $created = false; private function __construct() { $this->created = true; } static function getInstance() { if(!self::$instance) { self::$instance = new Core(); } else { return self::$instance; } } public function settings($path = null) { ... } public function go() { ... } } Error code Fatal error: Call to a member function settings() on a non-object in path It's possibly some stupid typo, but I don't have any errors in my editor. Thanks for the fast responses as always.

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  • Should I close sockets from both ends?

    - by Roman
    I have the following problem. My client program monitor for availability of server in the local network (using Bonjour, but it does not rally mater). As soon as a server is "noticed" by the client application, the client tries to create a socket: Socket(serverIP,serverPort);. At some point the client can loose the server (Bonjour says that server is not visible in the network anymore). So, the client decide to close the socket, because it is not valid anymore. At some moment the server appears again. So, the client tries to create a new socket associated with this server. But! The server can refuse to create this socket since it (server) has already a socket associated with the client IP and client port. It happens because the socket was closed by the client, not by the server. Can it happen? And if it is the case, how this problem can be solved? Well, I understand that it is unlikely that the client will try to connect to the server from the same port (client port), since client selects its ports randomly. But it still can happen (just by chance). Right?

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  • String literal recognition problem

    - by helicera
    Hello! I'm trying to recognize string literal by reading string per symbol. Here is a sample code: #region [String Literal (")] case '"': // {string literal ""} { // skipping '"' ChCurrent = Line.ElementAtOrDefault<Char>(++ChPosition); while(ChCurrent != '"') { Value.Append(ChCurrent); ChCurrent = Line.ElementAtOrDefault<Char>(++ChPosition); if(ChCurrent == '"') { // "" sequence only acceptable if(Line.ElementAtOrDefault<Char>(ChPosition + 1) == '"') { Value.Append(ChCurrent); // skip 2nd double quote ChPosition++; // move position next ChCurrent = Line.ElementAtOrDefault<Char>(++ChPosition); } } else if(default(Char) == ChCurrent) { // message: unterminated string throw new ScanningException(); } } ChPosition++; break; } #endregion When I run test: [Test] [ExpectedException(typeof(ScanningException))] public void ScanDoubleQuotedStrings() { this.Scanner.Run(@"""Hello Language Design""", default(System.Int32)); this.Scanner.Run(@"""Is there any problems with the """"strings""""?""", default(System.Int32)); this.Scanner.Run(@"""v#:';?325;.<>,|+_)""(*&^%$#@![]{}\|-_=""", default(System.Int32)); while(0 != this.Scanner.TokensCount - 1) { Assert.AreEqual(Token.TokenClass.StringLiteral, this.Scanner.NextToken.Class); } } It passes with success.. while I'm expecting to have an exception according to unmatched " mark in this.Scanner.Run(@"""v#:';?325;.<>,|+_)""(*&^%$#@![]{}\|-_=""", default(System.Int32)); Can anyone explain where is my mistake or give an advice on algorithm.

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  • template specialization of a auto_ptr<T>

    - by Chris Kaminski
    Maybe I'm overcomplicating things, but then again, I do sort of like clean interfaces. Let's say I want a specialization of auto_ptr for an fstream - I want a default fstream for the generic case, but allow a replacement pointer? tempate <> class auto_ptr<fstream> static fstream myfStream; fstream* ptr; public: auto_ptr() { // set ptr to &myfStream; } reset(fstream* newPtr) { // free old ptr if not the static one. ptr = newPtr }; } Would you consider something different or more elegant? And how would you keep something like the above from propagating outside this particular compilation unit? [The actual template is a boost::scoped_ptr.] EDIT: It's a contrived example. Ignore the fstream - it's about providing a default instance of object for an auto_ptr. I may not want to provide a specialized instance, but would like to keep the auto_ptr semantics for this static default object. class UserClass { public: auto_ptr<fstream> ptr; UserClass() { } } I may not provide an dynamic object at construction time - I still want it to have a meaningful default. Since I'm not looking at ownership-transfer semantics, it really shouldn't matter that my pointer class is pointing to a statically allocated object, no?

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  • php: autoload exception handling.

    - by YuriKolovsky
    Hello again, I'm extending my previous question (Handling exceptions within exception handle) to address my bad coding practice. I'm trying to delegate autoload errors to a exception handler. <?php function __autoload($class_name) { $file = $class_name.'.php'; try { if (file_exists($file)) { include $file; }else{ throw new loadException("File $file is missing"); } if(!class_exists($class_name,false)){ throw new loadException("Class $class_name missing in $file"); } }catch(loadException $e){ header("HTTP/1.0 500 Internal Server Error"); $e->loadErrorPage('500'); exit; } return true; } class loadException extends Exception { public function __toString() { return get_class($this) . " in {$this->file}({$this->line})".PHP_EOL ."'{$this->message}'".PHP_EOL . "{$this->getTraceAsString()}"; } public function loadErrorPage($code){ try { $page = new pageClass(); echo $page->showPage($code); }catch(Exception $e){ echo 'fatal error: ', $code; } } } $test = new testClass(); ?> the above script is supposed to load a 404 page if the testClass.php file is missing, and it works fine, UNLESS the pageClass.php file is missing as well, in which case I see a "Fatal error: Class 'pageClass' not found in D:\xampp\htdocs\Test\PHP\errorhandle\index.php on line 29" instead of the "fatal error: 500" message I do not want to add a try/catch block to each and every class autoload (object creation), so i tried this. What is the proper way of handling this?

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  • Class library reference problem

    - by Anindya Chatterjee
    I am building a class library and using its default namespace as "System". There suppose I am creating a generic data structure say PriorityQueue and putting it under System.Collections.Generic namespace. Now when I am referencing that library from another project, I can't see PriorityQueue under "System.Collections.Generic" namespace anymore. Though the library is referenced in that project I can not access any of the classes in it. My question was mscorlib and System.dll share similar namespaces, but still classes from both the assembly is accessible, but why can't mine? If I put a public class under System.Collections.Generic namespace in my class library and refer that library in a project and use a statement like "using System.Collections.Generic", still why I can't access my class there? This was an experimentation I did, I know using System namespace is not encouraged in custom class library, but I want to know the reason behind why I can't access my class in this special case? Please someone shed some light on it. PS: Last time I asked similar question but put it wrongly, so people got misunderstood and I didn't get my answer. This time I am trying to put it correctly as far as I can. Sorry for the misunderstanding.

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  • Nullability (Regular Expressions)

    - by danportin
    In Brzozowski's "Derivatives of Regular Expressions" and elsewhere, the function d(R) returning ? if a R is nullable, and Ø otherwise, includes clauses such as the following: d(R1 + R2) = d(R1) + d(R2) d(R1 · R2) = d(R1) ? d(R2) Clearly, if both R1 and R2 are nullable then (R1 · R2) is nullable, and if either R1 or R2 is nullable then (R1 + R2) is nullable. It is unclear to me what the above clauses are supposed to mean, however. My first thought, mapping (+), (·), or the Boolean operations to regular sets is nonsensical, since in the base case, d(a) = Ø (for all a ? S) d(?) = ? d(Ø) = Ø and ? is not a set (nor is the return type of d, which is a regular expression). Furthermore, this mapping isn't indicated, and there is a separate notation for it. I understand nullability, but I'm lost on the definition of the sum, product, and Boolean operations in the definition of d: how are ? or Ø returned from d(R1) ? d(R2), for instance, in the definition off d(R1 · R2)?

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  • Why are my connections not closed even if I explicitly dispose of the DataContext?

    - by Chris Simpson
    I encapsulate my linq to sql calls in a repository class which is instantiated in the constructor of my overloaded controller. The constructor of my repository class creates the data context so that for the life of the page load, only one data context is used. In my destructor of the repository class I explicitly call the dispose of the DataContext though I do not believe this is necessary. Using performance monitor, if I watch my User Connections count and repeatedly load a page, the number increases once per page load. Connections do not get closed or reused (for about 20 minutes). I tried putting Pooling=false in my config to see if this had any effect but it did not. In any case with pooling I wouldn't expect a new connection for every load, I would expect it to reuse connections. I've tried putting a break point in the destructor to make sure the dispose is being hit and sure enough it is. So what's happening? Some code to illustrate what I said above: The controller: public class MyController : Controller { protected MyRepository rep; public MyController () { rep = new MyRepository(); } } The repository: public class MyRepository { protected MyDataContext dc; public MyRepository() { dc = getDC(); } ~MyRepository() { if (dc != null) { //if (dc.Connection.State != System.Data.ConnectionState.Closed) //{ // dc.Connection.Close(); //} dc.Dispose(); } } // etc } Note: I add a number of hints and context information to the DC for auditing purposes. This is essentially why I want one connection per page load

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  • Multi-module Maven build

    - by Don
    Hi, My project has a fairly deep graph of Maven modules. The root POM has the following plugin configured <plugins> <plugin> <groupId>org.jvnet</groupId> <artifactId>animal-sniffer</artifactId> <version>1.2</version> <configuration> <signature> <groupId>org.jvnet.animal-sniffer</groupId> <artifactId>java1.4</artifactId> <version>1.0</version> </signature> </configuration> </plugin> </plugins> If I invoke this target from the command line in the root directory via: mvn animal-sniffer:check Then it works fine as long as the current module extends (either directly or indirectly) from the root POM. However there are many children (or grandchildren) of the root module, which do not inherit from that module's POM. In this case, the goal fails because it cannot find the necessary configuration [ERROR] BUILD ERROR [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] One or more required plugin parameters are invalid/missing for 'animal-sniffer:check' [0] Inside the definition for plugin 'animal-sniffer' specify the following: <configuration> ... <signature>VALUE</signature> </configuration>. When configuring this plugin in the root module, is there any way to exclude a list of sub-modules either by name, or by packaging type? Thanks, Donal

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  • Performance of C# method polymorphism with generics

    - by zildjohn01
    I noticed in C#, unlike C++, you can combine virtual and generic methods. For example: using System.Diagnostics; class Base { public virtual void Concrete() {Debug.WriteLine("base concrete");} public virtual void Generic<T>() {Debug.WriteLine("base generic");} } class Derived : Base { public override void Concrete() {Debug.WriteLine("derived concrete");} public override void Generic<T>() {Debug.WriteLine("derived generic");} } class App { static void Main() { Base x = new Derived(); x.Concrete(); x.Generic<PerformanceCounter>(); } } Given that any number of versions of Generic<T> could be instantiated, it doesn't look like the standard vtbl approach could be used to resolve method calls, and in fact it's not. Here's the generated code: x.Concrete(); mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] mov eax,dword ptr [ecx] call dword ptr [eax+38h] x.Generic<PerformanceCounter>(); push 989A38h mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] mov edx,989914h call 76A874F1 mov dword ptr [ebp-4],eax mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] call dword ptr [ebp-4] The extra code appears to be looking up a dynamic vtbl according to the generic parameters, and then calling into it. Has anyone written about the specifics of this implementation? How well does it perform compared to the non-generic case?

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