Search Results

Search found 21331 results on 854 pages for 'require once'.

Page 801/854 | < Previous Page | 797 798 799 800 801 802 803 804 805 806 807 808  | Next Page >

  • How to count the length (number of lines) of a csv file in Rails?

    - by Mathias
    Hello, I have a form (Rails) which allows me to load a .csv file using the file_field. In the view: <% form_for(:upcsv, :html => {:multipart => true}) do |f| %> <table> <tr> <td><%= f.label("File:") %></td> <td><%= f.file_field(:filename) %></td> </tr> </table> <%= f.submit("Submit") %> <% end %> Clicking Submit redirects me to another page (create.html.erb). The file was loaded fine, and I was able to read the contents just fine in this second page. I am trying to show the number of lines in the .csv file in this second page. My controller (semi-pseudocode): class UpcsvController < ApplicationController def index end def create file = params[:upcsv][:filename] ... #params[:upcsv][:file_length] = file.length # Show number of lines in the file #params[:upcsv][:file_length] = file.size ... end end Both file.length and file.size returns '91' when my file only contains 7 lines. From the Rails documentation that I read, once the Submit button is clicked, Rails creates a temp file of the uploaded file, and the params[:upcsv][:filename] contains the contents of the temp/uploaded file and not the path to the file. And I don't know how to extract the number of lines in my original file. What is the correct way to get the number of lines in the file? My create.html.erb: <table> <tr> <td>File length:</td> <td><%= params[:upcsv][:file_length] %></td> </tr> </table> I'm really new at Rails (just started last week), so please bear with my stupid questions. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • How and why do I set up a C# build machine?

    - by mmr
    Hi all, I'm working with a small (4 person) development team on a C# project. I've proposed setting up a build machine which will do nightly builds and tests of the project, because I understand that this is a Good Thing. Trouble is, we don't have a whole lot of budget here, so I have to justify the expense to the powers that be. So I want to know: What kind of tools/licenses will I need? Right now, we use Visual Studio and Smart Assembly to build, and Perforce for source control. Will I need something else, or is there an equivalent of a cron job for running automated scripts? What, exactly, will this get me, other than an indication of a broken build? Should I set up test projects in this solution (sln file) that will be run by these scripts, so I can have particular functions tested? We have, at the moment, two such tests, because we haven't had the time (or frankly, the experience) to make good unit tests. What kind of hardware will I need for this? Once a build has been finished and tested, is it a common practice to put that build up on an ftp site or have some other way for internal access? The idea is that this machine makes the build, and we all go to it, but can make debug builds if we have to. How often should we make this kind of build? How is space managed? If we make nightly builds, should we keep around all the old builds, or start to ditch them after about a week or so? Is there anything else I'm not seeing here? I realize that this is a very large topic, and I'm just starting out. I couldn't find a duplicate of this question here, and if there's a book out there I should just get, please let me know. EDIT: I finally got it to work! Hudson is completely fantastic, and FxCop is showing that some features we thought were implemented were actually incomplete. We also had to change the installer type from Old-And-Busted vdproj to New Hotness WiX. Basically, for those who are paying attention, if you can run your build from the command line, then you can put it into hudson. Making the build run from the command line via MSBuild is a useful exercise in itself, because it forces your tools to be current.

    Read the article

  • Mysterious constraints problem with SQL Server 2000

    - by Ramon
    Hi all I'm getting the following error from a VB NET web application written in VS 2003, on framework 1.1. The web app is running on Windows Server 2000, IIS 5, and is reading from a SQL server 2000 database running on the same machine. System.Data.ConstraintException: Failed to enable constraints. One or more rows contain values violating non-null, unique, or foreign-key constraints. at System.Data.DataSet.FailedEnableConstraints() at System.Data.DataSet.EnableConstraints() at System.Data.DataSet.set_EnforceConstraints(Boolean value) at System.Data.DataTable.EndLoadData() at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.FillFromReader(Object data, String srcTable, IDataReader dataReader, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, DataColumn parentChapterColumn, Object parentChapterValue) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet, String srcTable, IDataReader dataReader, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.FillFromCommand(Object data, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet) The problem appears when the web app is under a high load. The system runs fine when volume is low, but when the number of requests becomes high, the system starts rejecting incoming requests with the above exception message. Once the problem appears, very few requests actually make it through and get processed normally, about 2 in every 30. The vast majority of requests fail, until a SQL Server restart or IIS reset is performed. The system then start processing requests normally, and after some time it starts throwing the same error. The error occurs when a data adapter runs the Fill() method against a SELECT statement, to populate a strongly-typed dataset. It appears that the dataset does not like the data it is given and throws this exception. This error occurs on various SELECT statements, acting on different tables. I have regenerated the dataset and checked the relevant constraints, as well as the table from which the data is read. Both the dataset definition and the data in the table are fine. Admittedly, the hardware running both the web app and SQL Server 2000 is seriously outdated, considering the numbers of incoming requests it currently receives. The amount of RAM consumed by SQL Server is dynamically allocated, and at peak times SQL Server can consume up to 2.8 GB out of a total of 3.5 GB on the server. At first I suspected some sort of index or database corruption, but after running DBCC CHECKDB, no errors were found in the database. So now I'm wondering whether this error is a result of the hardware limitations of the system. Is it possible for SQL Server to somehow mess up the data it's supposed to pass to the dataset, resulting in constraint violation due to, say, data type/length mismatch? I tried accessing the RowError messages of the data rows in the retrieved dataset tables but I kept getting empty strings. I know that HasErrors = true for the datatables in question. I have not set the EnableConstraints = false, and I don't want to do that. Thanks in advance. Ray

    Read the article

  • CSS three column layout, liquid center, no left-margin!

    - by moontear
    Hi, I am all in favor of CSS based layouts, but this one I just can't figure out. With a table it is oh-so-easy: <html> <head><title>Three Column</title></head> <body> <p>Test</p> <table style="width: 100%; border: 1px solid black; min-height: 300px;"> <tr> <td style="border: 1px solid green;" colspan="3">Header</td> </tr> <tr> <td style="border: 1px solid green; width: 150px;" rowspan="2">Left</td> <td style="border: 1px solid yellow;">Content</td> <td style="border: 1px solid blue; width: 200px;" rowspan="2">Right</td> </tr> <tr> <td style="border: 1px solid fuchsia;">Additional stuff</td> </tr> <tr><td style="border: 1px solid green;" colspan="3">Footer</td></tr> </body> <html> Left is fixed width Right is fixed width Content is liquid Additional stuff sits beneath content Now here is the important part: "Left" may not exist. Again this is easy with the table. Delete the column and "Content" expands. Beautiful. I have looked through many examples (and "holy grails") of liquid and table less three-column CSS based layouts, but I have not found one which is not using some kind of margin-left for the middle column ("Content"). Any margin-left will suck once "Left" is gone as "Content" will just stay at it's place. I'm just about to switch to old school table based layout for this problem, so I'm hoping someone has some idea - I don't care about excess markup, wrappers and the like, I would just like to know how to solve this with plain CSS. Btw: look at how easy equal height columns are... Cheers PS: No CSS3 please

    Read the article

  • Internet Explorer buggy when accessing a custom weblogic provider

    - by James
    I've created a custom Weblogic Security Authentication Provider on version 10.3 that includes a custom login module to validate users. As part of the provider, I've implemented the ServletAuthenticationFilter and added one filter. The filter acts as a common log on page for all the applications within the domain. When we access any secured URLs by entering them in the address bar, this works fine in IE and Firefox. But when we bookmark the link in IE an odd thing happens. If I click the bookmark, you will see our log on page, then after you've successfully logged into the system the basic auth page will display, even though the user is already authenticated. This never happens in Firefox, only IE. It's also intermittent. 1 time out of 5 IE will correctly redirect and not show the basic auth window. Firefox and Opera will correctly redirect everytime. We've captured the response headers and compared the success and failures, they are identical. final boolean isAuthenticated = authenticateUser(userName, password, req); // Send user on to the original URL if (isAuthenticated) { res.sendRedirect(targetURL); return; } As you can see, once the user is authenticated I do a redirect to the original URL. Is there a step I'm missing? The authenticateUser() method is taken verbatim from an example in Oracle's documents. private boolean authenticateUser(final String userName, final String password, HttpServletRequest request) { boolean results; try { ServletAuthentication.login(new CallbackHandler() { @Override public void handle(Callback[] callbacks) throws IOException, UnsupportedCallbackException { for (Callback callback : callbacks) { if (callback instanceof NameCallback) { NameCallback nameCallback = (NameCallback) callback; nameCallback.setName(userName); } if (callback instanceof PasswordCallback) { PasswordCallback passwordCallback = (PasswordCallback) callback; passwordCallback.setPassword(password.toCharArray()); } } } }, request); results = true; } catch (LoginException e) { results = false; } return results; I am asking the question here because I don't know if the issue is with the Weblogic config or the code. If this question is more suited to ServerFault please let me know and I will post there. It is odd that it works everytime in Firefox and Opera but not in Internet Explorer. I wish that not using Internet Explorer was an option but it is currently the company standard. Any help or direction would be appreciated. I have tested against IE 6 & 8 and deployed the custom provider on 3 different environments and I can still reproduce the bug.

    Read the article

  • Calculating rotation and translation matrices between two odometry positions for monocular linear triangulation

    - by user1298891
    Recently I've been trying to implement a system to identify and triangulate the 3D position of an object in a robotic system. The general outline of the process goes as follows: Identify the object using SURF matching, from a set of "training" images to the actual live feed from the camera Move/rotate the robot a certain amount Identify the object using SURF again in this new view Now I have: a set of corresponding 2D points (same object from the two different views), two odometry locations (position + orientation), and camera intrinsics (focal length, principal point, etc.) since it's been calibrated beforehand, so I should be able to create the 2 projection matrices and triangulate using a basic linear triangulation method as in Hartley & Zissermann's book Multiple View Geometry, pg. 312. Solve the AX = 0 equation for each of the corresponding 2D points, then take the average In practice, the triangulation only works when there's almost no change in rotation; if the robot even rotates a slight bit while moving (due to e.g. wheel slippage) then the estimate is way off. This also applies for simulation. Since I can only post two hyperlinks, here's a link to a page with images from the simulation (on the map, the red square is simulated robot position and orientation, and the yellow square is estimated position of the object using linear triangulation.) So you can see that the estimate is thrown way off even by a little rotation, as in Position 2 on that page (that was 15 degrees; if I rotate it any more then the estimate is completely off the map), even in a simulated environment where a perfect calibration matrix is known. In a real environment when I actually move around with the robot, it's worse. There aren't any problems with obtaining point correspondences, nor with actually solving the AX = 0 equation once I compute the A matrix, so I figure it probably has to do with how I'm setting up the two camera projection matrices, specifically how I'm calculating the translation and rotation matrices from the position/orientation info I have relative to the world frame. How I'm doing that right now is: Rotation matrix is composed by creating a 1x3 matrix [0, (change in orientation angle), 0] and then converting that to a 3x3 one using OpenCV's Rodrigues function Translation matrix is composed by rotating the two points (start angle) degrees and then subtracting the final position from the initial position, in order to get the robot's straight and lateral movement relative to its starting orientation Which results in the first projection matrix being K [I | 0] and the second being K [R | T], with R and T calculated as described above. Is there anything I'm doing really wrong here? Or could it possibly be some other problem? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • In Ruby, how does coerce() actually work?

    - by Jian Lin
    It is said that when we have a class Point and knows how to perform point * 3 like the following: class Point def initialize(x,y) @x, @y = x, y end def *(c) Point.new(@x * c, @y * c) end end point = Point.new(1,2) p point p point * 3 Output: #<Point:0x336094 @x=1, @y=2> #<Point:0x335fa4 @x=3, @y=6> but then, 3 * point is not understood: Point can't be coerced into Fixnum (TypeError) So we need to further define an instance method coerce: class Point def coerce(something) [self, something] end end p 3 * point Output: #<Point:0x3c45a88 @x=3, @y=6> So it is said that 3 * point is the same as 3.*(point) that is, the instance method * takes an argument point and invoke on the object 3. Now, since this method * doesn't know how to multiply a point, so point.coerce(3) will be called, and get back an array: [point, 3] and then * is once again applied to it, is that true? point * 3 which is the same as point.*(3) and now, this is understood and we now have a new Point object, as performed by the instance method * of the Point class. The question is: 1) who invokes point.coerce(3) ? Is it Ruby automatically, or is it some code inside of * method of Fixnum by catching an exception? Or is it by case statement that when it doesn't know one of the known types, then call coerce? 2) Does coerce always need to return an array of 2 elements? Can it be no array? Or can it be an array of 3 elements? 3) And is the rule that, the original operator (or method) * will then be invoked on element 0, with the argument of element 1? (element 0 and element 1 are the two elements in that array returned by coerce) Who does it? Is it done by Ruby or is it done by code in Fixnum? If it is done by code in Fixnum, then it is a "convention" that everybody follows when doing a coerce? So could it be the code in * of Fixnum do something like this: if (something.typeof? ...) else if ... # other type else if ... # other type else # if it is not a type I know array = something.coerce(self) return array[0].*(array[1]) end

    Read the article

  • Same data being returned by linq for 2 different executions of a stored procedure?

    - by Paul
    Hello I have a stored procedure that I am calling through Entity Framework. The stored procedure has 2 date parameters. I supply different argument in the 2 times I call the stored procedure. I have verified using SQL Profiler that the stored procedure is being called correctly and returning the correct results. When I call my method the second time with different arguments, even though the stored procedure is bringing back the correct results, the table created contains the same data as the first time I called it. dtStart = 01/08/2009 dtEnd = 31/08/2009 public List<dataRecord> GetData(DateTime dtStart, DateTime dtEnd) { var tbl = from t in db.SP(dtStart, dtEnd) select t; return tbl.ToList(); } GetData((new DateTime(2009, 8, 1), new DateTime(2009, 8, 31)) // tbl.field1 value = 45450 - CORRECT GetData(new DateTime(2009, 7, 1), new DateTime(2009, 7, 31)) // tbl.field1 value = 45450 - WRONG 27456 expected Is this a case of Entity Framework being clever and caching? I can't see why it would cache this though as it has executed the stored procedure twice. Do I have to do something to close tbl? using Visual Studio 2008 + Entity Framework. I also get the message "query cannot be enumerated more than once" a few times every now and then, am not sure if that is relevant? FULL CODE LISTING namespace ProfileDataService { public partial class DataService { public static List<MeterTotalConsumpRecord> GetTotalAllTimesConsumption(DateTime dtStart, DateTime dtEnd, EUtilityGroup ug, int nMeterSelectionType, int nCustomerID, int nUserID, string strSelection, bool bClosedLocations, bool bDisposedLocations) { dbChildDataContext db = DBManager.ChildDataConext(nCustomerID); var tbl = from t in db.GetTotalConsumptionByMeter(dtStart, dtEnd, (int) ug, nMeterSelectionType, nCustomerID, nUserID, strSelection, bClosedLocations, bDisposedLocations, 1) select t; return tbl.ToList(); } } } /// CALLER List<MeterTotalConsumpRecord> _P1Totals; List<MeterTotalConsumpRecord> _P2Totals; public void LoadData(int nUserID, int nCustomerID, ELocationSelectionMethod locationSelectionMethod, string strLocations, bool bIncludeClosedLocations, bool bIncludeDisposedLocations, DateTime dtStart, DateTime dtEnd, ReportsBusinessLogic.Lists.EPeriodType durMainPeriodType, ReportsBusinessLogic.Lists.EPeriodType durCompareToPeriodType, ReportsBusinessLogic.Lists.EIncreaseReportType rptType, bool bIncludeDecreases) { ///Code for setting properties using parameters.. _P2Totals = ProfileDataService.DataService.GetTotalAllTimesConsumption(_P2StartDate, _P2EndDate, EUtilityGroup.Electricity, 1, nCustomerID, nUserID, strLocations, bIncludeClosedLocations, bIncludeDisposedLocations); _P1Totals = ProfileDataService.DataService.GetTotalAllTimesConsumption(_StartDate, _EndDate, EUtilityGroup.Electricity, 1, nCustomerID, nUserID, strLocations, bIncludeClosedLocations, bIncludeDisposedLocations); PopulateLines() //This fills up a list of objects with information for my report ready for the totals to be added PopulateTotals(_P1Totals, 1); PopulateTotals(_P2Totals, 2); } void PopulateTotals(List<MeterTotalConsumpRecord> objTotals, int nPeriod) { MeterTotalConsumpRecord objMeterConsumption = null; foreach (IncreaseReportDataRecord objLine in _Lines) { objMeterConsumption = objTotals.Find(delegate(MeterTotalConsumpRecord t) { return t.MeterID == objLine.MeterID; }); if (objMeterConsumption != null) { if (nPeriod == 1) { objLine.P1Consumption = (double)objMeterConsumption.Consumption; } else { objLine.P2Consumption = (double)objMeterConsumption.Consumption; } objMeterConsumption = null; } } } }

    Read the article

  • log4net initialisation

    - by Ruben Bartelink
    I've looked hard for duplicates but have to ask the following, no matter how basic it may seem, to get it clear once and for all! In a fresh Console app using log4net version 1.2.10.0 on VS28KSP1 on 64 bit W7, I have the following code:- using log4net; using log4net.Config; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { static readonly ILog _log = LogManager.GetLogger(typeof(Program)); static void Main(string[] args) { _log.Info("Ran"); } } } In my app.config, I have: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler, log4net" /> </configSections> <log4net> <appender name="RollingFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender"> <file value="Program.log" /> <lockingModel type="log4net.Appender.FileAppender+MinimalLock" /> <appendToFile value="true" /> <rollingStyle value="Size" /> <maxSizeRollBackups value="10" /> <maximumFileSize value="1MB" /> <staticLogFileName value="true" /> <layout type="log4net.Layout.PatternLayout"> <conversionPattern value="[%username] %date [%thread] %-5level %logger [%property{NDC}] - %message%newline" /> </layout> </appender> <root> <level value="DEBUG" /> <appender-ref ref="RollingFileAppender" /> </root> </log4net> </configuration> This doesnt write anything, unless I either add an attribute: [ assembly:XmlConfigurator ] Or explicitly initialise it in Main(): _log.Info("This will not go to the log"); XmlConfigurator.Configure(); _log.Info("Ran"); This raises the following questions: I'm almost certain I've seen it working somewhere on some version of log4net without the addition of the assembly attribute or call in Main. Can someone assure me I'm not imagining that? Can someone please point me to where in the doc it explicitly states that both the config section and the initialisation hook are required - hopefully with an explanation of when this changed, if it did? I can easily imagine why this might be the policy -- having the initialisation step explicit to avoid surprises etc., it's just that I seem to recall this not always being the case... (And normally I have the config in a separate file, which generally takes configsections out of the picture)

    Read the article

  • Objective-c design advice for use of different data sources, swapping between test and live

    - by user200341
    I'm in the process of designing an application that is part of a larger piece of work, depending on other people to build an API that the app can make use of to retrieve data. While I was thinking about how to setup this project and design the architecture around it, something occurred to me, and I'm sure many people have been in similar situations. Since my work is depending on other people to complete their tasks, and a test server, this slows work down at my end. So the question is: What's the best practice for creating test repositories and classes, implementing them, and not having to depend on altering several places in the code to swap between the test classes and the actual repositories / proper api calls. Contemplate the following scenario: GetDataFromApiCommand *getDataCommand = [[GetDataFromApiCommand alloc]init]; getDataCommand.delegate = self; [getDataCommand getData]; Once the data is available via the API, "GetDataFromApiCommand" could use the actual API, but until then a set of mock data could be returned upon the call of [getDataCommand getData] There might be multiple instances of this, in various places in the code, so replacing all of them wherever they are, is a slow and painful process which inevitably leads to one or two being overlooked. In strongly typed languages we could use dependency injection and just alter one place. In objective-c a factory pattern could be implemented, but is that the best route to go for this? GetDataFromApiCommand *getDataCommand = [GetDataFromApiCommandFactory buildGetDataFromApiCommand]; getDataCommand.delegate = self; [getDataCommand getData]; What is the best practices to achieve this result? Since this would be most useful, even if you have the actual API available, to run tests, or work off-line, the ApiCommands would not necessarily have to be replaced permanently, but the option to select "Do I want to use TestApiCommand or ApiCommand". It is more interesting to have the option to switch between: All commands are test and All command use the live API, rather than selecting them one by one, however that would also be useful to do for testing one or two actual API commands, mixing them with test data. EDIT The way I have chosen to go with this is to use the factory pattern. I set up the factory as follows: @implementation ApiCommandFactory + (ApiCommand *)newApiCommand { // return [[ApiCommand alloc]init]; return [[ApiCommandMock alloc]init]; } @end And anywhere I want to use the ApiCommand class: GetDataFromApiCommand *getDataCommand = [ApiCommandFactory newApiCommand]; When the actual API call is required, the comments can be removed and the mock can be commented out. Using new in the message name implies that who ever uses the factory to get an object, is responsible for releasing it (since we want to avoid autorelease on the iPhone). If additional parameters are required, the factory needs to take these into consideration i.e: [ApiCommandFactory newSecondApiCommand:@"param1"]; This will work quite well with repositories as well.

    Read the article

  • On Redirect - Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server...

    - by Craig Russell
    Hello (this is a long post sorry), I am writing a application in ASP.NET MVC 2 and I have reached a point where I am receiving this error when I connect remotely to my Server. Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server due to failure in retrieving the user's local application data path. Please make sure the user has a local user profile on the computer. The connection will be closed. I thought I had worked around this problem locally, as I was getting this error in debug when site was redirected to a baseUrl if a subdomain was invalid using this code: protected override void Initialize(RequestContext requestContext) { string[] host = requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Headers["Host"].Split(':'); _siteProvider.Initialise(host, LiveMeet.Properties.Settings.Default["baseUrl"].ToString()); base.Initialize(requestContext); } protected override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { if (Site == null) { string[] host = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.Headers["Host"].Split(':'); string newUrl; if (host.Length == 2) newUrl = "http://sample.local:" + host[1]; else newUrl = "http://sample.local"; Response.Redirect(newUrl, true); } ViewData["Site"] = Site; base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); } public Site Site { get { return _siteProvider.GetCurrentSite(); } } The Site object is returned from a Provider named siteProvider, this does two checks, once against a database containing a list of all available subdomains, then if that fails to find a valid subdomain, or valid domain name, searches a memory cache of reserved domains, if that doesn't hit then returns a baseUrl where all invalid domains are redirected. locally this worked when I added the true to Response.Redirect, assuming a halting of the current execution and restarting the execution on the browser redirect. What I have found in the stack trace is that the error is thrown on the second attempt to access the database. #region ISiteProvider Members public void Initialise(string[] host, string basehost) { if (host[0].Contains(basehost)) host = host[0].Split('.'); Site getSite = GetSites().WithDomain(host[0]); if (getSite == null) { sites.TryGetValue(host[0], out getSite); } _site = getSite; } public Site GetCurrentSite() { return _site; } public IQueryable<Site> GetSites() { return from p in _repository.groupDomains select new Site { Host = p.domainName, GroupGuid = (Guid)p.groupGuid, IsSubDomain = p.isSubdomain }; } #endregion The Linq query ^^^ is hit first, with a filter of WithDomain, the error isn't thrown till the WithDomain filter is attempted. In summary: The error is hit after the page is redirected, so the first iteration is executing as expected (so permissions on the database are correct, user profiles etc) shortly after the redirect when it filters the database query for the possible domain/subdomain of current redirected page, it errors out.

    Read the article

  • Array within Form collecting multiple values with the same name possible?

    - by JM4
    Good afternoon, I will first start with the goal I am trying to accomplish and then give a very basic sample of what I need to do. Goal Instead of collecting several variables and naming them with keys individually, I have decided to give in and use an array structure to handle all inputs of the same type and rules. Once I have the variables, I will validate against them and if 'ok' store them in a MySQL table. The table will hold consumer information and will need to store multiple rows of the same type of information. First Pass I will leave out the validation portion of this question because I feel I need to first understand the basics. <form action="?" method="POST" name="Form"> Member 1 First Name:<input type="text" name="MemberFirstName[]" /><br /> Member 1 Last Name: <input type="text" name="MemberLastName[]" /><br /> Member 1 Email: <input type="text" name="MemberEmail[]" /><br /> Member 2 First Name:<input type="text" name="MemberFirstName[]" /><br /> Member 2 Last Name: <input type="text" name="MemberLastName[]" /><br /> Member 2 Email: <input type="text" name="MemberEmail[]" /><br /> Member 3 First Name:<input type="text" name="MemberFirstName[]" /><br /> Member 3 Last Name: <input type="text" name="MemberLastName[]" /><br /> Member 3 Email: <input type="text" name="MemberEmail[]" /><br /> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="Continue" /> </form> I am hoping that each input given for First Name (a required field) will generate a unique key for that particular entry and not overwrite any data entered. Because I am carrying information from page to page (checkout form), I am turning the POST variables into SESSION variables then storing in a mysql database in the end. My hope is to have: <?php $conn = mysql_connect("localhost", "username", "password"); mysql_select_db("DBname",$conn); $sql = "INSERT INTO tablename VALUES ('$_SESSION[Member1FirstName]', '$_SESSION[Member1LastName]', '$_SESSION[Member1Email]', '$_SESSION[Member2FirstName]', '$_SESSION[Member2LastName]', '$_SESSION[Member2Email]', '$_SESSION[Member1FirstName]', '$_SESSION[Member3LastName]', '$_SESSION[Member3Email]')"; $result = mysql_query($sql, $conn) or die(mysql_error()); Header ("Location: completed.php"); ?> Where Member1, Member2, and Member3 values will appear on their own row within the table. I KNOW my code is wrong but I am giving a first shot at the overall business purpose I am trying to achieve and trying to learn how to code the right way. I am very, very new to programming so any 'baby advice' is greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • .Net Entity Framework SaveChanges is adding without add method

    - by tmfkmoney
    I'm new to the entity framework and I'm really confused about how savechanges works. There's probably a lot of code in my example which could be improved, but here's the problem I'm having. The user enters a bunch of picks. I make sure the user hasn't already entered those picks. Then I add the picks to the database. var db = new myModel() var predictionArray = ticker.Substring(1).Split(','); // Get rid of the initial comma. var user = Membership.GetUser(); var userId = Convert.ToInt32(user.ProviderUserKey); // Get the member with all his predictions for today. var memberQuery = (from member in db.Members where member.user_id == userId select new { member, predictions = from p in member.Predictions where p.start_date == null select p }).First(); // Load all the company ids. foreach (var prediction in memberQuery.predictions) { prediction.CompanyReference.Load(); } var picks = from prediction in predictionArray let data = prediction.Split(':') let companyTicker = data[0] where !(from i in memberQuery.predictions select i.Company.ticker).Contains(companyTicker) select new Prediction { Member = memberQuery.member, Company = db.Companies.Where(c => c.ticker == companyTicker).First(), is_up = data[1] == "up", // This turns up and down into true and false. }; // Save the records to the database. // HERE'S THE PART I DON'T UNDERSTAND. // This saves the records, even though I don't have db.AddToPredictions(pick) foreach (var pick in picks) { db.SaveChanges(); } // This does not save records when the db.SaveChanges outside of a loop of picks. db.SaveChanges(); foreach (var pick in picks) { } // This saves records, but it will insert all the picks exactly once no matter how many picks you have. //The fact you're skipping a pick makes no difference in what gets inserted. var counter = 1; foreach (var pick in picks) { if (counter == 2) { db.SaveChanges(); } counter++; } There's obviously something going on with the context I don't understand. I'm guessing I've somehow loaded my new picks as pending changes, but even if that's true I don't understand I have to loop over them to save changes. Can someone explain this to me?

    Read the article

  • Building a QueryExpression where name field is either A or B

    - by Mike
    I'm trying to build a Dynamics CRM 4 query so that I can get calendar events that are named either "Event A" or "Event B". A QueryByAttribute doesn't seem to do the job as I cannot specify a condition where the field called "event_name" = "Event A" of "event_name" = "Event B". When using the QueryExpression, I've found the FilterExpression applies to the Referencing Entity. I don't know if the FilterExpression can be used on the Referenced Entity at all. The example below is something like what I want to achieve, though this would return an empty result set as it will go looking in the entity called "my_event_response" for a "name" attribute. It's starting to look like I will need to run several queries to get this but this is less efficient than if I can submit it all at once. ColumnSet columns = new ColumnSet(); columns.Attributes = new string[]{ "event_name", "eventid", "startdate", "city" }; ConditionExpression eventname1 = new ConditionExpression(); eventname1.AttributeName = "event_name"; eventname1.Operator = ConditionOperator.Equal; eventname1.Values = new string[] { "Event A" }; ConditionExpression eventname2 = new ConditionExpression(); eventname2.AttributeName = "event_name"; eventname2.Operator = ConditionOperator.Equal; eventname2.Values = new string[] { "Event B" }; FilterExpression filter = new FilterExpression(); filter.FilterOperator = LogicalOperator.Or; filter.Conditions = new ConditionExpression[] { eventname1, eventname2 }; LinkEntity link = new LinkEntity(); link.LinkCriteria = filter; link.LinkFromEntityName = "my_event"; link.LinkFromAttributeName = "eventid"; link.LinkToEntityName = "my_event_response"; link.LinkToAttributeName = "eventid"; QueryExpression query = new QueryExpression(); query.ColumnSet = columns; query.EntityName = EntityName.mbs_event.ToString(); query.LinkEntities = new LinkEntity[] { link }; RetrieveMultipleRequest request = new RetrieveMultipleRequest(); request.Query = query; return (RetrieveMultipleResponse)crmService.Execute(request); I'd appreciate some advice on how to get the data I need.

    Read the article

  • Smoke testing a .NET web application

    - by pdr
    I cannot believe I'm the first person to go through this thought process, so I'm wondering if anyone can help me out with it. Current situation: developers write a web site, operations deploy it. Once deployed, a developer Smoke Tests it, to make sure the deployment went smoothly. To me this feels wrong, it essentially means it takes two people to deploy an application; in our case those two people are on opposite sides of the planet and timezones come into play, causing havoc. But the fact remains that developers know what the minimum set of tests is and that may change over time (particularly for the web service portion of our app). Operations, with all due respect to them (and they would say this themselves), are button-pushers who need a set of instructions to follow. The manual solution is that we document the test cases and operations follow that document each time they deploy. That sounds painful, plus they may be deploying different versions to different environments (specifically UAT and Production) and may need a different set of instructions for each. On top of this, one of our near-future plans is to have an automated daily deploy environment, so then we'll have to instruct a computer as to how to deploy a given version of our app. I would dearly like to add to that instructions for how to smoke test the app. Now developers are better at documenting instructions for computers than they are for people, so the obvious solution seems to be to use a combination of nUnit (I know these aren't unit tests per se, but it is a built-for-purpose test runner) and either the Watin or Selenium APIs to run through the obvious browser steps and call to the web service and explain to the Operations guys how to run those unit tests. I can do that; I have mostly done it already. But wouldn't it be nice if I could make that process simpler still? At this point, the Operations guys and the computer are going to have to know which set of tests relate to which version of the app and tell the nUnit runner which base URL it should point to (say, www.example.com = v3.2 or test.example.com = v3.3). Wouldn't it be nicer if the test runner itself had a way of giving it a base URL and letting it download say a zip file, unpack it and edit a configuration file automatically before running any test fixtures it found in there? Is there an open source app that would do that? Is there a need for one? Is there a solution using something other than nUnit, maybe Fitnesse? For the record, I'm looking at .NET-based tools first because most of the developers are primarily .NET developers, but we're not married to it. If such a tool exists using other languages to write the tests, we'll happily adapt, as long as there is a test runner that works on Windows.

    Read the article

  • Google App Engine with local Django 1.1 gets Intermittent Failures

    - by Jon Watte
    I'm using the Windows Launcher development environment for Google App Engine. I have downloaded Django 1.1.2 source, and un-tarrred the "django" subdirectory to live within my application directory (a peer of app.yaml) At the top of each .py source file, I do this: import settings import os os.environ["DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE"] = 'settings' In my file settings.py (which lives at the root of the app directory, as well), I do this: DEBUG = True TEMPLATE_DIRS = ('html') INSTALLED_APPS = ('filters') import os os.environ["DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE"] = 'settings' from google.appengine.dist import use_library use_library('django', '1.1') from django.template import loader Yes, this looks a bit like overkill, doesn't it? I only use django.template. I don't explicitly use any other part of django. However, intermittently I get one of two errors: 1) Django complains that DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE is not defined. 2) Django complains that common.html (a template I'm extending in other templates) doesn't exist. 95% of the time, these errors are not encountered, and they randomly just start happening. Once in that state, the local server seems "wedged" and re-booting it generally fixes it. What's causing this to happen, and what can I do about it? How can I even debug it? Here is the traceback from the error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\code\kwbudget\edit_budget.py", line 34, in get self.response.out.write(t.render(template.Context(values))) File "C:\code\kwbudget\django\template\__init__.py", line 165, in render return self.nodelist.render(context) File "C:\code\kwbudget\django\template\__init__.py", line 784, in render bits.append(self.render_node(node, context)) File "C:\code\kwbudget\django\template\__init__.py", line 797, in render_node return node.render(context) File "C:\code\kwbudget\django\template\loader_tags.py", line 71, in render compiled_parent = self.get_parent(context) File "C:\code\kwbudget\django\template\loader_tags.py", line 66, in get_parent raise TemplateSyntaxError, "Template %r cannot be extended, because it doesn't exist" % parent TemplateSyntaxError: Template u'common.html' cannot be extended, because it doesn't exist And edit_budget.py starts with exactly the lines that I included up top. All templates live in a directory named "html" in my root directory, and "html/common.html" exists. I know the template engine finds them, because I start out with "html/edit_budget.html" which extends common.html. It looks as if the settings module somehow isn't applied (because that's what adds html to the search path for templates).

    Read the article

  • How can I refactor this JavaScript code to avoid making functions in a loop?

    - by Bungle
    I wrote the following code for a project that I'm working on: var clicky_tracking = [ ['related-searches', 'Related Searches'], ['related-stories', 'Related Stories'], ['more-videos', 'More Videos'], ['web-headlines', 'Publication'] ]; for (var x = 0, length_x = clicky_tracking.length; x < length_x; x++) { links = document.getElementById(clicky_tracking[x][0]) .getElementsByTagName('a'); for (var y = 0, length_y = links.length; y < length_y; y++) { links[y].onclick = (function(name, url) { return function() { clicky.log(url, name, 'outbound'); }; }(clicky_tracking[x][1], links[y].href)); } } What I'm trying to do is: define a two-dimensional array, with each instance the inner arrays containing two elements: an id attribute value (e.g., "related-searches") and a corresponding description (e.g., "Related Searches"); for each of the inner arrays, find the element in the document with the corresponding id attribute, and then gather a collection of all <a> elements (hyperlinks) within it; loop through that collection and attach an onclick handler to each hyperlink, which should call clicky.log, passing in as parameters the description that corresponds to the id (e.g., "Related Searches" for the id "related-searches") and the value of the href attribute for the <a> element that was clicked. Hopefully that wasn't thoroughly confusing! The code may be more self-explanatory than that. I believe that what I've implemented here is a closure, but JSLint complains: http://img.skitch.com/20100526-k1trfr6tpj64iamm8r4jf5rbru.png So, my questions are: How can I refactor this code to make JSLint agreeable? Or, better yet, is there a best-practices way to do this that I'm missing, regardless of what JSLint thinks? Should I rely on event delegation instead? That is, attaching onclick event handlers to the document elements with the id attributes in my arrays, and then looking at event.target? I've done that once before and understand the theory, but I'm very hazy on the details, and would appreciate some guidance on what that would look like - assuming this is a viable approach. Thanks very much for any help!

    Read the article

  • jquery masonry on ul with nested ul

    - by Adam Wright
    I'm trying to create a footer nav of a sitemap with levels nested within each other. i want to use masonry so the padding and margin is consistant and not changed depending on nested items. its firing masonry but its adding the relative style to the nested ul if i change the masonry call to select just the first() ul then nested li appear on one line. any ideas? <div id="links"> <ul ><li class="box"><a href="/Industries.aspx" >Industries</a></li><li class="box"><a href="/Services.aspx" >Services</a></li><li class="box"><a href="/Quality---Regulatory.aspx" >Quality &amp; Regulatory</a></li><li class="box"><a href="/About.aspx" >About</a><ul ><li class="box"><a href="/About/Our-Story.aspx" >Our Story</a></li><li class="box"><a href="/About/Our-Mission.aspx" >Our Mission</a></li><li class="box"><a href="/About/Our-Core-Values.aspx" >Our Core Values</a></li></ul></li><li class="box"><a href="/News.aspx" >News</a><ul ><li class="box"><a href="/News/Events.aspx" >Events</a></li></ul></li><li class="box"><a href="/Careers.aspx" >Careers</a></li><li class="box"><a href="/Contact.aspx" >Contact</a></li><li class="box"><a href="/tests.aspx" >tests</a></li></ul> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $('#links ul').masonry({ singleMode: true, // Disables measuring the width of each floated element. // Set to true if floated elements have the same width. // default: false columnWidth: 182, // Width in pixels of 1 column of your grid. // default: outer width of the first floated element. itemSelector: '.box:visible', // Additional selector to specify which elements inside // the wrapping element will be rearranged. // Required for Infinite Scroll with window resizing. resizeable: true, // Binds a Masonry call to window resizes // so layout appears fluid. // default: true animate: false, // Animates layout rearrangements. // default: false saveOptions: true // Masonry will use the options from previous Masonry // calls by default, so you only have to enter in options once // default: true }); </script>

    Read the article

  • HTML5 <audio> Safari live broadcast vs not

    - by Peter Parente
    I'm attempting to embed an HTML5 audio element pointing to MP3 or OGG data served by a PHP file . When I view the page in Safari, the controls appear, but the UI says "Live Broadcast." When I click play, the audio starts as expected. Once it ends, however, I can't start it playing again by clicking play. Even using the JS API on the audio element and setting currentTime to 0 fails with an index error exception. I suspected the headers from the PHP script were the problem, particularly missing a content length. But that's not the case. The response headers include a proper Content- Length to indicate the audio has finite size. Furthermore, everything works as expected in Firefox 3.5+. I can click play on the audio element multiple times to hear the sound replay. If I remove the PHP script from the equation and serve up a static copy of the MP3 file, everything works fine in Safari. Does this mean Safari is treating audio src URLs with query parameters differently than URLs that don't have them? Anyone have any luck getting this to work? My simple example page is: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head></head> <body> <audio controls autobuffer> <source src="say.php?text=this%20is%20a%20test&format=.ogg" /> <source src="say.php?text=this%20is%20a%20test&format=.mp3" /> </audio> </body> </html> HTTP Headers from PHP script: HTTP/1.x 200 OK Date: Sun, 03 Jan 2010 15:39:34 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.10 Content-Length: 8993 Keep-Alive: timeout=2, max=98 Connection: Keep-Alive Content-Type: audio/mpeg HTTP Headers from direct file access: HTTP/1.x 200 OK Date: Sun, 03 Jan 2010 20:06:59 GMT Server: Apache Last-Modified: Sun, 03 Jan 2010 03:20:02 GMT Etag: "a404b-c3f-47c3a14937c80" Accept-Ranges: bytes Content-Length: 8993 Keep-Alive: timeout=2, max=100 Connection: Keep-Alive Content-Type: audio/mpeg I tried hard-coding the Accept-Ranges header into the script too, but no luck.

    Read the article

  • Google Map key in Android?

    - by Amandeep singh
    I am developing an android app in which i have to show map view i have done it once in a previous app but the key i used in the previous is not working int his app . It is just showing a pin in the application with blank screen. Do i have to use a different Map key for each project , If not Kindly help me how can i use my previous Key in this. and also I tried generating a new key but gave the the same key back . Here is the code i used public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.map); btn=(Button)findViewById(R.id.mapbtn); str1=getIntent().getStringExtra("LATITUDE"); str2=getIntent().getStringExtra("LONGITUDE"); mapView = (MapView)findViewById(R.id.mapView1); //View zoomView = mapView.getZoomControls(); mapView.setBuiltInZoomControls(true); //mapView.setSatellite(true); mc = mapView.getController(); btn.setOnClickListener(this); MapOverlay mapOverlay = new MapOverlay(); List<Overlay> listOfOverlays = mapView.getOverlays(); listOfOverlays.clear(); listOfOverlays.add(mapOverlay); String coordinates[] = {str1, str2}; double lat = Double.parseDouble(coordinates[0]); double lng = Double.parseDouble(coordinates[1]); p = new GeoPoint( (int) (lat * 1E6), (int) (lng * 1E6)); mc.animateTo(p); mc.setZoom(17); mapView.invalidate(); //mp.equals(o); } @Override protected boolean isRouteDisplayed() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return false; } class MapOverlay extends com.google.android.maps.Overlay { @Override public boolean draw(Canvas canvas, MapView mapView, boolean shadow, long when) { super.draw(canvas, mapView, shadow); Paint mPaint = new Paint(); mPaint.setDither(true); mPaint.setColor(Color.RED); mPaint.setStyle(Paint.Style.FILL_AND_STROKE); mPaint.setStrokeJoin(Paint.Join.ROUND); mPaint.setStrokeCap(Paint.Cap.ROUND); mPaint.setStrokeWidth(2); //---translate the GeoPoint to screen pixels--- Point screenPts = new Point(); mapView.getProjection().toPixels(p, screenPts); //---add the marker--- Bitmap bmp = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(getResources(), R.drawable.pin); canvas.drawBitmap(bmp, screenPts.x, screenPts.y-50, null); return true; } Thanks....

    Read the article

  • C++: Templates for static functions?

    - by Rosarch
    I have a static Utils class. I want certain methods to be templated, but not the entire class. How do I do this? This fails: #pragma once #include <string> using std::string; class Utils { private: template<class InputIterator, class Predicate> static set<char> findAll_if_rec(InputIterator begin, InputIterator end, Predicate pred, set<char> result); public: static void PrintLine(const string& line, int tabLevel = 0); static string getTabs(int tabLevel); template<class InputIterator, class Predicate> static set<char> Utils::findAll_if(InputIterator begin, InputIterator end, Predicate pred); }; Error: utils.h(10): error C2143: syntax error : missing ';' before '<' utils.h(10): error C4430: missing type specifier - int assumed. Note: C++ does not support default-int utils.h(10): error C4430: missing type specifier - int assumed. Note: C++ does not support default-int utils.h(10): error C2238: unexpected token(s) preceding ';' utils.h(10): error C2988: unrecognizable template declaration/definition utils.h(10): error C2059: syntax error : '<' What am I doing wrong? What is the correct syntax for this? Incidentally, I'd like to templatize the return value, too. So instead of: template<class InputIterator, class Predicate> static set<char> findAll_if_rec(InputIterator begin, InputIterator end, Predicate pred, set<char> result); I'd have: template<class return_t, class InputIterator, class Predicate> static return_t findAll_if_rec(InputIterator begin, InputIterator end, Predicate pred, set<char> result); How would I specify that: 1) return_t must be a set of some sort 2) InputIterator must be an iterator 3) InputIterator's type must work with return_t's type. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Generating custom-form documents from base-form plus XML?

    - by KlaymenDK
    Hi all, this is my first stack overflow, and it's a complex one. Sorry. My task is to generate custom documents from a basic template plus some XML without having a custom form design element for each case. Here's the whole picture: We are building a Lotus Notes (client, not web) application for world-wide application access control; the scope is something like 400.000 users being able to request access to any of 1000+ applications. Each application needs its own request form -- different number of approvers, various info required, that sort of thing. We simply can't have a thousand forms in a database (one per application), and anyway their maintenance really needs to be pushed from the developers to the application owners. So instead of custom forms, we'd like to create a generic "template" form that stores a block of basic fields, but then allows application owners to define another block of fields dynamically -- "I want a mandatory plain-text field named 'Name' here, and then a date field named 'Due' here that must be later than today's date, and then ...". I hope this makes sense (if not, think of it as a generic questionnaire application). I pretty much have the structure in place for designing the dynamic fields (form builder GUI - XML-encoded data - pre-rendered DXL for injecting into a form), including mark-up for field types, value options, and rudimentary field validation instructions. My problem is generating a document with this dynamic content injected at the proper location (without needing a custom form design element for each case). Doing the dynamic content via HTML is out. The Notes client web rendering is simply way too poor, and it would be quite a challenge to implement things like field validation instructions, date selectors, and name look-ups. DXL, on the other hand, would allow us to use native Notes fields and code. As a tech demo, I've managed to implement a custom form generator that injects the pre-rendered DXL for the dynamic content into a base form; but as I said, we don't want a ton of custom form design elements. I've tried to implement a way to create a document with the "store form in document" flag set, but once I've created the document from the base form, I can't get DXL access to the stored form design, and so I can't inject my dynamic content. I know this is not something Notes was ever intended to do. Has anyone ever tried something like it (and gotten away with it)? Thanks for reading this far. With a boatload of thanks in advance, Jan Gundtofte-Bruun

    Read the article

  • jQuery tablesorter - loss of functionality after AJAX call

    - by Nick
    I have recently been experimenting with the tablesorter plugin for jQuery. I have successfully got it up and running in once instance, and am very impressed. However, I have tried to apply the tablesorter to a different table, only to encounter some difficulties... Basically the table causing a problem has a <ul> above it which acts as a set of tabs for the table. so if you click one of these tabs, an AJAX call is made and the table is repopulated with the rows relevant to the specific tab clicked. When the page initially loads (i.e. before a tab has been clicked) the tablesorter functionality works exactly as expected. But when a tab is clicked and the table repopulated, the functionality disappears, rendering it without the sortable feature. Even if you go back to the original tab, after clicking another, the functionality does not return - the only way to do so is a physical refresh of the page in the browser. I have seen a solution which seems similar to my problem on this site, and someone recommends using the jQuery plugin, livequery. I have tried this but to no avail :-( If someone has any suggestions I would be most appreciative. I can post code snippets if it would help (though I know the instantiation code for tablesorter is fine as it works on tables with no tabs - so it's definitely not that!) EDIT: As requested, here are some code snippets: The table being sorted is <table id="#sortableTable#">..</table>, the instantiation code for tablesorter I am using is: $(document).ready(function() { $("#sortableTable").tablesorter( { headers: //disable any headers not worthy of sorting! { 0: { sorter: false }, 5: { sorter: false } }, sortMultiSortKey: 'ctrlKey', debug:true, widgets: ['zebra'] }); }); And I tried to rig up livequery as follows: $("#sortableTable").livequery(function(){ $(this).tablesorter(); }); This has not helped though... I am not sure whether I should use the id of the table with livequery as it is the click on the <ul> I should be responding to, which is of course not part of the table itself. I have tried a number of variations in the hope that one of them will help, but to no avail :-(

    Read the article

  • Bad_alloc exception when using new for a struct c++

    - by bsg
    Hi, I am writing a query processor which allocates large amounts of memory and tries to find matching documents. Whenever I find a match, I create a structure to hold two variables describing the document and add it to a priority queue. Since there is no way of knowing how many times I will do this, I tried creating my structs dynamically using new. When I pop a struct off the priority queue, the queue (STL priority queue implementation) is supposed to call the object's destructor. My struct code has no destructor, so I assume a default destructor is called in that case. However, the very first time that I try to create a DOC struct, I get the following error: Unhandled exception at 0x7c812afb in QueryProcessor.exe: Microsoft C++ exception: std::bad_alloc at memory location 0x0012f5dc.. I don't understand what's happening - have I used up so much memory that the heap is full? It doesn't seem likely. And it's not as if I've even used that pointer before. So: first of all, what am I doing that's causing the error, and secondly, will the following code work more than once? Do I need to have a separate pointer for each struct created, or can I re-use the same temporary pointer and assume that the queue will keep a pointer to each struct? Here is my code: struct DOC{ int docid; double rank; public: DOC() { docid = 0; rank = 0.0; } DOC(int num, double ranking) { docid = num; rank = ranking; } bool operator>( const DOC & d ) const { return rank > d.rank; } bool operator<( const DOC & d ) const { return rank < d.rank; } }; //a lot of processing goes on here; when a matching document is found, I do this: rank = calculateRanking(table, num); //if the heap is not full, create a DOC struct with the docid and rank and add it to the heap if(q.size() < 20) { doc = new DOC(num, rank); q.push(*doc); doc = NULL; } //if the heap is full, but the new rank is greater than the //smallest element in the min heap, remove the current smallest element //and add the new one to the heap else if(rank > q.top().rank) { q.pop(); cout << "pushing doc on to queue" << endl; doc = new DOC(num, rank); q.push(*doc); } Thank you very much, bsg.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC 4/Web API Single Page App for Mobile Devices ... Needs Authentication

    - by lmttag
    We have developed an ASP.NET MVC 4/Web API single page, mobile website (also using jQuery Mobile) that is intended to be accessed only from mobile devices (e.g., iPads, iPhones, Android tables and phones, etc.), not desktop browsers. This mobile website will be hosted internally, like an intranet site. However, since we’re accessing it from mobile devices, we can’t use Windows authentication. We still need to know which user (and their role) is logging in to the mobile website app. We tried simply using ASP.NET’s forms authentication and membership provider, but couldn’t get it working exactly the way we wanted. What we need is for the user to be prompted for a user name and password only on the first time they access the site on their mobile device. After they enter a correct user name and password and have been authenticated once, each subsequent time they access the site they should just go right in. They shouldn’t have to re-enter their credentials (i.e., something needs to be saved locally to each device to identify the user after the first time). This is where we had troubles. Everything worked as expected the first time. That is, the user was prompted to enter a user name and password, and, after doing that, was authenticated and allowed into the site. The problem is every time after the browser was closed on the mobile device, the device and user were not know and the user had to re-enter user name and password. We tried lots of things too. We tried setting persistent cookies in JavaScript. No good. The cookies weren’t there to be read the second time. We tried manually setting persistent cookies from ASP.NET. No good. We, of course, used FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(model.UserName, true); as part of the form authentication framework. No good. We tried using HTML5 local storage. No good. No matter what we tried, if the user was on a mobile device, they would have to log in every single time. (Note: we’ve tried on an iPad and iPhone running both iOS 5.1 and 6.0, with Safari configure to allow cookies, and we’ve tried on Android 2.3.4.) Is there some trick to getting a scenario like this working? Or, do we have to write some sort of custom authentication mechanism? If so, how? And, what? Or, should we use something like claims-based authentication and WIF? Or??? Any help is appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 797 798 799 800 801 802 803 804 805 806 807 808  | Next Page >