Search Results

Search found 39207 results on 1569 pages for 'foreign function interfac'.

Page 803/1569 | < Previous Page | 799 800 801 802 803 804 805 806 807 808 809 810  | Next Page >

  • Why does this extension method throw a NullReferenceException in VB.NET?

    - by Dan
    From previous experience I had been under the impression that it's perfectly legal (though perhaps not advisable) to call extension methods on a null instance. So in C#, this code compiles and runs: // code in static class static bool IsNull(this object obj) { return obj == null; } // code elsewhere object x = null; bool exists = !x.IsNull(); However, I was just putting together a little suite of example code for the other members of my development team (we just upgraded to .NET 3.5 and I've been assigned the task of getting the team up to speed on some of the new features available to us), and I wrote what I thought was the VB.NET equivalent of the above code, only to discover that it actually throws a NullReferenceException. The code I wrote was this: ' code in module ' <Extension()> _ Function IsNull(ByVal obj As Object) As Boolean Return obj Is Nothing End Function ' code elsewhere ' Dim exampleObject As Object = Nothing Dim exists As Boolean = Not exampleObject.IsNull() The debugger stops right there, as if I'd called an instance method. Am I doing something wrong (e.g., is there some subtle difference in the way I defined the extension method between C# and VB.NET)? Is it actually not legal to call an extension method on a null instance in VB.NET, though it's legal in C#? (I would have thought this was a .NET thing as opposed to a language-specific thing, but perhaps I was wrong.) Can anybody explain this one to me?

    Read the article

  • why doesn't IE8 refresh textbox right away?(Jquery)

    - by AndrewSmith
    I have 3 radio buttons and one textbox in my page. These 3 radio controls represent corresponding choice and among them, the third one enables textbox that is disabled by default. If user clicks any one from the first twos after clicking the third, the textbox will be emptied(if user input any) and disabled again. The problem is, in IE, the textbox isn't emptied not until I click back once again on the said textbox. I've used jquery val methods as well as attr but nothing seems to work. You can see my code as follows. The very same code works just fine in Mozilla. I'm not sure why IE is having problem. m.bind_eventform = function(){ $('input[name=poster]').change(function(){ if($('input[name=poster]:checked').val()==2) $('#poster_other').removeAttr('disabled'); else if(!($('#poster_other').is(':disabled'))) { $('#poster_other').attr('disabled','disabled'); $('#poster_other').attr('value',''); //this one doesn't work $('#poster_other').val(''); //as well as this one } }); }; $(document).ready(m.bind_eventform);

    Read the article

  • window.open on load page (asp.net) using Method=POST

    - by Raul
    i need open pop up in asp.net using post Method and window.open to rezise te new windows. my code: ---- open the pop up --- function mdpbch(URL) { child = window.open(URL, "passwd","dependent=1,toolbar=0,location=0,directories=0,status=0,menubar=0,scrollbars=1,resizable=1,width=600,height=475"); child.location.href = URL; if (child.opener == null) { child.opener = window; } child.opener.name = "opener"; } -------- URL --- function PagoEnLinea(Banco) { switch(x){ case "BCH": document.frmEnvia.action = SERV + "/llamacom.asp"; url = SERV + "lamacom.asp alert(url); mdpbch(url); document.frmEnvia.submit(); break; } } -------ASPX-------------------- <body> <form id="frmEnvia" runat="server" name="formulario" method="post" target="_blank"> <div style="visibility:hidden;"> <asp:TextBox ID="txtXml" runat="server" Visible="true"></asp:TextBox> </div> ..... </body> on page load (code behind) i create a xml string and put it in the textbox txtXml. i need use post method becose the server validate te method, and window.open becose need customize the pop up thanks

    Read the article

  • How to create an instance of object with RTTI in Delphi 2010?

    - by Paul
    As we all known, when we call a constructor of a class like this: instance := TSomeClass.Create; The Delphi compiler actually do the following things: Call the static NewInstance method to allocate memory and initialize the memory layout. Call the constructor method to perform the initialization of the class Call the AfterConstruction method It's simple and easy to understand. but I'm not very sure how the compiler handle exceptions in the second and the third step. It seems there are no explicit way to create an instance using a RTTI constructor method in D2010. so I wrote a simple function in the Spring Framework for Delphi to reproduce the process of the creation. class function TActivator.CreateInstance(instanceType: TRttiInstanceType; constructorMethod: TRttiMethod; const arguments: array of TValue): TObject; var classType: TClass; begin TArgument.CheckNotNull(instanceType, 'instanceType'); TArgument.CheckNotNull(constructorMethod, 'constructorMethod'); classType := instanceType.MetaclassType; Result := classType.NewInstance; try constructorMethod.Invoke(Result, arguments); except on Exception do begin if Result is TInterfacedObject then begin Dec(TInterfacedObjectHack(Result).FRefCount); end; Result.Free; raise; end; end; try Result.AfterConstruction; except on Exception do begin Result.Free; raise; end; end; end; I feel it maybe not 100% right. so please show me the way. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • ActionScript : Applying frame to a image / background?

    - by Jay
    I am editing a custom calendar application in flash. The purpose of this app is to let you select your own images, and create a calendar out of it. You can basically, drag and drop images of your choice and they apply frame/borders, or drag and drop embellishments. Here is the piece of code that draws a border/frame on the embellishment/image of your choice. tempListener.onLoadInit = function(target_mc:MovieClip) { var mcName = target_mc._name.substring(0, target_mc._name.indexOf("@", 0)); if(mcName == "frame_Image") { target_mc.onPress = function() { if(_root.selectedImage != null) { var index = this._name.substring(this._name.indexOf("@",0)+1, this._name.length); var objPath = nodesFrames.childNodes[index-1].attributes.image; if(_root.selectedImage._name.split("@")[0] == "image") { var mask = _root.selectedImage[_root.selectedImage._parent._name + "_" + _root.selectedImage._name + "_maskMc"]; frameImageWidth = mask._width; frameImageHeight = mask._height; frameImageXScale = -1; frameImageYScale = -1; } else { frameImageXScale = _root.selectedImage._xscale; frameImageYScale = _root.selectedImage._yscale; _root.selectedImage._xscale = 100; _root.selectedImage._yscale = 100; frameImageWidth = _root.selectedImage._width; frameImageHeight = _root.selectedImage._height; } if(_root.selectedImage["frame"]) {} else { _root.selectedImage.createEmptyMovieClip("frame", _root.selectedImage.getNextHighestDepth()); } var image_mcl1:MovieClipLoader = new MovieClipLoader(); image_mcl1.addListener(_root.mclFrameListener); image_mcl1.loadClip("Images/" + objPath, _root.selectedImage["frame"]); } } } I need to somehow apply the chosen frame image, to the entire background - not just to the embellishment or image. How do I go about this? Thanks in advance for your inputs. Please let me know if the question doesn't make sense, I will attach some images that can help you with the context.

    Read the article

  • jquery change event not working with IE6

    - by manivineet
    It is indeed quite unfortunate that my client still uses IE6. using jquery 1.4.2 The problem is that I open a window using a click event and do some edit operation in the new window. I have a 'change' event attached to the row of a table which has input fields. Now when the window loads for the first time and I make a change in the input for the FIRST time, the change event does not fire. however, on a second try it starts working. I have noticed that I e.g. I run a dummy page, i.e. create a new page(i work with visual studio) and run that page individually , the 'change' event works just fine. what it going on? and what can i do, besides going back to 1.3.2 (by the way that doesn't work either, but haven't fully tested it yet) <!--HTML--> <table id="tbReadData"> <tr class="nenDataRow" id="nenDr2"> <td> <input type="text" class="nenMeterRegister" value="1234" /> </td> <tr /> <table> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#tbReadData').find('tr').change(function() { alert('this works'); } }); </script>

    Read the article

  • POSTmethod and PHP- login verification

    - by Neethusha
    I wrote a code for login verification..I got output with GET. But i need output with POST since it is more secure.pls let me know if there is any error in my code. javascript code: var xml; function verifyusernamepasswd(pass) { //pass is password that will be passed as parameter xml=new XMLHttpRequest(); var url="http://localhost/loginvalidate.php"; var para="q="+username+"&p="+pass;//username is global xml.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xml.setRequestHeader("Content-length", para.length); xml.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xml.open("POST",url,true); xml.onreadystatechange=statechanged1; xml.send(para); } function statechanged1() { if(xml.readyState==4) alert(xml.responseText); } php code: <?php $username=$_POST["q"]; $password=$_POST["p"]; $con=mysql_connect("localhost","root","blaze"); if(!$con) { die('Could not connect: '.mysql.error()); } mysql_select_db("BLAZE",$con) or die("No such Db"); $result=mysql_query("SELECT Passwword FROM USERTABLE WHERE Userhandle='$username'"); if($result==null) echo "false"; else if($result!=null) { $row=mysql_fetch_array($result); if((strcmp($row['Passwword'],$password)==0)) echo "true"; else echo "false"; } ?> the verification does not return anything, cos my alert is not displayed at all...pls tell me whats wrong....

    Read the article

  • Graceful DOS Command Error-Handling

    - by Captain Obvious
    PHP 5.2.13 on Windows 2003 I am using the DOS Start /B command to launch a background application using the PHP popen() function: popen("start /B {$_SERVER['HOMEPATH']}/{$app}.exe > {$_SERVER['HOMEPATH']}/bg_output.log 2>&1 & echo $!", 'r'); The popen() function launches a cmd.exe process that runs the specified command; however, if the command fails (e.g. the {$app}.exe doesn't exist or is locked in the above example), the cmd.exe process never returns, and PHP hangs indefinitely as a result. Calling the failing DOS command directly using the Command Prompt results in an Error prompt that requires clicking the OK button. I assume this error confirmation requirement is what's preventing the cmd.exe process from returning to PHP both from the Command Prompt (using both CGI and CLI) and the web (using Apache 2.0 handler w/Apache 2.2). Is there a way to write the DOS command or configure the server or cmd.exe app itself to return the DOS error to the originating call rather than waiting for confirmation?

    Read the article

  • Using an ORM with a database that has no defined relationships?

    - by Ahmad
    Consider a database(MSSQL 2005) that consists of 100+ tables which have primary keys defined to a certain degree. There are 'relationships' between tables, however these are not enforced with foreign key constraints. Consider the following simplified example of typical types of tables I am dealing with. The are clear relations between the User and City and Province tables. However, they key issues is the inconsistent data types in the tables and naming conventions. User: UserRowId [int] PK Name [varchar(50)] CityId [smallint] ProvinceRowId [bigint] City: CityRowId [bigint] PK CityDescription [varchar(100)] Province: ProvinceId [int] PK ProvinceDesc [varchar(50)] I am considering a rewrite of the application (in ASP.net MVC) that uses this data source as is similar in design to MVC storefront. However I am going through a proof of concept phase and this is one of the stumbling blocks I have come across. What are my options in terms of ORM choice that can be easily used and why? Should I even be considering an ORM? (The reason I ask this is that most explanations and tutorials all work with relatively cleanly designed existing databases, or newly created ones when compared to mine. I am thus having a very hard time trying to find a way forward with this problem) There is a huge amount of existing SQL queries, would a datamappper(eg IBatis.net) be more suitable since we could easily modify them to work and reuse the investment already made? I have found this question on SO which indicates to me that an ORM can be used - however I get the impression that this a question of mapping? Note: at the moment, the object model is not clearly defined as it was non-existent. The existing system pretty much did almost everything in SQL or consisted of overly complicated, and numerous queries to complete fucntionality. I am pretty much a noob and have zero experience around ORMs and MVC - so this an awesome learning curve I am on.

    Read the article

  • ExtJs Grid in TabPanel auto Fit issue.

    - by Jinah Adam
    Hi, I am having problems redering an grid in a a tab panel (Its made with Ext Designer.). the hierarchy is as follows , Viewport. - tabPanel - Panel - Container - Grid. This is how its displayed now Here is the code for viewport mainWindowUi = Ext.extend(Ext.Viewport, { layout: 'border', id: 'mainWindow', initComponent: function() { this.items = [ { xtype: 'panel', title: 'Navigation', region: 'west', width: 200, frame: true, split: true, titleCollapse: true, collapsible: true, id: 'navigation', items: [ { flex: 1, xtype: 'mytreepanel' } ] }, { xtype: 'tabpanel', layoutOnTabChange: true, resizeTabs: true, defaults: { layout: 'fit', autoScroll: true }, region: 'center', tpl: '', id: 'mainTabPanel', layoutConfig: { deferredRender: true } } ]; mainWindowUi.superclass.initComponent.call(this); } }); here is the code to create the tab.. (created from a nav panel programmatically) var currentTab = tabPanel.findById(node.id); // If not yet created, create the tab if (!currentTab){ currentTab = tabPanel.add({ title:node.id, id:node.id, closable:true, items:[{ xtype: 'phasePanel', layout: 'fit', autoscroll: true, }], autoScroll:true, }); } // Activate tab tabPanel.setActiveTab(currentTab); here is the code for the panel/container/grid PhasePanelUi = Ext.extend(Ext.Panel, { frame: true, layout: 'anchor', autoScroll: true, autoWidth: true, defaults: '', initComponent: function() { this.items = [ { xtype: 'container', autoScroll: true, layout: 'fit', defaults: { layout: 'fit', autoScroll: true }, id: 'gridHolder', items: [ { xtype: 'grid', title: 'Current Phases', store: 'PhaseStore', autoDestroy: false, viewConfig: '', deferRowRender: false, autoLoad: '', ref: '../phaseGrid', id: 'phaseGrid', columns: [ { xtype: 'gridcolumn', header: 'Name', dataIndex: 'name', sortable: true, width: 200 }, { xtype: 'gridcolumn', header: 'Estate', dataIndex: 'estate_name', sortable: true, width: 500 } ] } ] } ]; PhasePanelUi.superclass.initComponent.call(this); } }); i have tried all sorts of combinations. but just cant get the grid to render correctly any sort of assistance will be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to get associated URLRequest from Event.COMPLETE fired by URLLoader

    - by matt lohkamp
    So let's say we want to load some XML - var xmlURL:String = 'content.xml'; var xmlURLRequest:URLRequest = new URLRequest(xmlURL); var xmlURLLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(xmlURLRequest); xmlURLLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, function(e:Event):void{ trace('loaded',xmlURL); trace(XML(e.target.data)); }); If we need to know the source URL for that particular XML doc, we've got that variable to tell us, right? Now let's imagine that the xmlURL variable isn't around to help us - maybe we want to load 3 XML docs, named in sequence, and we want to use throwaway variables inside of a for-loop: for(var i:uint = 3; i > 0; i--){ var xmlURLLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(new URLRequest('content'+i+'.xml')); xmlURLLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, function(e:Event):void{ trace(e.target.src); // I wish this worked... trace(XML(e.target.data)); }); } Suddenly it's not so easy, right? I hate that you can't just say e.target.src or whatever - is there a good way to associate URLLoaders with the URL they loaded data from? Am I missing something? It feels unintuitive to me.

    Read the article

  • How to check if two records have a self-referencing relation?

    - by Machine
    Consider the following schema with users and their collegues (friends): Users User: columns: user_id: name: user_id as userId type: integer(8) unsigned: 1 primary: true autoincrement: true first_name: name: first_name as firstName type: string(45) notnull: true last_name: name: last_name as lastName type: string(45) notnull: true email: type: string(45) notnull: true unique: true relations: Collegues: class: User local: invitor foreign: invitee refClass: CollegueStatus equal: true onDelete: CASCADE onUpdate: CASCADE Join table: CollegueStatus: columns: invitor: type: integer(8) unsigned: 1 primary: true invitee: type: integer(8) unsigned: 1 primary: true status: type: enum(8) values: [pending, accepted, denied] default: pending notnull: true Now, let's say I two records, one for the user making a HTTP request (the logged in user), and one record for a user he wants to send a message to. I want to check if these users are collegues. Questions: Does Doctrine have any pre-build functionality to check if two records with with self-relations are related? If not, how would you write a method to check this? Where would you put said method? (In the User-class, UserTable-class etc) I could probably do something like this: public function (User $user1, User $user2) { // Ensure we load collegues if $user1 was fetched with DQL that // doesn't load this relation $collegues = $user1->get('Collegues'); $areCollegues = false; foreach($collegues as $collegue) { if($collegue['userId'] === $user2['userId']) { $areCollegues = true; break; } } return $areCollegues; } But this looks a neither efficient nor pretty. I just feel that it should be solved already for self-referencing relations to be nice to use.

    Read the article

  • Zend_Controller_Router_Route: Could not find a translator

    - by Antonio
    I am developing a multilanguage application. In the bootstrap there is the routes setup: protected function _initRoutes() { $this->bootstrap('frontController'); $router = $this->frontController->getRouter(); // PAGES ROUTE $page = new Zend_Controller_Router_Route( ':language/:ident', array( 'module' => 'core', 'controller' => 'pagine', 'action' => 'view' ), array( 'ident' => '[a-zA-Z-_0-9]{3,}', 'language' => '[a-z]{2}' ) ); $registrazione = new Zend_Controller_Router_Route( ':language/@utenti/@registrati', array( 'module' => 'core', 'controller' => 'utenti', 'action' => 'registrazione' ), array( 'language' => '[a-z]{2}' ) ); $router->addRoute('page', $page); $router->addRoute('registrazione', $registrazione); ..... } I cannot set the default translator to Zend_Controller_Router_Route (for translated segments) because i don't know the language parameter in the request object. I get the language parameter in Multilanguage Plugin during the "routeShutdown": class Activa_Controller_Plugin_Multilanguage extends Zend_Controller_Plugin_Abstract { public function routeShutdown(Zend_Controller_Request_Abstract $request) { $language = $request->getParam("language"); $locale = new Zend_Locale($language); $translate = new Zend_Translate('array', APPLICATION_PATH.'/config/lang/'.$language.'.php', $locale); Zend_Registry::set('Zend_Locale', $locale); Zend_Registry::set('Zend_Translate', $translate); Zend_Controller_Router_Route::setDefaultTranslator($translate); //////////////////////// // BUT NOW IS TOO LATE //////////////////////// } When i type the address "http://servername/it/utenti/registrati" i get the exception with the message "Could not find a translator". How can i fix it? Antonio (Italy)

    Read the article

  • How to bind to another event after ajax call in jquery

    - by robert
    Hi, I'm creating a graph using flot javascript library. I have enabled clickable event and the div is binded to plotclick event. So, when a datapoint is clicked, an ajax call is made and the result is used to replace the current div. After this i need to bind the div to a new event. I tried to call bind, but it is still bound to old callback. When i call unbind and bind, the new callback is not called. var handleTeacherClick = function( event, pos, item ) { if( typeof item != "undefined" && item ) { var user_id = jQuery( 'input[name="id' + item.datapoint[0] + '"]' ).val(); jQuery.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: BASEPATH + 'index.php/ajax/home/latest', data: { "user_id": user_id }, dataType: 'json', success: function ( result ) { jQuery.plot(jQuery('#stats_prog'), result.progress_data, result.progress_options); jQuery.plot(jQuery('#stats_perf'), result.performance_data, result.performance_options); jQuery('.stats_title'). html('<span class="stats_title">'+ ' >> Chapter '+Math.ceil(item.datapoint[0])+'</span>'); jQuery('#stats_prog')./*unbind("plotclick").*/ bind('plotclick', statClickHandler ); jQuery('#stats_perf')./*unbind("plotclick"). */ bind( 'plotclick', statClickHandler ); }, }); } }

    Read the article

  • Process-to-port mapping with SNMP and/or wmi/wmic in java

    - by Niddy888
    I'm trying to use SNMP to map outgoing ports on my host computer with the application running on the computer that is responsible for that communication. When running "netstat -ano" I get access to Protocol, Local Address (with port), Foreign Address (with port), State and PID. But I want to do this entirely without having to execute "cmd" from Java. By using SNMP OID: .1.3.6.1.2.1.25.4 (.iso.org.dod.internet.mgmt.mib-2.host.hrSWRun) I get access to PID (ex. 1704), Name (ex. cmd.exe), Path (ex. C:\Windows\system32) among others. There is an SNMP OID: .1.3.6.1.2.1.6.13 (.iso.org.dod.internet.mgmt.mib-2.tcp.tcpConnTable) that give you access to TCP connection state, local address, local port, remote address, remote port. But NO PID. So to sum up. My question again: Is there a way to "map" these tables together? Either directly in SNMP with other OID's or in conjunction with WMI / WMIC?

    Read the article

  • asp.net jquery how to use Plugin/Validation with web content

    - by Eyla
    I have a asp.net web content from that have a asp.net textbox and I want to use Plugin/Validation but it is not working with me here is my code: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Master.Master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="WebForm1.aspx.cs" Inherits="IMAM_APPLICATION.WebForm1" %> <%@ Register assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" tagprefix="asp" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="head" runat="server"> <script src="js/jquery-1.4.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="js/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $.validator.addMethod("#<%=TextBox1.ClientID %>", function(value, element) { return this.optional(element) || /^(?=.*\d)(?=.*[a-z])(?=.*[A-Z]).{8,16}$/i.test(value); }, "Passwords are 8-16 characters with uppercase letters, lowercase letters and at least one number."); }); </script> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="server"> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder2" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> </asp:Content>

    Read the article

  • Bootstrap - Typehead on multiple inputs

    - by Clem
    I have two text intputs, both have to run an autocompletion. The site is using Bootstrap, and the « typeahead » component. I have this HTML : <input type="text" class="js_typeahead" data-role="artist" /> <input type="text" class="js_typeahead" data-role="location" /> I'm using the « data-role » attribute (that is sent to the Ajax controller as a $_POST index), in order to determine what kind of data has to be retrieved from the database. The Javascript goes this way : var myTypeahead = $('input.js_typeahead').typeahead({ source: function(query, process){ var data_role; data_role = myTypeahead.attr('data-role'); return $.post('/ajax/typeahead', { query:query,data_role:data_role },function(data){ return process(data.options); }); } }); With PHP, I check what $_POST['data-role'] contains, an run the MySQL query (in this case, a query either on a list of Artists, or a list of Locations). But the problem is the second "typeahead" returns the same values than the first one (list of Artists). I assume it's because the listener is attached to the object « myTypeahead », and this way the "data-role" attribute which is used, will always be the same. I think I could fix it by using something like : data_role = $(this).attr('data-role'); But of course this doesn't work, as it's a different scope. Maybe I'm doing it all wrong, but at least maybe you people could give me a hint. Sorry if this has already been discussed, I actually searched but without success. Thanks in advance, Clem (from France, sorry for my english)

    Read the article

  • World's Most Challening MySQL SQL Query (least I think so...)

    - by keruilin
    Whoever answers this question can claim credit for solving the world's most challenging SQL query, according to yours truly. Working with 3 tables: users, badges, awards. Relationships: user has many awards; award belongs to user; badge has many awards; award belongs to badge. So badge_id and user_id are foreign keys in the awards table. The business logic at work here is that every time a user wins a badge, he/she receives it as an award. A user can be awarded the same badge multiple times. Each badge is assigned a designated point value (point_value is a field in the badges table). For example, BadgeA can be worth 500 Points, BadgeB 1000 Points, and so on. As further example, let's say UserX won BadgeA 10 times and BadgeB 5 times. BadgeA being worth 500 Points, and BadgeB being worth 1000 Points, UserX has accumulated a total of 10,000 Points ((10 x 500) + (5 x 1000)). The end game here is to return a list of top 50 users who have accumulated the most badge points. Can you do it?

    Read the article

  • javascript, php, cookies

    - by kennedy
    When i declare mac = 123, my internet explorer and firefox will keep refresh non-stop. And if i declare mac = getMacAddress it returns a value 1... I'm able to do a document.write(getMacAddress()) and it would able to display the mac address nicely. 1) Why my explorer will keep refreshing non-stop when i code it manually with "123" 2) why is the document.write able to display out, and when i store it to the cookie, somehow it didnt mange to capture into the cookie and it return a value of "1". Anyone help? create_users.php <script language="JavaScript"> function getMacAddress(){ document.macaddressapplet.setSep( "-" ); return (document.macaddressapplet.getMacAddress()); } function setCookie(c_name,value) { document.cookie = c_name + "=" +escape(value); } //error checking //var mac = getMacAddress(); var mac = "123"; setCookie('cookie_name',mac); window.location = "checkAvailability.php"; </script> checkAvailability.php $javascript_cookie_value = isset($_COOKIE["cookie_name"]) ? $_COOKIE["cookie_name"] : 1; mysql_query("INSERT INTO test (mac) VALUES ('$javascript_cookie_value')");

    Read the article

  • Call ASP.NET 2.0 Server side code from Javascript

    - by Kannabiran
    I'm struggling with this for the past 3 days. I need to call asp.net serverside code from Javascript when the user closes the browser. I'm using the following code to accomplish this. In my asp.net form I have various validation controls. Even if there are some validation errors, When I close the form the server side code works perfectly in my development box(windows 7). But the same code doesnt work in my production environment(windows server). Does it have something to do with the Validation summary or Validation controls. The button control has Causes validation set to false. So even if there is a validation error still my form will post back. Am I correct? I suspect the form is not getting post back to the server when there is a validation error. But i'm disabling all the validation controls in the javascript before calling the button click event. Can someone throw some light on this issue. There are few blogs which suggests to use JQUERY, AJAX (Pagemethods and script manager). function ConfirmClose(e) { var evtobj = window.event ? event : e; if (evtobj == e) { //firefox if (!evtobj.clientY) { evtobj.returnValue = message; } } else { //IE if (evtobj.clientY < 0) { DisablePageValidators(); document.getElementById('<%# buttonBrowserCloseClick.ClientID %>').click(); } } } function DisablePageValidators() { if ((typeof (Page_Validators) != "undefined") && (Page_Validators != null)) { var i; for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { ValidatorEnable(Page_Validators[i], false); } } } //HTML <div style="display:none" > <asp:Button ID="buttonBrowserCloseClick" runat="server" onclick="buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click" Text="Button" Width="141px" CausesValidation="False" /> //Server Code protected void buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Some C# code goes here }

    Read the article

  • response.write only working IE for ASP.NET

    - by slowlycooked
    I'm using uploadify (http://www.uploadify.com/) to upload video to my site then convert them into *.flv using ffmpeg and play preview. But it dosen't fully working with firefox, chrome or safari. uploadify provides a onComplete interface, so when the script (.ashx, .php) used on your site for saving uploaded files. you can use response.write("blabla") or (echo "blabla") to invoke the javascript function that registed as OnComplete. i have test with few video files like avi, mpg, mp4, they are less then 50mb,and they all worked with all 4 browsers. However, when i was trying to upload a 75mb mp4 file, it worked in IE, but didn't working in other three. I can see the .flv file has been create in the upload folder, i can see debug messsage output after response.write("blabla"), but the javascript function was not invoked. i.e. the preview didn't play. anyone knows why? is there a timeout or something on response.write so after a period of time it wont work? e.g. 75mb file took longer time to convert than other smaller size file i tried. thansk

    Read the article

  • Fixed div once page is scrolled is flickering

    - by jasondavis
    I am trying to have an advertisement block/div that will be hald way down the page, once you scroll do the page to this point it will stick to the top. Here is a demo of what I am trying to do and the code I am using to do it with... http://jsfiddle.net/jasondavis/6vpA7/3/embedded/result/ In the demo it works perfectly how I am wanting it to be, however when I implement it on my live site, http://goo.gl/zuaZx it works but when you scroll down the div flickers in and out of view on each scroll or down key press. On my site to see the problem live it is the blokc on the right sidebar that says "Recommended Books" Here is the code I am using... $(document).ready( function() { $(window).scroll( function() { if ($(window).scrollTop() > $('#social-container').offset().top) $('#social').addClass('floating'); else $('#social').removeClass('floating'); } ); } );? css #social.floating { position: fixed; top: 0; }? My demo jsfiddle where it works correctly http://jsfiddle.net/jasondavis/6vpA7/3/ The only thing different on my live site is the div/id name is different. As you can see it is somewhat working on my live site except the flickering in and out of view as you scroll down the page. Anyone have any ideas why this would happen on my live site and not on my jsfiddle demo?

    Read the article

  • Best practice for inserting large chunks of HTML into elements with Javscript?

    - by hamstar
    Hey guys. I'm building a web application (using prototype) at the moment that requires the addition of large chunks of HTML into the DOM. Most of these are rows that contain elements with all manner of attributes. Currently I keep a blank row of html in a variable and var blankRow = '<tr><td>' +'<a href="{LINK}" onclick="someFunc(\'{STRING}\');">{WORD}</a>' +'</td></tr>'; function insertRow(o) { newRow = blankRow .sub('{LINK}',o.link) .sub('{STRING}',o.string) .sub('{WORD}',o.word); $('tbodyElem').insert( newRow ); } Now that works all well and dandy, but is it the best practice? I have to update the code in the blankRow when I update code on the page, so the new elements being inserted are the same. It gets sucky when I have like 40 lines of HTML to go in a blankRow and then I have to escape it too. Is there an easier way? I was thinking of urlencoding and then decoding it before insertion but that would still mean a blankRow and lots of escaping. What would be mean would be a eof function a la PHP et al. $blankRow = <<<EOF text text EOF; That would mean no escaping but it would still need a blankRow. What do you do in this situation?

    Read the article

  • updating dataset using join and bindingsource?

    - by netadictos
    Hi, I have created a dataset and in the designer I have created the relations and foreign keys that exist in the database. Basically, I have a product that has a relationship to a table of prices. The keyfield they share is IdProduct in the Prices table. In the Fill/Get of the product I return the Price field. I also have a DataGrid that uses a BindingSource which uses this table. Everything displays correctly and when I double click on a row within the datagrid I then open up a tabbed form that contains a detailed view of the record selected. The user at this point is able to make changes to the record and they are properly propogated back to the BindingSource. The problem is that the TableAdapter does not contain the appopriate update, therefore I am not able to call the TableAdapter.Update method with the dataset as I would had I created a tableadapter not using a join. How am I best to handle this situation. At the same time I cannot get any modified row: dTiendasDs.ProductosDataTable modified = (dTiendasDs.ProductosDataTable) dTiendasDs.Productos.GetChanges(DataRowState.Modified); modified is always null Thanks,

    Read the article

  • Having some fun - what is a good way to include a secret key functionality and fire the KeyDown event?

    - by Sisyphus
    To keep myself interested, I try to put little Easter Eggs in my projects (mostly to amuse myself). I've seen some websites where you can type a series of letters "aswzaswz" and you get a "secret function" - how would I achieve this in C#? I've assigned a "secret function" in the past by using modifier keys bool showFunThing = (Control.ModifierKeys & Keys.Control) == Keys.Control; but wanted to get a bit more secretive (without the modifier keys) I just wanted the form to detect a certain word typed without any input ... I've built a method that I think should do it: private StringBuilder _pressedKeys = new StringBuilder(); protected override void OnKeyDown(KeyEventArgs e) { const string kWord = "fun"; char letter = (char)e.KeyValue; if (!char.IsLetterOrDigit(letter)) { return; } _pressedKeys.Append(letter); if (_pressedKeys.Length == kWord.Length) { if (_pressedKeys.ToString().ToLower() == kWord) { MessageBox.Show("Fun"); _pressedKeys.Clear(); } } base.OnKeyDown(e); } Now I need to wire it up but I can't figure out how I'm supposed to raise the event in the form designer ... I've tried this: this.KeyDown +=new System.Windows.Forms.KeyEventHandler(OnKeyDown); and a couple of variations on this but I'm missing something because it won't fire (or compile). It tells me that the OnKeyDown method is expecting a certain signature but I've got other methods like this where I haven't specified arguments. I fear that I may have got myself confused so I am turning to SO for help ... anyone?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 799 800 801 802 803 804 805 806 807 808 809 810  | Next Page >