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  • Problem using Lazy<T> from within a generic abstract class

    - by James Black
    I have a generic class that all my DAO classes derive from, which is defined below. I also have a base class for all my entities, but that is not generic. The method GetIdOrSave is going to be a different type than how I defined SabaAbstractDAO, as I am trying to get the primary key to fulfill the foreign key relationships, so this function goes out to either get the primary key or save the entity and then get the primary key. The last code snippet has a solution on how it will work if I get rid of the generic part, so I think this can be solved by using variance, but I can't figure out how to write an interface that will compile. public abstract class SabaAbstractDAO<T> { ... public K GetIdOrSave<K>(K item, Lazy<SabaAbstractDAO<BaseModel>> lazyitemdao) where K : BaseModel { if (item != null && item.Id.IsNull()) { var itemdao = lazyitemdao.Value; item.Id = itemdao.retrieveID(item); if (item.Id.IsNull()) { return itemdao.SaveData(item); } } return item; } } I am getting this error, when I try to compile: Argument 2: cannot convert from 'System.Lazy<ORNL.HRD.LMS.Dao.SabaCourseDAO>' to 'System.Lazy<ORNL.HRD.LMS.Dao.SabaAbstractDAO<ORNL.HRD.LMS.Models.BaseModel>>' I am trying to call it this way: GetIdOrSave(input.OfferingTemplate, new Lazy<SabaCourseDAO>( () => { return new SabaCourseDAO() { Dao = Dao }; }) ); If I change the definition to this, it works. public K GetIdOrSave<K>(K item, Lazy<SabaCourseDAO> lazyitemdao) where K : BaseModel { So, how can I get this to compile using variance (if needed) and generics, so I can have a very general method that will only work with BaseModel and AbstractDAO<BaseModel>? I expect I should only need to make the change in the method and perhaps abstract class definition, the usage should be fine.

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  • adapting combination code for larger list

    - by vbNewbie
    I have the following code to generate combinations of string for a small list and would like to adapt this for a large list of over 300 string words.Can anyone suggest how to alter this code or to use a different method. Public Class combinations Public Shared Sub main() Dim myAnimals As String = "cat dog horse ape hen mouse" Dim myAnimalCombinations As String() = BuildCombinations(myAnimals) For Each combination As String In myAnimalCombinations 'Look on the Output Tab for the results! Console.WriteLine("(" & combination & ")") Next combination Console.ReadLine() End Sub Public Shared Function BuildCombinations(ByVal inputString As String) As String() 'Separate the sentence into useable words. Dim wordsArray As String() = inputString.Split(" ".ToCharArray) 'A plase to store the results as we build them Dim returnArray() As String = New String() {""} 'The 'combination level' that we're up to Dim wordDistance As Integer = 1 'Go through all the combination levels... For wordDistance = 1 To wordsArray.GetUpperBound(0) 'Go through all the words at this combination level... For wordIndex As Integer = 0 To wordsArray.GetUpperBound(0) - wordDistance 'Get the first word of this combination level Dim combination As New System.Text.StringBuilder(wordsArray(wordIndex)) 'And all all the remaining words a this combination level For combinationIndex As Integer = 1 To wordDistance combination.Append(" " & wordsArray(wordIndex + combinationIndex)) Next combinationIndex 'Add this combination to the results returnArray(returnArray.GetUpperBound(0)) = combination.ToString 'Add a new row to the results, ready for the next combination ReDim Preserve returnArray(returnArray.GetUpperBound(0) + 1) Next wordIndex Next wordDistance 'Get rid of the last, blank row. ReDim Preserve returnArray(returnArray.GetUpperBound(0) - 1) 'Return combinations to the calling method. Return returnArray End Function End Class

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  • Jquery resizing image

    - by michele
    I'd like to start a discussion about the image resizing using jQuery. That's my contribution: But I think I'm far away from the solution. What about the cropping? Who can help me? $(document).ready(function() { $('.story-small img').each(function() { var maxWidth = 100; // Max width for the image var maxHeight = 100; // Max height for the image var ratio = 0; // Used for aspect ratio var width = $(this).width(); // Current image width var height = $(this).height(); // Current image height // Check if the current width is larger than the max if(width > maxWidth){ ratio = maxWidth / width; // get ratio for scaling image $(this).css("width", maxWidth); // Set new width $(this).css("height", height * ratio); // Scale height based on ratio height = height * ratio; // Reset height to match scaled image } // Check if current height is larger than max if(height > maxHeight){ ratio = maxHeight / height; // get ratio for scaling image $(this).css("height", maxHeight); // Set new height $(this).css("width", width * ratio); // Scale width based on ratio width = width * ratio; // Reset width to match scaled image } }); });

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  • Get a selected radio button value after POST to set other fields enabled/disabled

    - by Redeemed1
    I have an MVC application with a simple control to all selection of All Dates or selecting a Date Range. The radio buttons have an onclick handler to enable/disable the dat pickers. All work well so far. When I try to set the correct context state for the datepickers after doing a POST I cannot get the jQuery selector to return the radio buttons checked value. The code is as follows: <%= Html.RadioButton("DateSelection.AllDates", "AllDates", Model.AllDates == "AllDates", new { onclick = "setReadOnly(this);" })%>ALL Dates&nbsp; <%= Html.RadioButton("DateSelection.AllDates", "Selection", Model.AllDates == "Selection", new { onclick = "setReadOnly(this);" })%>Selection <%= Html.DatePicker("DateSelection.startdate", Model.StartDate, "", "") %> &nbsp;To&nbsp;<%= Html.DatePicker("DateSelection.enddate", Model.EndDate, "", "") %><br /> The javascript is as follows: <script type="text/jscript" > function setReadOnly(obj) { if (obj.value == "Selection") { $('#DateSelection_startdate').css('backgroundColor', '#ffffff') .removeAttr('readonly') .datepicker('enable'); $('#DateSelection_enddate').css('backgroundColor', '#ffffff') .removeAttr('readonly') .datepicker('enable'); } else { $('#DateSelection_startdate').css('backgroundColor', '#eeeeee') .attr('readonly', 'readonly') .val('') .datepicker('disable'); $('#DateSelection_enddate').css('backgroundColor', '#eeeeee') .attr('readonly', 'readonly') .val('') .datepicker('disable'); } } <script type="text/jscript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#DateSelection_startdate').datepicker('disable').css('backgroundColor', '#eeeeee') .attr('readonly', 'readonly') .val(''); $('#DateSelection_enddate').datepicker('disable').css('backgroundColor', '#eeeeee') .attr('readonly', 'readonly') .val(''); var selected = $('#DateSelection_AllDates:checked'); setReadOnly(selected); }); The javascript line that is causing the problem is var selected = $('#DateSelection_AllDates:checked'); which will NOT return the checked radio button. Using var selected = $('#DateSelection_AllDates'); will return the first radio button value as expected i.e. applying the ':checked' filter ALWAYS returns undefined. Can anyone see anything wrong here?

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  • How To Share Information Between Django and Javascript?

    - by Randy
    So I am pretty new to both Django and Javascript (I am using JQuery) and I am wondering if I am doing a hack or if there are more slick ways to send client-side displayed database ids to the django server-side. Here is my process: I have a dataTable (http://datatables.net) that I am displaying rows of data by using the bProcessing option to use AJAX to retrieve records from the database. The URL in my urls.py is something like: url(r'^assets/activitylog/(?P<cid>.*)$', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and my dataTable ajax-relavant code is something like: "sAjaxSource": "/assets/activitylog/" + getIDFromHTML(), where the javascript function getIDFromHTML() grabs <cid> that is used by the Django view is simply: function getIDFromHTML(){ // Simply return the text in the #release_id div element from the HTML return $("#release_id").html(); }; This is the part that seems "hacky" to me. I am inserting into my template code the database id that I am using in the datatables URL (with display:none in the css) just so I can pass it back to the view. Most of this is necessitated because one cannot use django template tags in the javascript code unless the code is embedded into the HTML itself, which I am not (and will not) do. The only other thing that I have found is to change the URL to get rid of the parameter passed in to: url(r'^assets/activitylog', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and change the view code to: def getActivityTable_ajax(request): """Returns the activity for a given pid from HTTP GET ajax reqest""" pid = int(urlparse.urlparse(request.META['HTTP_REFERER']).path.split('/')[-1]) # rest of view code here... since the id that I need is on the end of this referer url. This way I don't have to monkey around with embedding the hidden database id into the HTML and passing it back to via ajax the the table population view code. Is it okay to use HTTP_REFERER in the request object in this manner? Am I going about this in the totally wrong way? Thanks in advance!

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  • Google Maps API v3 not working

    - by user1496322
    I've been banging my head on the wall after going through the documentation on this several times! I can't seem to get past the API error to get the map to appear on my site. I am getting the following error message from the web page where I want the map to be displayed: ~~~~~~~~~~~ Google has disabled use of the Maps API for this application. The provided key is not a valid Google API Key, or it is not authorized for the Google Maps Javascript API v3 on this site. If you are the owner of this application, you can learn about obtaining a valid key here: https://developers.google.com/maps/documentation/javascript/tutorial#Obtaining_Key ~~~~~~~~~~~ I have (several times now) gone into my account and 1) enabled the Maps v3 API service. 2) Generated a new API key. and 3) added my allowed referrers to the key. (both www.domain.com and domain.com URLs) I have the following added to the head of the web page: < script src="http://maps.googleapis.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false&key=MY_API_KEY_HERE" type="text/JavaScript" language="JavaScript" And... I have the following javascript function that executes when a link is clicked on the page: alert("viewMap()"); var map = new GMap3(document.getElementById("map_canvas")); var geocoder = new GClientGeocoder(); var address = "1600 Amphitheatre Parkway, Mountain View"; alert("Calling getLatLng ..."); geocoder.getLatLng(address, function(point) { var latitude = point.y; var longitude = point.x; // do something with the lat lng alert("Lat:"+latitude+" - Lng:"+longitude); }); The initial 'viewMap' alert is displayed and then is followed by the 'Google has disbled use...' error message. The error console is also showing 'GMap3 is not defined'. Can anyone please assist with showing me the errors of my ways?!?!? Thank you in advance for any help you can provide. -Dennis

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  • SCD2 + Merge Statement + MSSQL

    - by Nev_Rahd
    I am trying work out with MERGE statment to Insert / Update Dimension Table of Type SCD2 My source is a Table var to Merge with Dimension table. My Merget statement is throwing an error as: The target table 'DM.DATA_ERROR.ERROR_DIMENSION' of the INSERT statement cannot be on either side of a (primary key, foreign key) relationship when the FROM clause contains a nested INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, or MERGE statement. Found reference constraint 'FK_ERROR_DIMENSION_to_AUDIT_CreatedBy'. My Merge Statement: DECLARE @DATAERROROBJECT AS [ERROR_DIMENSION] INSERT INTO DM.DATA_ERROR.ERROR_DIMENSION SELECT ERROR_CODE, DATA_STREAM_ID, [ERROR_SEVERITY], DATA_QUALITY_RATING, ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION, ERROR_DESCRIPTION, VALIDATION_RULE, ERROR_TYPE, ERROR_CLASS, VALID_FROM, VALID_TO, CURR_FLAG, CREATED_BY_AUDIT_SK, UPDATED_BY_AUDIT_SK FROM (MERGE DM.DATA_ERROR.ERROR_DIMENSION ED USING @DATAERROROBJECT OBJ ON(ED.ERROR_CODE = OBJ.ERROR_CODE AND ED.DATA_STREAM_ID = OBJ.DATA_STREAM_ID) WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN INSERT VALUES( OBJ.ERROR_CODE ,OBJ.DATA_STREAM_ID ,OBJ.[ERROR_SEVERITY] ,OBJ.DATA_QUALITY_RATING ,OBJ.ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION ,OBJ.ERROR_DESCRIPTION ,OBJ.VALIDATION_RULE ,OBJ.ERROR_TYPE ,OBJ.ERROR_CLASS ,GETDATE() ,'9999-12-13' ,'Y' ,1 ,1 ) WHEN MATCHED AND ED.CURR_FLAG = 'Y' AND ( ED.[ERROR_SEVERITY] <> OBJ.[ERROR_SEVERITY] OR ED.[DATA_QUALITY_RATING] <> OBJ.[DATA_QUALITY_RATING] OR ED.[ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION] <> OBJ.[ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION] OR ED.[ERROR_DESCRIPTION] <> OBJ.[ERROR_DESCRIPTION] OR ED.[VALIDATION_RULE] <> OBJ.[VALIDATION_RULE] OR ED.[ERROR_TYPE] <> OBJ.[ERROR_TYPE] OR ED.[ERROR_CLASS] <> OBJ.[ERROR_CLASS] ) THEN UPDATE SET ED.CURR_FLAG = 'N', ED.VALID_TO = GETDATE() OUTPUT $ACTION ACTION_OUT, OBJ.ERROR_CODE ERROR_CODE, OBJ.DATA_STREAM_ID DATA_STREAM_ID, OBJ.[ERROR_SEVERITY] [ERROR_SEVERITY], OBJ.DATA_QUALITY_RATING DATA_QUALITY_RATING, OBJ.ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION, OBJ.ERROR_DESCRIPTION ERROR_DESCRIPTION, OBJ.VALIDATION_RULE VALIDATION_RULE, OBJ.ERROR_TYPE ERROR_TYPE, OBJ.ERROR_CLASS ERROR_CLASS, GETDATE() VALID_FROM, '9999-12-31' VALID_TO, 'Y' CURR_FLAG, 555 CREATED_BY_AUDIT_SK, 555 UPDATED_BY_AUDIT_SK ) AS MERGE_OUT WHERE MERGE_OUT.ACTION_OUT = 'UPDATE'; What am i doing wrong ?

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  • pass other form elements to ajax suggestion box script

    - by Alex Calder
    I paid somebody to build me a jQuery AJAX suggestion box script a while back. It works great. Now I'm trying to learn about it enough to modify it to do something different. Right now, the script that generates the suggestions just takes the query text and does the same check every time. Now, I want to be able to pass along additional info so different things are looked for with each instance of a search box. The HTML... simple, obvious. input class="suggest" name="q" type="text" autocomplete="off" / The jQuery looks like this: jQuery(document).ready(function() { $('.suggest').autocomplete( { source:'output.php', minLength:3, focus: function (event, ui) { $(event.target).val(ui.item.label); return false; } } ); [snip] } Instead of: source:'output.php', minLength:3, I'd like: source:'output.php?arg1=blah1&arg2=blah2', minLength:3, where arg1 and arg2 are passed along in the form... input class="suggest" name="q" type="text" autocomplete="off" / input type="hidden" name="arg1" value="blah1" input type="hidden" name="arg2" value="blah2" Does this make sense? Thanks guys. I know just about "this much" about OOL's and javascript, so I'm learning... Alex

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  • How to make std::vector's operator[] compile doing bounds checking in DEBUG but not in RELEASE

    - by Edison Gustavo Muenz
    I'm using Visual Studio 2008. I'm aware that std::vector has bounds checking with the at() function and has undefined behaviour if you try to access something using the operator [] incorrectly (out of range). I'm curious if it's possible to compile my program with the bounds checking. This way the operator[] would use the at() function and throw a std::out_of_range whenever something is out of bounds. The release mode would be compiled without bounds checking for operator[], so the performance doesn't degrade. I came into thinking about this because I'm migrating an app that was written using Borland C++ to Visual Studio and in a small part of the code I have this (with i=0, j=1): v[i][j]; //v is a std::vector<std::vector<int> > The size of the vector 'v' is [0][1] (so element 0 of the vector has only one element). This is undefined behaviour, I know, but Borland is returning 0 here, VS is crashing. I like the crash better than returning 0, so if I can get more 'crashes' by the std::out_of_range exception being thrown, the migration would be completed faster (so it would expose more bugs that Borland was hiding).

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  • Cannot launch 16-bit application anymore

    - by Nick Bedford
    I'm trying to debug and resolve some issues with a Win32 macro application written C++ however I'm having the strangest issue. I have to launch a 16-bit program and then simulate entering data into and have been using ShellExecute for over two years now. I haven't touched this actual code at all, but now it doesn't work. I'm doing ShellExecute(NULL, "open", exe_path.c_str(), NULL, "", SW_SHOWDEFAULT);. This has worked flawlessly for years but all of sudden, it stopped working. It gives me an ACCESS_DENIED error code. I've Googled and apparently this is a pretty common issue with launching 16-bit apps. The workstation XP SP2 environment hasn't changed at all, and it was actually working until I rebuilt a little while ago (I've rebuilt it before many times). The code is inside a window procedure function and when I take it out and launch the program in the WinMain function it works, but the code has to be in the window procedure... I've tried numerous alternatives but they all give the same issue. The biggest issue with this is it was working then all of a sudden decided it wasn't going to with no change to both code and environment! In fact, it was about half way through testing changes that it thought it'd stop working. Please help as I cannot do anything without the program launching. It's the first step in the code that I'm debugging!

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  • Using PHP as template language

    - by Kunal
    I wrote up this quick class to do templating via PHP -- I was wondering if this is easily exploitable if I were ever to open up templating to users (not the immediate plan, but thinking down the road). class Template { private $allowed_methods = array( 'if', 'switch', 'foreach', 'for', 'while' ); private function secure_code($template_code) { $php_section_pattern = '/\<\?(.*?)\?\>/'; $php_method_pattern = '/([a-zA-Z0-9_]+)[\s]*\(/'; preg_match_all($php_section_pattern, $template_code, $matches); foreach (array_unique($matches[1]) as $index => $code_chunk) { preg_match_all($php_method_pattern, $code_chunk, $sub_matches); $code_allowed = true; foreach ($sub_matches[1] as $method_name) { if (!in_array($method_name, $this->allowed_methods)) { $code_allowed = false; break; } } if (!$code_allowed) { $template_code = str_replace($matches[0][$index], '', $template_code); } } return $template_code; } public function render($template_code, $params) { extract($params); ob_start(); eval('?>'.$this->secure_code($template_code).'<?php '); $result = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); return $result; } } Example usage: $template_code = '<?= $title ?><? foreach ($photos as $photo): ?><img src="<?= $photo ?>"><? endforeach ?>'; $params = array('title' => 'My Title', 'photos' => array('img1.jpg', 'img2.jpg')); $template = new Template; echo $template->render($template_code, $params); The idea here is that I'd store the templates (PHP code) in the database, and then run it through the class which uses regular expressions to only allow permitted methods (if, for, etc.). Anyone see an obvious way to exploit this and run arbitrary PHP? If so, I'll probably go the more standard route of a templating language such as Smarty...

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  • C: Proper syntax for allocating memory using pointers to pointers.

    - by ~kero-05h
    This is my first time posting here, hopefully I will not make a fool of myself. I am trying to use a function to allocate memory to a pointer, copy text to the buffer, and then change a character. I keep getting a segfault and have tried looking up the answer, my syntax is probably wrong, I could use some enlightenment. /* My objective is to pass a buffer to my Copy function, allocate room, and copy text to it. Then I want to modify the text and print it.*/ #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <string.h> int Copy(char **Buffer, char *Text); int main() { char *Text = malloc(sizeof(char) * 100); char *Buffer; strncpy(Text, "1234567890\n", 100); Copy(&Buffer, Text); } int Copy(char **Buffer, char *Text) { int count; count = strlen(Text)+1; *Buffer = malloc(sizeof(char) * count); strncpy(*Buffer, Text, 5); *Buffer[2] = 'A'; /* This results in a segfault. "*Buffer[1] = 'A';" results in no differece in the output. */ printf("%s\n", *Buffer); }

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  • How to access a variable in other class?

    - by Christine
    Hi! I've problem regarding GUI with one Menu and one Order Class. I've created a variable to store how many items have been selected in the Menu Class. private int totalSelected; The var totalSelected is live updated. It can be changed anytime depending on actionPerformed() function.(Exp: totalSelected will add up all the selected items) In the Order Class, how can I access to the live update variable totalSelected in order to retrieve the live update value? When I invoke getTotalSelected() function inside the Menu Class, I will only obtain a 0 value. Thanks for your help ^^! Please allow me to specify my question clearer. public class MenuTab extends JPanel { private JLabel display; private int totalSelected; public MenuTab() { .... } } public getTotalSelected(){ return totalSelected; } private class SelectedListener implements ActionListener { public void actionPerformed() { ....... //Assume that totalSelected has been updated! display = new JLabel("Total: " + totalSelected); // OK to display totalSelected live value here. } } // A new class is the confirmation of order public class OrderConfirmedTab extends JPanel{ private JLabel displayTotal; private MenuTab order = new MenuTab(); public OrderConfirmedTab() { ...... int totalSelected = order.getTotalSelected(); displayTotal = new JLabel("Total: " + totalSelected); // Problem to display totalSelected live value here. // Will obtain 0; // How can I obtain the live updated value from class MenuTab? Thanks! } }

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  • problem with fork()

    - by john
    I'm writing a shell which forks, with the parent reading the input and the child process parsing and executing it with execvp. pseudocode of main method: do{ pid = fork(); print pid; if (p<0) { error; exit; } if (p>0) { wait for child to finish; read input; } else { call function to parse input; exit; } }while condition return; what happens is that i never seem to enter the child process (pid printed is always positive, i never enter the else). however, if i don't call the parse function and just have else exit, i do correctly enter parent and child alternatingly. full code: int main(int argc, char *argv[]){ char input[500]; pid_t p; int firstrun = 1; do{ p = fork(); printf("PID: %d", p); if (p < 0) {printf("Error forking"); exit(-1);} if (p > 0){ wait(NULL); firstrun = 0; printf("\n> "); bzero(input, 500); fflush(stdout); read(0, input, 499); input[strlen(input)-1] = '\0'; } else exit(0); else { if (parse(input) != 0 && firstrun != 1) { printf("Error parsing"); exit(-1); } exit(0); } }while(strcmp(input, "exit") != 0); return 0; }

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  • Weird MySQL behavior, seems like a SQL bug

    - by Daniel Magliola
    I'm getting a very strange behavior in MySQL, which looks like some kind of weird bug. I know it's common to blame the tried and tested tool for one's mistakes, but I've been going around this for a while. I have 2 tables, I, with 2797 records, and C, with 1429. C references I. I want to delete all records in I that are not used by C, so i'm doing: select * from i where id not in (select id_i from c); That returns 0 records, which, given the record counts in each table, is physically impossible. I'm also pretty sure that the query is right, since it's the same type of query i've been using for the last 2 hours to clean up other tables with orphaned records. To make things even weirder... select * from i where id in (select id_i from c); DOES work, and brings me the 1297 records that I do NOT want to delete. So, IN works, but NOT IN doesn't. Even worse: select * from i where id not in ( select i.id from i inner join c ON i.id = c.id_i ); That DOES work, although it should be equivalent to the first query (i'm just trying mad stuff at this point). Alas, I can't use this query to delete, because I'm using the same table i'm deleting from in the subquery. I'm assuming something in my database is corrupt at this point. In case it matters, these are all MyISAM tables without any foreign keys, whatsoever, and I've run the same queries in my dev machine and in the production server with the same result, so whatever corruption there might be survived a mysqldump / source cycle, which sounds awfully strange. Any ideas on what could be going wrong, or, even more importantly, how I can fix/work around this? Thanks! Daniel

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  • MySql Query lag time?

    - by Click Upvote
    When there are multiple PHP scripts running in parallel, each making an UPDATE query to the same record in the same table repeatedly, is it possible for there to be a 'lag time' before the table is updated with each query? I have basically 5-6 instances of a PHP script running in parallel, having been launched via cron. Each script gets all the records in the items table, and then loops through them and processes them. However, to avoid processing the same item more than once, I store the id of the last item being processed in a seperate table. So this is how my code works: function getCurrentItem() { $sql = "SELECT currentItemId from settings"; $result = $this->db->query($sql); return $result->get('currentItemId'); } function setCurrentItem($id) { $sql = "UPDATE settings SET currentItemId='$id'"; $this->db->query($sql); } $currentItem = $this->getCurrentItem(); $sql = "SELECT * FROM items WHERE status='pending' AND id > $currentItem'"; $result = $this->db->query($sql); $items = $result->getAll(); foreach ($items as $i) { //Check if $i has been processed by a different instance of the script, and if so, //leave it untouched. if ($this->getCurrentItem() > $i->id) continue; $this->setCurrentItem($i->id); // Process the item here } But despite of all the precautions, most items are being processed more than once. Which makes me think that there is some lag time between the update queries being run by the PHP script, and when the database actually updates the record. Is it true? And if so, what other mechanism should I use to ensure that the PHP scripts always get only the latest currentItemId even when there are multiple scripts running in parrallel? Would using a text file instead of the db help?

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  • Downloading javascript Without Blocking

    - by doug
    The context: My question relates to improving web-page loading performance, and in particular the effect that javascript has on page-loading (resources/elements below the script are blocked from downloading/rendering). This problem is usually avoided/mitigated by placing the scripts at the bottom (eg, just before the tag). The code i am looking at is for web analytics. Placing it at the bottom reduces its accuracy; and because this script has no effect on the page's content, ie, it's not re-writing any part of the page--i want to move it inside the head. Just how to do that without ruining page-loading performance is the crux. From my research, i've found six techniques (w/ support among all or most of the major browsers) for downloading scripts so that they don't block down-page content from loading/rendering: (i) XHR + eval(); (ii) XHR + 'inject'; (iii) download the HTML-wrapped script as in iFrame; (iv) setting the script tag's 'async' flag to 'TRUE' (HTML 5 only); (v) setting the script tag's 'defer' attribute; and (vi) 'Script DOM Element'. It's the last of these i don't understand. The javascript to implement the pattern (vi) is: (function() { var q1 = document.createElement('script'); q1.src = 'http://www.my_site.com/q1.js' document.documentElement.firstChild.appendChild(q1) })(); Seems simple enough: inside this anonymous function, a script element is created, its 'src' element is set to it's location, then the script element is added to the DOM. But while each line is clear, it's still not clear to me how exactly this pattern allows script loading without blocking down-page elements/resources from rendering/loading?

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  • Convert a raw string to an array of big-endian words with Ruby

    - by Zag zag..
    Hello, I would like to convert a raw string to an array of big-endian words. As example, here is a JavaScript function that do it well (by Paul Johnston): /* * Convert a raw string to an array of big-endian words * Characters >255 have their high-byte silently ignored. */ function rstr2binb(input) { var output = Array(input.length >> 2); for(var i = 0; i < output.length; i++) output[i] = 0; for(var i = 0; i < input.length * 8; i += 8) output[i>>5] |= (input.charCodeAt(i / 8) & 0xFF) << (24 - i % 32); return output; } I believe the Ruby equivalent can be String#unpack(format). However, I don't know what should be the correct format parameter. Thank you for any help. Regards

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  • AJAX contact form in CodeIgniter

    - by Ross
    Few questions: I'm using CI and JQuery AJAX. In my code below, I assemble dataString, which by default, is appended to the URL as a query string. I've changed the AJAX "type" to POST, so my question is - how do I access dataString in my CI app? It would seem I still have to use $name=$this->input->post('name') Which to me, makes setting dataString redundant? -- I've tried searching but can't really find anything concrete. Would it be possible to still make use of CIs validation library and AJAX? if($this->form_validation->run() == FALSE) { // what can i return so that my CI app shows errors? } Normally you would reload the contact form or redirect the user. In an ideal world I would like the error messages to be shown to the user. Jquery: $(document).ready(function($){ $("#submit_btn").click(function(){ var name = $("input#name").val(); var company = $("input#company").val(); var email = $("input#email").val(); var phone = $("input#phone").val(); var message = $("textarea#message").val(); var dataString = 'name=' + name + '&message=' + message + '&return_email=' + email + '&return_phone=' + phone + '&company=' + company; var response = $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "newsite/contact_ajax/", data: dataString }).responseText; //$('#contact').hide(); //$('#contact').html('<h5>Form submitted! Thank you!</h5><h4>We will be in touch with you soon.</h4>'); //$('#contact').fadeIn('slow'); return false; }); }); hope i've been clear enough - if anyone has a decent example of a CI contact form that would be great. there's mixed stuff on the internet but nothing that hits all the boxes. thanks

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  • How Do i handle both the checked and clicked events in Jquery

    - by Someone
    Say I have a form and onload of that form I have 2 radio buttons say "yes" or "no " I have set of action to perform when we select either one radio button .Say if we select "yes " //Onload of Form if(("#yes:checked")){ $("#table").show(); $("#div1").show(); $("#div2").show(); alert("Checkedd on Load"); } //for click $("#yes").bind('click',function(){ $("#table").show(); $("#div1").show(); $("#div2").show(); alert("Checked by Click"); }); }); Iam Writing the same repeated lines of code for two similar set of events .Is There anyway to combine the "Checked" and "Clicked" events Say if i do inthis way than "Checked" doesnot get called untill "Clicked"?Is there any other way to do it. $("#yes").bind('click',function(){ if(("#yes:checked")){ $("#table").show(); $("#div1").show(); $("#div2").show(); alert("Checked by Click"); } }); });

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  • jQuery issue with anchor tag using jqTransform

    - by James Helms
    I'm using jqtransform on my site. When the user is on a for them to be able to use hot keys to move through the selections. I added this function: $wrapper.find('a').keydown(function (e) { var Esc = 27; var code = (e.keyCode ? e.keyCode : e.which); if(code== Esc || (code>=65 &&code<=90)){ var letter = String.fromCharCode(code); if (code==Esc) keyCodes = ""; else{ if (keyCodes=='') keyCodes += letter; else keyCodes += letter.toLowerCase(); var item = $wrapper.find('a[text^=\'' + keyCodes + '\']:first'); item.click(); } } }); inside of $.fn.jqTransSelect. This code works fine in all browsers but IE. the only thing i can find is that IE doesn't like the click event. Can anyone please help me with this? If i debug into the code I can see that item is a select not an anchor like i would expect it to be, and that confuses me even more.

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  • selecting a row by means of a button ... using didSelectRowAtIndexPath

    - by John Smith
    hey people , I have a question concerning a button I would like to create which selects my previous selected row. This is what I came up so far but since I'm new with the functionality and such I could definately use some pointers I created a toolbar with a button and behind this button is the following action. -(void)clickRow { selectedRow = [self.tableView indexPathForSelectedRow]; [self.tableView:[self tableView] didSelectRowAtIndexPath:selectedRow]; } in my didSelectRowAtIndexPath there is a rootViewController being pushed rvController = [RootViewController alloc] ...etc So what I would like is my function clickRow to select the row and push the new rootviewcontroller (which has the right info since I'm using a tree ). I tried something like this as well -(void)clickRow { NSDictionary *dictionary = [self.tableDataSource objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; NSArray *Children = [dictionary objectForKey:@"Children"]; rvController = [[RootViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"RootViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; rvController.CurrentLevel += 1; rvController.CurrentTitle = [dictionary objectForKey:@"Title"]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:rvController animated:YES]; rvController.tableDataSource = Children; [rvController release]; } The last function works a little but a little is not enough;) For instance if I press the middle row or any other it constantly selects the toprow. thnx all for those of you reading and trying to help

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  • Converting Generic Type into reference type after checking its type using GetType(). How ?

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    i am trying to call a function that is defined in a class RFIDeas_Wrapper(dll being used). But when i checked for type of reader and after that i used it to call function it shows me error Cannot convert type T to RFIDeas_Wrapper. EDIT private List<string> GetTagCollection<T>(T Reader) { TagCollection = new List<string>(); if (Reader.GetType() == typeof(RFIDeas_Wrapper)) { ((RFIDeas_Wrapper)Reader).OpenDevice(); // here Reader is of type RFIDeas_Wrapper //, but i m not able to convert Reader into its datatype. string Tag_Id = ((RFIDeas_Wrapper)Reader).TagID(); //Adds Valid Tag Ids into the collection if(Tag_Id!="0") TagCollection.Add(Tag_Id); } else if (Reader.GetType() == typeof(AlienReader)) TagCollection = ((AlienReader)Reader).TagCollection; return TagCollection; } ((RFIDeas_Wrapper)Reader).OpenDevice(); , ((AlienReader)Reader).TagCollection; I want this line to be executed without any issue. As Reader will always be of the type i m specifying. How to make compiler understand the same thing.

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  • Save result of for loop in a vector

    - by hendrik
    i think I'm just too tired to see the mistake. i wrote a function to get the maximal value for two data sets from a for loop plot_zu <- function(x) {for (i in 1:x){ z=data_raw[grep(a[i], data_raw$Gene.names),] b=data_raw_ace[grep(a[i], data_raw_ace$Gene.names),] p<-vector("numeric", length(1:length(a))) p[i]<-max(z$t_test_diff) return(p)} } so picture: a is a vector of names and the data set (data_raw(_ace)) are filtered by it. In the end i would like to have all maxima values of column t_test_diff in a vector. After that i want to add the t_test_diff column values from data_raw_ace also. So the problem is, that i get this: [1] 1.210213 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 [8] 0.000000 0.000000 So there is a problem with brackets or something but i cannot see it ( first value fits). Sorry for no good example but i think it is understandable and an easy to solve question. If im to dumb to explain my problem right, i will add an example. !! Thx a lot !! grateful Hendrik

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  • jQuery .trigger() or $(window) not working in Google Chrome

    - by Jonathan
    I have this jQuery ajax navigation tabs plugin that I created using some help from CSS-Tricks.com and the jQuery hashchange event plugin (detects hash changes in browsers that don't support it). The code is little long to post it here but it goes something like this: Part 1) When a tab is clicked, it gets the href attribute of that tab and add it to the browsers navigation bar like '#tab_name': window.location.hash = $(this).attr("href"); Part 2) When the navigation bar changes (hash change), it gets the href change like this: window.location.hash.substring(1); (substring is to get only 'tab_name' without the '#'), and then call the ajax function to get the info to display. I want to automatically trigger the plugin to load the first tab when the page is accessed, so at the start of the code I put: if (window.location.hash === '') { // If no '#' is in the browser navigation bar window.location.hash = '#tab_1'; // Add #tab_1 to the navigation bar $(window).trigger('hashchange'); // Trigger a hashchange so 'Part 2' of the plugin calls the ajax function using the '#tab_1' added } The probles is that it works in FF but not in Chrome, I mean, everything works but it seems like the $(window).trigger('hashchange'); is not working because it doesnt get the first tab.. Any suggestions??

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