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  • can javascript process binary data?

    - by Johnny
    admit me describe my questions in situation-oriented way: assume IE is still the dominate web browser(the firefox have document for binary processing): the XMLHttpRequest.responseText or XMLHttpRequest.responseXML in ie desire txt or xml/xhtml/html,but what about the server response the xmlHttprequest whith MIME TYPE application/octet ? would the response string all little than 256 ?(every char of that string < 256), thanks very much for a straight answer, i have no webserver env,so i don't know how to test it out. because use txt or xml have a issue of character set encode, and i don't know how to process #[[[CDDATA node of one encoded xml(ex : utf-8,ascii,gb18030) with javascript, when i getNodeText, does the docObj return me byte or decoded char ? if it was decoded char which according to the header indicated charSet in the httpresponse , it would be all wrong. to avoid mess up with charSet ,i would like the server to response octet data and force strings data to be encoded as utf-8 but another charSet in the binary format. if the response is octal, so i guess the browser would not try to decode the response"txt" does this weird? or miss understanding the fundamental things? EDIT: I believe the question is asking this: Can Javascript safely process strings that aren't encoded in Unicode? What are the problems with trying to do so? EDIT: no no no , i means if http-header: content-type is "application/octet" , would the ie try to decoded it as (16bits Unicode | ie local setting charset ) when i get XMLHttpRequestobj.responseText use javascript ? or it(ie) just wrap every single byte of the response body as a javascript string, then every char in that string little than or equal 256 (char<=256), am i talking Mars language? sadly, if i were Marsizen,i would come as tourist without fuzzy questions. however i am in a country which share at least one property with Mars : RED

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  • Can I use a keyPath in a predicate?

    - by dontWatchMyProfile
    For some reason, this didn't work (although the keypath does exist): NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"department.departmentName == %@", departmentName]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; NSError *fetchError = nil; NSUInteger count = [moc countForFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&fetchError]; // execution simply stops at this line, with no error or console log Execution just stops at the last line above when asking for the count. I don't get an console log. Also I don't get any kind of exception. The execution just stops. There are no objects in the persistent store yet. So maybe it crashes because of it tries to follow a keypath in a nonexisting object? Does that make sense? The line where GDB stops is this: 0x002a31cb <+0459> test %eax,%eax Previously to that, I see a lot of NSSQLAdapter... calls in the stack trace. There's definitely something wrong. Well, but when I set the Entity to the destination of the key path and then just do something like NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"departmentName == %@", departmentName]; then there is no problem and count simply is 0.

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  • UIAlertView choice causing resignFirstResponder to fail

    - by Chazbot
    Hi everyone. I'm having a similar issue to Anthony Chan's question, and after trying every suggested solution, I'm still stuck. Somehow, only after interacting with my UIAlertView, I'm unable to dismiss the keyboard in another view of my app. It's as though the Alert is breaking my UITextField's ability to resignFirstResponder. Below I instantiate my UIAlertView, which then calls its didDismissWIthButtonIndex method. Then, I call the showInfo method, which loads another UIViewController. UIAlertView *emailFailAlert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Error" message:@"error message text." delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Not now" otherButtonTitles:@"Settings", nil]; [emailFailAlert setTag:2]; [emailFailAlert show]; [emailFailAlert release]; Once the 'Settings' option is pressed, I'm calling this method: - (void)alertView:(UIAlertView *)alertView didDismissWithButtonIndex:(NSInteger)buttonIndex { if ([alertView tag] == 2) { if (buttonIndex == 1){ [self showInfo:nil]; } } } My showInfo method loads the other ViewController, via the code below: - (IBAction)showInfo:(id)sender { FlipsideViewController *fscontroller = [[FlipsideViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"FlipsideView" bundle:nil]; fscontroller.delegate = self; fscontroller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:fscontroller animated:YES]; [fscontroller release]; } Upon clicking any textField in this Flipside VC, I'm unable to dismiss the keyboard as I normally can with - (BOOL)textFieldShouldReturn:(UITextField *)textField, and [textField resignFirstResponder]. I've omitted this code bc this question is getting long, but I'm happy to post if necessary. The interesting part is that if I comment out the [self showInfo:nil] call made when the button is clicked and call it by clicking a test button (outside the alertView didDismissWithButtonIndex: method), everything works fine. Any idea what's happening here? Thanks in advance!

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  • ASP.Net IE6 disable button

    - by RemotecUk
    Hi, I have the following code running as part of my OnClientclick attribute on my custom ASP.Net button.... function clickOnce(btnSubmit) { if ( typeof( Page_ClientValidate ) == 'function' ) { if ( ! Page_ClientValidate() ) { return false; } } btnSubmit.disabled = true; } There is a validator on the page. If a given text box is empty then the validator activates no problem. If a given text box is populated then the button disables but a post back does not occur. The rendered markup looks like this... <input type="submit" name="TestButton" value="Test Button" onclick="clickOnce(this);WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions(&quot;TestButton&quot;, &quot;&quot;, true, &quot;&quot;, &quot;&quot;, false, false))" id="TestButton" class="euva-button-decorated" /> This works nicely in Firefox but not in IE6. Its almost like after the button has been disabled it simply does not run the post back javascript. Any ideas welcomed. EDIT: I have tried returning true from the function as well.

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  • Twitter O-Auth Callback url

    - by jtymann
    I am having a problem with Twitter's oauth authentication and using a callback url. I am coding in php and using the sample code referenced by the twitter wiki, http://github.com/abraham/twitteroauth I got that code, and tried a simple test and it worked nicely. However I want to programatically specify the callback url, and the example did not support that. So I quickly modified the getRequestToken() method to take in a parameter and now it looks like this: function getRequestToken($params = array()) { $r = $this->oAuthRequest($this->requestTokenURL(), $params); $token = $this->oAuthParseResponse($r); $this->token = new OAuthConsumer($token['oauth_token'], $token['oauth_token_secret']); return $token; } and my call looks like this $tok = $to->getRequestToken(array('oauth_callback' => 'http://127.0.0.1/twitter_prompt/index.php')); This is the only change I made, and the redirect works like a charm, however I am getting an error when I then try and use my newly granted access to try and make a call. I get a "Could not authenticate you" error. Also the application never actually gets added to the users authorized connections. Now I read the specs and I thought all I had to do was specify the parameter when getting the request token. Could someone a little more seasoned in oauth and twitter possibly give me a hand? Thank You

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  • SharePoint Item Event Receivers and Site Creation

    - by Michael Edwards
    I have created an Item Event Receiver for a document library and I have test that the logic works correctly and it all does. The next thing I wanted to do is automatically create the list when a site is created so I added the list to the ONET.xml file for the site: <Lists> <List Title="Documents" Description="Documents " url="MyDocumentLibrary" Type="10002" FeatureId="CFD8504D-70EB-4ba2-9CCB-52E38DB39E60" QuickLaunchUrl="Docs/AllItems.aspx" /> </Lists> And I ensure that the feature for this list is also activated be adding the feature to the <WebFeatures> <Feature ID="CFD8504D-70EB-4ba2-9CCB-52E38DB39E60" /> </WebFeatures> The problem occurs after I create the site, when I add a document to the list the Item Event Receiver does not run. However if I manually for to the web site features and deactivate and then reactivate the feature the Item Event Receiver does run. It seems that when creating a list through the ONET.xml and activating the feature it does not bind the Item Event Receiver to the list. What is the work around for this? Is this a bug?

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  • Organizing Eager Queries in an ObjectContext

    - by Nix
    I am messing around with Entity Framework 3.5 SP1 and I am trying to find a cleaner way to do the below. I have an EF model and I am adding some Eager Loaded entities and i want them all to reside in the "Eager" property in the context. We originally were just changing the entity set name, but it seems a lot cleaner to just use a property, and keep the entity set name in tact. Example: Context - EntityType - AnotherType - Eager (all of these would have .Includes to pull in all assoc. tables) - EntityType - AnotherType Currently I am using composition but I feel like there is an easier way to do what I want. namespace Entities{ public partial class TestObjectContext { EagerExtensions Eager { get;set;} public TestObjectContext(){ Eager = new EagerExtensions (this); } } public partial class EagerExtensions { TestObjectContext context; public EagerExtensions(TestObjectContext _context){ context = _context; } public IQueryable<TestEntity> TestEntity { get { return context.TestEntity .Include("TestEntityType") .Include("Test.Attached.AttachedType") .AsQueryable(); } } } } public class Tester{ public void ShowHowIWantIt(){ TestObjectContext context= new TestObjectContext(); var query = from a in context.Eager.TestEntity select a; } }

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  • Flex Modules vs RSL

    - by nil
    Hi, I'm a little bit confused about when is better to use Flex Modules or RSL libriaries (in Flex 3.5). My goal is split my project in several unit projects, so I can test and work separately. Let's assume I have a Customer app and Vendor app. I also have a front-end panel with two buttons. Each button launches Customer app or Vendor app. These applications make different things. They share some .as functions and common components, too. I understand that if I make a main project (for user login and to show a first panel) and two modules (customer, vendor) I must have all that components in my Eclipse project, isn't it? Instead of doing modules, should I create SWC for Vendor and other for Customer app and call from main app by using RSL? So, which option is more suitable? What do you advise me? Which are the trade-offs of each option? On the other side, this flex application is integrated with Java through Blaze and ibatis for persistence managment, and hold by a web apache server. I considered also to create independent war files to keep this indpendence, but I thought this do not optimize flex code. I'm right? Thank you. Nil

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  • Fastest inline-assembly spinlock

    - by sigvardsen
    I'm writing a multithreaded application in c++, where performance is critical. I need to use a lot of locking while copying small structures between threads, for this I have chosen to use spinlocks. I have done some research and speed testing on this and I found that most implementations are roughly equally fast: Microsofts CRITICAL_SECTION, with SpinCount set to 1000, scores about 140 time units Implementing this algorithm with Microsofts InterlockedCompareExchange scores about 95 time units Ive also tried to use some inline assembly with __asm {} using something like this code and it scores about 70 time units, but I am not sure that a proper memory barrier has been created. Edit: The times given here are the time it takes for 2 threads to lock and unlock the spinlock 1,000,000 times. I know this isn't a lot of difference but as a spinlock is a heavily used object, one would think that programmers would have agreed on the fastest possible way to make a spinlock. Googling it leads to many different approaches however. I would think this aforementioned method would be the fastest if implemented using inline assembly and using the instruction CMPXCHG8B instead of comparing 32bit registers. Furthermore memory barriers must be taken into account, this could be done by LOCK CMPXHG8B (I think?), which guarantees "exclusive rights" to the shared memory between cores. At last [some suggests] that for busy waits should be accompanied by NOP:REP that would enable Hyper-threading processors to switch to another thread, but I am not sure whether this is true or not? From my performance-test of different spinlocks, it is seen that there is not much difference, but for purely academic purpose I would like to know which one is fastest. However as I have extremely limited experience in the assembly-language and with memory barriers, I would be happy if someone could write the assembly code for the last example I provided with LOCK CMPXCHG8B and proper memory barriers in the following template: __asm { spin_lock: ;locking code. spin_unlock: ;unlocking code. }

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  • Internet zone is opened when broswer is opened from installer created by .Net 3.5sp1

    - by priya
    Hi All, I have project created in VS2005 and .Net 2.0. The installation is a web-based installation. After installing the proe-requisites the installer opens up the browser to continue with web-based install. On this, it opens up in intranet zone and works perfectly. I recently migrated the project to VS2008 Sp1 and .Net 3.5sp1. No change in my code and the test environment. Here the browser gets opened up in the Internet zone which prevents it from moving forward, until unless I open up a new browser manually and copy paste the url. The internet security options on the both the case are - Internet --- High. For the case2, if i have the security internet option to be 'Medium', it works well. I am not sure why this issue comes up when I change the VS and .Net version. More over the browser gets opened with system priveleges rather than administrator privileges. Please let me know any solution on this. Thanks, Priya.R

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  • why i^=j^=i^=j isn't equal to *i^=*j^=*i^=*j

    - by klvoek
    In c , when there is variables (assume both as int) i less than j , we can use the equation i^=j^=i^=j to exchange the value of the two variables. For example, let int i = 3, j = 5; after computed i^=j^=i^=j, I got i = 5, j = 3 . What is so amazing to me. But, if i use two int pointers to re-do this , with *i^=*j^=*i^=*j , use the example above what i got will be i = 0 and j = 3. Then, describe it simply: In C 1 int i=3, j=5; i^=j^=i^=j; // after this i = 5, j=3 2 int i = 3, j= 5; int *pi = &i, *pj = &j; *pi^=*pj^=*pi^=*pj; // after this, $pi = 0, *pj = 5 In JavaScript var i=3, j=5; i^=j^=i^=j; // after this, i = 0, j= 3 the result in JavaScript makes this more interesting to me my sample code , on ubuntu server 11.0 & gcc #include <stdio.h> int main(){ int i=7, j=9; int *pi=&i, *pj=&j; i^=j^=i^=j; printf("i=%d j=%d\n", i, j); i=7, j==9; *pi^=*pj^=*pi^=*pj printf("i=%d j=%d\n", *pi, *pj); } however, i had spent hours to test and find out why, but nothing means. So, please help me. Or, just only i made some mistake???

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  • Java downcasting dilemma

    - by Shades88
    please have a look at this code here. class Vehicle { public void printSound() { System.out.print("vehicle"); } } class Car extends Vehicle { public void printSound() { System.out.print("car"); } } class Bike extends Vehicle{ public void printSound() { System.out.print("bike"); } } public class Test { public static void main(String[] args) { Vehicle v = new Car(); Bike b = (Bike)v; v.printSound(); b.printSound(); Object myObj = new String[]{"one", "two", "three"}; for (String s : (String[])myObj) System.out.print(s + "."); } } Executing this code will give ClassCastException saying inheritance.Car cannot be cast to inheritance.Bike. Now look at the line Object myObj = new String[]{"one", "two", "three"};. This line is same as Vehicle v = new Car(); right? In both lines we are assigning sub class object to super class reference variable. But downcasting String[]myObj is allowed but (Bike)v is not. Please help me understand what is going on around here.

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  • Is NSManagedObjectContext autosaved or am I looking at NSFetchedResultsController's cache?

    - by Andreas
    I'm developing an iPhone app where I use a NSFetchedResultsController in the main table view controller. I create it like this in the viewDidload of the main table view controller: NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptorDate = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"date" ascending:YES]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptorTime = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"start" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptorDate,sortDescriptorTime, nil]; [fetchRequest setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [sortDescriptorDate release]; [sortDescriptorTime release]; [sortDescriptors release]; controller = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:fetchRequest managedObjectContext:context sectionNameKeyPath:@"date" cacheName:nil]; [fetchRequest release]; NSError *error; BOOL success = [controller performFetch:&error]; Then, in a subsequent view, I create a new object on the context: TestObject *testObject = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"TestObject" inManagedObjectContext:context]; The TestObject has several related object which I create in the same way and add to the testObject using the provided add...Objects methods. Then, if before saving the context, I press cancel and go back to the main table view, nothing is shown as expected. However, if I restart the app, the object I created on the context shows in the main table view. How come? At first, I thought it was because the NSFetchedResultsController was reading from the cache, but as you can see I set this to nil just to test. Also, [context hasChanges] returns true after I restart. What am I missing here?

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  • how do i parse an xml page to output its data pieces to the way i want?

    - by ida
    here is the page i want to parse (the api link i gave is just a dev test so its ok to be public) http://api.scribd.com/api?method=docs.getList&api_key=2apz5npsqin3cjlbj0s6m the output im looking for is something like this (for now) Doc_id: 29638658 access_key: key-11fg37gwmer54ssq56l3 secret_password: 1trinfqri6cnv3gf6rnl title: Sample description: k thumbnail_url: http://i6.scribdassets.com/public/images/uploaded/152418747/xTkjCwQaGf_thumbnail.jpeg page_count: 100 ive tried everything i can find on the internet but nothing works good. i have this one script <?php $xmlDoc = new DOMDocument(); $xmlDoc->load("http://api.scribd.com/api?method=docs.getList&api_key=2apz5npsqin3cjlbj0s6m"); $x = $xmlDoc->documentElement; foreach ($x->childNodes AS $item) { print $item->nodeName . " = " . $item->nodeValue; } ?> its output comes out like this: #text = resultset = 29638658 key-11fg37gwmer54ssq56l3 1trinfqri6cnv3gf6rnl Sample k http://i6.scribdassets.com/public/images/uploaded/152418747/xTkjCwQaGf_thumbnail.jpeg DONE 100 29713260 key-18a9xret4jf02129vlw8 25fjsmmvl62l4cbwd1vq book2 description bla bla http://i6.scribdassets.com/public/images/uploaded/153065528/oLVqPZMu3zhsOn_thumbnail.jpeg DONE 7 #text = i need major help im really stuck and dont know what to do. please please help me. thnx

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  • C# KeyEvent doesn't log the enter/return key

    - by Pieter888
    Hey all, I've been making this login form in C# and I wanted to 'submit' all the data as soon as the user either clicks on submit or presses the enter/return key. I've been testing a bit with KeyEvents but nothing so far worked. void tbPassword_KeyPress(object sender, KeyPressEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(e.KeyChar.ToString()); } The above code was to test if the event even worked in the first place. It works perfectly, when I press 'd' it shows me 'd' when I press '8' it shows me '8' but pressing enter doesn't do anything. So I though this was because enter isn't really bound to a character but it did show backspace, it worked just fine so it got me confused about why it didn't register my enter key. So the question is: How do I log the enter/return key? and why doesn't it log the key press right right now like it should? note: I've put the event in a textbox tbPassword.KeyPress += new KeyPressEventHandler(tbPassword_KeyPress); So it fires when the enter button is pressed WHILE the textbox is selected (which is was the whole time of course) maybe that has something to do with the execution of the code.

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  • The uncatchable exception, pt 2

    - by chaiguy
    Ok I've done some testing and I've reduced the problem to something very simple: i. Create a method in a new class that throws an exception: public class Class1 { public void CallMe() { string blah = null; blah.ToLower(); } } ii. Create a MethodInfo that points to this method somewhere else: Type class1 = typeof( Class1 ); Class1 obj = new Class1(); MethodInfo method = class1.GetMethod( "CallMe" ); iii. Wrap a call to Invoke() in a try/catch block: try { method.Invoke( obj, null ); // exception is not being caught! } catch { } iv. Run the program without the debugger (works fine). v. Now run the program with the debugger. The debugger will halt the program when the exception occurs, even though it's wrapped in a catch handler that tries to ignore it. (Even if you put a breakpoint in the catch block it will halt before it reaches it!) In fact, the exception is happening when you run it without the debugger too. In a simple test project it's getting ignored at some other level, but if your app has any kind of global exception handling, it will get triggered there as well. This is causing me a real headache because it keeps triggering my app's crash-handler, not to mention the pain it is to attempt to debug.

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  • Really strange problem with jailbroken iPhone 4. Lags but fixes by running Cydia a second

    - by Charkel
    I have jailbreaked my iPhone 4 iOS 4.1 with both limera1n and greenpois0n and the outcome is the same. My phone is really slow opening apps. (including Phone.app an SMS.app) they take about 10-15seconds to load. BUT if I start Cydia for only one second everything goes back to normal. (Please note that I have to have 3G or WI-FI access to do this) Until I let my phone sit for about 15 minutes then it's the same again. Please note that if I don't exit the apps they seem to continue working but with a bit of lag. Cydia also seems to be the only app not affected by the delay. "Loding Data" appears as quick as normal. These issues did not start to appear until about 2 weeks after I jailbreaked my phone. I have tried running "speed test" while it's in its slow state. I start the app and the app loads for like 15 seconds and then the result shows everyhting is good. All green. Since Cydia seems for fix it temporarily i figured it's jailbreak-related and not hardware-related.

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  • Interrupting Prototype handler, alert() vs event.stop()

    - by lxs
    Here's the test page I'm using. This version works fine, forwarding to #success: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html><head> <script type="text/javascript" src="prototype.js"></script> </head><body> <form id='form' method='POST' action='#fail'> <button id='button'>Oh my giddy aunt!</button> <script type="text/javascript"> var fn = function() { $('form').action = "#success"; $('form').submit(); } $('button').observe('mousedown', fn); </script> </form> </body></html> If I empty the handler: var fn = function() { } The form is submitted, but of course we are sent to #fail this time. With an alert in the handler: var fn = function() { alert("omg!"); } The form is not submitted. This is awfully curious. With event.stop(), which is supposed to prevent the browser taking the default action: var fn = function(event) { event.stop(); } We are sent to #fail. So alert() is more effective at preventing a submission than event.stop(). What gives? I'm using Firefox 3.6.3 and Prototype 1.6.0.3. This behaviour also appears in Prototype 1.6.1.

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  • How to use data receive event in Socket class?

    - by affan
    I have wrote a simple client that use TcpClient in dotnet to communicate. In order to wait for data messages from server i use a Read() thread that use blocking Read() call on socket. When i receive something i have to generate various events. These event occur in the worker thread and thus you cannot update a UI from it directly. Invoke() can be use but for end developer its difficult as my SDK would be use by users who may not use UI at all or use Presentation Framework. Presentation framework have different way of handling this. Invoke() on our test app as Microstation Addin take a lot of time at the moment. Microstation is single threaded application and call invoke on its thread is not good as it is always busy doing drawing and other stuff message take too long to process. I want my events to generate in same thread as UI so user donot have to go through the Dispatcher or Invoke. Now i want to know how can i be notified by socket when data arrive? Is there a build in callback for that. I like winsock style receive event without use of separate read thread. I also do not want to use window timer to for polling for data. I found IOControlCode.AsyncIO flag in IOControl() function which help says Enable notification for when data is waiting to be received. This value is equal to the Winsock 2 FIOASYNC constant. I could not found any example on how to use it to get notification. If i am write in MFC/Winsock we have to create a window of size(0,0) which was just used for listening for the data receive event or other socket events. But i don't know how to do that in dotnet application.

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  • Error in merging two sequences of timestamps to yield strings

    - by AruniRC
    The code sorts two input sequences - seq01 and seq02 - on the basis of their timestamp values and returns a sequence that denotes which sequence is to be read for the values to be in order. For cases where seq02's timestamp value is lesser than seq01's timestamp value we yield a "2" to the sequence being returned, else a "1". These denote whether at that point seq01 is to be taken or seq02 is to be taken for the data to be in order (by timestamp value). let mergeSeq (seq01:seq<_>) (seq02:seq<_>) = seq { use iter01 = seq01.GetEnumerator() use iter02 = seq02.GetEnumerator() while iter01.MoveNext() do let _,_,time01 = iter01.Current let _,_,time02 = iter02.Current while time02 < time01 && iter02.MoveNext() do yield "2" yield "1" } To test it in the FSI created two sequences a and b, a={1;3;5;...} and b={0;2;4;...}. So the expected values for let c = mergeSeq a b would have been {"2","1","2","1"...}. However I am getting this error: error FS0001: The type ''a * 'b * 'c' does not match the type 'int' EDIT After correcting: let mergeSeq (seq01:seq<_>) (seq02:seq<_>) = seq { use iter01 = seq01.GetEnumerator() use iter02 = seq02.GetEnumerator() while iter01.MoveNext() do let time01 = iter01.Current let time02 = iter02.Current while time02 < time01 && iter02.MoveNext() do yield "2" yield "1" } After running this, there's another error: call MoveNext. Somehow the iteration is not being performed.

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  • How to check whether a CGPoint is inside a UIImageView?

    - by Horace Ho
    In touchesBegan: CGPoint touch_point = [[touches anyObject] locationInView:self.view]; There are tens of UIImageView around, stored in a NSMutableArray images. I'd like to know is there a built-in function to check if a CGPoint (touch_point) is inside one of the images, e.g.: for (UIImageView *image in images) { // how to test if touch_point is tapped on a image? } Thanks Follow up: For unknown reason, pointInside never returns true. Here is the full code. - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *touch = [touches anyObject]; touch_point = [touch locationInView:self.view]; for (UIImageView *image in piece_images) { if ([image pointInside:touch_point withEvent:event]) { image.hidden = YES; } else { image.hidden = NO; } NSLog(@"image %.0f %.0f touch %.0f %.0f", image.center.x, image.center.y, touch_point.x, touch_point.y); } } although I can the two points are sometimes identical in the NSLog output ... I also tried: if ([image pointInside:touch_point withEvent:nil]) the result is the same. never returns a true. To eliminate the chance of anything goes with with the images. I tried the following: if (YES or [image pointInside:touch_point withEvent:event]) all images are hidden ater the first click on screen.

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  • Using C++ DLL in C# project

    - by Frank
    Hello, I got a C++ dll which has to be integrated in a C# project. I think I found the correct way to do it, but calling the dll gives me this error: System.BadImageFormatException: An attempt was made to load a program with an incorrect format. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8007000B) This is the function in the dll: extern long FAR PASCAL convert (LPSTR filename); And this is the code I'm using in C# namespace Test{ public partial class Form1 : Form { [DllImport("convert.dll", SetLastError = true)] static extern Int32 convert([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] string filename); private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // generate textfile string filename = "testfile.txt"; StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(filename); sw.WriteLine("line1"); sw.WriteLine("line2"); sw.Close(); // add checksum Int32 ret = 0; try { ret = convert(filename); Console.WriteLine("Result of DLL: {0}", ret.ToString()); } catch (Exception ex) { lbl.Text = ex.ToString(); } } }} Any ideas on how to proceed with this? Thanks a lot, Frank

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  • Detaching all entities of T to get fresh data

    - by Goran
    Lets take an example where there are two type of entites loaded: Product and Category, Product.CategoryId - Category.Id. We have available CRUD operations on products (not Categories). If on another screen Categories are updated (or from another user in the network), we would like to be able to reload the Categories, while preserving the context we currently use, since we could be in the middle of editing data, and we do not want changes to be lost (and we cannot depend on saving, since we have incomplete data). Since there is no easy way to tell EF to get fresh data (added, removed and modified), we thought of twp possible ways: 1) Getting products attached to context, and categories detached from context. This would mean that we loose the ability to access Product.Category.Name, which we do sometimes require, so we would need to manually resolve it (example when printing data). 2) detaching / attaching all Categories from current context. Context.ChangeTracker.Entries().Where(x => x.Entity.GetType() == typeof(T)).ForEach(x => x.State = EntityState.Detached); And then reload the categories, which will get fresh data. Do you find any problem with this second approach? We understand that this will require all constraints to be put on foreign keys, and not navigation properties, since when detaching all Categories, Product.Category navigation properties would be reset to null also. Also, there could be a potential performance problem, which we did not test, since there could be couple of thousand products loaded, and all would need to resolve navigation property when reloading. Which of the two do you prefer, and is there a better way (EF6 + .NET 4.0)?

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  • Cannot access Class methods from previous windows form - C#

    - by George
    I am writing an app, still, where I need to test some devices every minute for 30 minutes. It made sense to use a timer set to kick off every 60 secs and do whats required in the event handler. However, I need the app to wait for the 30 mins until I have finished with the timer since the following code alters the state of the devices I am trying to monitor. I obviously don't want to use any form of loop to do this. I thought of using another windows form, since I also display the progress, which will simply kick off the timer and wait until its complete. The problem I am having with this is that I use a device Class and cant seem to get access to the methods in the device class from the 2nd (3rd actually - see below) windows form. I have an initial windows form where I get input from the user, then call the 2nd windows form where it work out which tests need to be done and which device classes need to be used, and then I want to call the 3rd windows form to handle the timer. I will have up to 6-7 device classes and so wanted to only instantiate them when actually requiring them, from the 2nd form. Should I have put this logic into the 1st windows form (program class ??) ? Would I not still have the problem of not being able to access device class methods from there too ? Anyway, perhaps someone knows of a better way to do the checks every minute without the rest of the code executing (and changing the status of the devices) or how I should be accessing the methods in the app ?? Well that's the problem, I cant get that part of it to work correctly. Here is the definition for the calling form including the device class - namespace NdtStart { public partial class fclsNDTCalib : Form { NDTClass NDT = new NDTClass(); public fclsNDTCalib() (new fclsNDTTicker(NDT)).ShowDialog(); Here is the class def for the called form - namespace NdtStart { public partial class fclsNDTTicker : Form { public fclsNDTTicker() I tried lots but couldn't get the arguments to work.

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  • How to properly set JavaMail timeout setting

    - by user286149
    I am using JavaMail to connect to a POP3 server. Further, I set the following properties, so that JavaMail won't wait to long if an email server doesn't respond: props.setProperty("mail.pop3.connectionpooltimeout", "3000"); props.setProperty("mail.pop3.connectiontimeout", "3000"); props.setProperty("mail.pop3.timeout", "3000"); However, in some cases the timeout works properly but sometimes JavaMail freezes for minutes(!) with the following debug message: DEBUG POP3: connecting to host "pop3.yahoo.com", port 110, isSSL false Changing ports or protocols (SSL, TLS..) has no effect. I assume that the host simply doesn't exist. For example, if I poll pop3.yahoo.com instead of pop.mail.yahoo.com (which would be the right host name), I have to wait very long til a timeout exception occurs. After several minutes, I get the following exception and the application continues to run: java.net.ConnectException: Operation timed out pop3.yahoo.com seems to exist but won't respond: localhost:~ me$ ping pop3.yahoo.com PING pop3.yahoo.com (206.190.46.10): 56 data bytes Request timeout for icmp_seq 0 Request timeout for icmp_seq 1 Request timeout for icmp_seq 2 Request timeout for icmp_seq 3 ^C You might be asking why I use pop3.yahoo.com instead of pop.mail.yahoo.com. Well, I simply wanted to test what happens if the user of my application inserts a wrong host name. I believe that this issue is related to this report http://www.opensubscriber.com/message/[email protected]/180946.html where the poster claims that the problem occurs if the email server closes the connection. JavaMail then seems to wait very long (don't know why). Since the issue wasn't resolved in the link I posted: Does somebody know how to fix or at least debug this? Any help would be really appreciated!

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