Search Results

Search found 11547 results on 462 pages for 'parameter binding'.

Page 82/462 | < Previous Page | 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89  | Next Page >

  • Binding collections to DataGridView in Windows Forms

    - by Sergey
    I'm trying to bing collection to DataGridView. As it turns out it's impossible for user to edit anything in this DataGridView although EditMode is set to EditOnKeystrokeOrF2. Here is the simplified code: public Supplies() { InitializeComponent(); List<string> l = new <string>(); l.Add("hello"); this.SuppliesDataGridView.DataSource = l; } It also doesn't work when I change collection type to SortableBindingList, Dictionary or even use BindingSource. What can be wrong here?

    Read the article

  • How to send HTML as GET-Request parameter?

    - by Mork0075
    I would like to send a html string with a GET request like this with Apaches HttpClient: http://sample.com/?html=<html><head>... This doesnt work at the moment, i think its an encoding problem. Do you have any ideas how to do that? method.setQueryString(new NameValuePair[] {new NameValuePair("report", "<html>....")}); client.executeMethod(method) This fails with org.apache.commons.httpclient.NoHttpResponseException: The server localhost failed to respond. If i replace "<html>" by "test.." it works fine. EDIT It seams to be a problem of URL length after encoding, the server doesnt except such long URls. Sending it as POST solves the problem.

    Read the article

  • User Defined Class as a Template Parameter

    - by isurulucky
    Hi, I' m implementing a custom STL map. I need to make sure that any data type (basic or user defined) key will work with it. I declared the Map class as a template which has two parameters for the key and the value. My question is if I need to use a string as the key type, how can I overload the < and operators for string type keys only?? In template specialization we have to specialize the whole class with the type we need as I understand it. Is there any way I can do this in a better way?? What if I add a separate Key class and use it as the template type for Key? Thank You!!

    Read the article

  • How do I form a Rails link_to with custom field value as parameter

    - by rwheadon
    I have an invoice form where I'm giving the user opportunity to apply coupons to the invoice total. These coupons are held in another Model and I am going to do a lookup on the Coupon code (something like "20OFFONFRIDAY") which I will use to find what the restrictions and benefits of the coupon. (and to see if it even exists at all) The invoice does not have "coupon_code" on it so I hand forged the field onto my form with html: <% if (@invoice.status == 'new') %> <input id="coupon_code" name="coupon_code" type="text"/> <% end %> and I am calling a controller method with link_to and would like something like the following jquery enhanced link_to to work: <%= link_to "Apply Coupon", { :controller=>"invoices", :id=>@invoice.id, :coupon_code=>$('.coupon_code').val(), :action=>"apply_coupon_code" }, :method=>"post" %> ^formatted for easier reading Then inside my "apply_coupon_code" method I will go off to a couple other models and perform business logic before returning the updated invoice page. ...but maybe it's a pipe dream. I guess if push came to shove I could add the "coupon_code" field to my invoice model (even though it's persisted elsewhere.) so it's part of the entity and thus easily available on my form to send back into a controller, but I just hate adding a column to make a coupon validation easier. I figured I'd ping stackoverflow before taking that path.

    Read the article

  • model binding of non-sequential arrays

    - by user281180
    I am having a table in which i`m dynamically creating and deleting rows. How can I change the code such that the rows be added and deleted and the model info property filled accordingly. Bearing in mind that the rows can be dynamically created and deleted, I may have Info[0], Inf0[3], info[4]... My objective is to be able to bind the array even if it`s not in sequence. Model public class Person { public int[] Size { get; set; } public string[] Name { get; set; } public Info[]info { get; set; } } public class Info { public string Address { get; set; } public string Tel { get; set; } View <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> $(function () { var count = 1; $('#AddSize').live('click', function () { $("#divSize").append('</br><input type="text" id="Size" name="Size" value=""/><input type = "button" id="AddSize" value="Add"/>'); }); $('#AddName').live('click', function () { $("#divName").append('</br><input type="text" id="Name" name="Name" value=""/><input type = "button" id="AddName" value="Add"/>'); }); $('#AddRow').live('click', function () { $('#details').append('<tr><td>Address</td><td> <input type="text" name="Info[' + count + '].Address"/></td><td>Tel</td><td><input type="text" name="Info[' + count++ + '].Tel"/></td> <td><input type="button" id="AddRow" value="Add"/> </td></tr>'); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="closeForm" action="<%=Url.Action("Create",new{Action="Create"}) %>" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <div id="divSize"> <input type="text" name="Size" value=""/> <input type="button" value="Add" id="AddSize" /> </div> <div id="divName"> <input type="text" name="Name" value=""/> <input type="button" value="Add" id="AddName" /> </div> <div id="Tab"> <table id="details"> <tr><td>Address</td><td> <input type="text" name="Info[0].Address"/></td><td>Tel</td><td><input type="text" name="Info[0].Tel"/></td> <td><input type="button" id="AddRow" value="Add"/> </td></tr> </table> </div> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> </body> } Controller public ActionResult Create(Person person) { return new EmptyResult(); }

    Read the article

  • Binding a select box to a Collection (with Spring)

    - by WiPU
    i have the following problem. I have a form bean and in this bean is a list with objects. List<SomeObjectForm> toDisplay; Now i want map a html select to this list. Something like that: <form:select id="inputGroupFields" path="templateKey" multiple="true"... <form:select id="inputGroupFields" path="templateKey.id" multiple="true"... And this dosnt work of course. Now i have tryed to add different custom Converter like: myConv implements Converter<SomeObjectForm, String> myConv extends StringToObject And this also not work. I'm not sure if this is the right approach or there is a easier way to do that. Some addional Infos: --i'm using spring 3.0.5 --all this happens during a web flow regards and thanks, WiPu

    Read the article

  • struct constructor + function parameter

    - by Oops
    Hi, I am a C++ beginner. I have the following code, the reult is not what I expect. The question is why, resp. what is wrong. For sure, the most of you see it at the first glance. struct Complex { float imag; float real; Complex( float i, float r) { imag = i; real = r; } Complex( float r) { Complex(0, r); } std::string str() { std::ostringstream s; s << "imag: " << imag << " | real: " << real << std::endl; return s.str(); } }; class Complexes { std::vector<Complex> * _complexes; public: Complexes(){ _complexes = new std::vector<Complex>; } void Add( Complex elem ) { _complexes->push_back( elem ); } std::string str( int index ) { std::ostringstream oss; Complex c = _complexes->at(index); oss << c.str(); return oss.str(); } }; int main(){ Complexes * cs = new Complexes(); //cs->Add(123.4f); cs->Add(Complex(123.4f)); std::cout << cs->str(0); return 0; } for now I am interested in the basics of c++ not in the complexnumber theory ;-) it would be nice if the "Add" function does also accept one real (without an extra overloading) instead of only a Complex-object is this possible? many thanks in advance Oops

    Read the article

  • Getting the type of a parametrized class parameter?

    - by GuidoMB
    I have the following class public class MyClass<T> { public Class<T> getDomainClass() { GET THE CLASS OF T } } I've googled this problem and all the answers I could find told me to use getGenericSuperClass(), but the problem of this method is that I must have a second class that extends MyClass and I don't want to do this. What I need is to get the parametrized type of a concrete class?

    Read the article

  • Issue with TagBuilder.MergeAttribute for parameter null

    - by The Yur
    I would like to use Razor's feature not to produce attribute output inside a tag in case when attribute's value is null. So when Razor meets <div class="@var" where @var is null, the output will be mere <div. I've created some Html extension method to write text inside tag. The method takes header text, level (h1..h6), and html attributes as simple object. The code is: public static MvcHtmlString WriteHeader(this HtmlHelper html, string s, int? hLevel = 1, object htmlAttributes = null) { if ((hLevel == null) || (hLevel < 1 || hLevel > 4) || (s.IsNullOrWhiteSpace())) return new MvcHtmlString(""); string cssClass = null, cssId = null, cssStyle = null; if (htmlAttributes != null) { var T = htmlAttributes.GetType(); var propInfo = T.GetProperty("class"); var o = propInfo.GetValue(htmlAttributes); cssClass = o.ToString().IsNullOrWhiteSpace() ? null : o.ToString(); propInfo = T.GetProperty("id"); o = propInfo.GetValue(htmlAttributes); cssId = o.ToString().IsNullOrWhiteSpace() ? null : o.ToString(); propInfo = T.GetProperty("style"); o = propInfo.GetValue(htmlAttributes); cssStyle = o.ToString().IsNullOrWhiteSpace() ? null : o.ToString(); } var hTag = new TagBuilder("h" + hLevel); hTag.MergeAttribute("id", cssId); hTag.MergeAttribute("class", cssClass); hTag.MergeAttribute("style", cssStyle); hTag.InnerHtml = s; return new MvcHtmlString(hTag.ToString()); } I found that in spite of null values for "class" and "style" attributes TagBuilder still puts them as empty strings, like <h1 class="" style="" But for id attribute it surprisingly works, so when id's value is null, there is no id attribute in tag. My question - is such behavior something that should actually happen? How can I achieve absent attributes with null values using TagBuilder? I tried this in VS2013, MVC 5.

    Read the article

  • MySQL: Use CASE/ELSE value as join parameter

    - by DRJ
    I'm trying to join the NAME and PHOTO from USERS table to the TRANSACTIONS table based on who is the payer or payee. It keeps telling me can't find the table this -- What am I doing wrong? SELECT name,photo,amount,comment, ( CASE payer_id WHEN 72823 THEN payee_id ELSE payer_id END ) AS this FROM transactions RIGHT JOIN users ON (users.id=this) WHERE payee_id=72823 OR payer_id=72823

    Read the article

  • Run a proc on several different values of one parameter

    - by WEFX
    I have the following query that gets run within a proc. The function MyFunction returns a table, and this query joins on that table. This proc works great when a @MyArg value is supplied. However, I’m wondering if there’s a way to run this on all @MyArg values in the database. I’m sure there’s a way to do it within a loop, but I know that loops are generally to be avoided at the db layer. I really just need to perform this for the sake of checking (and possibly cleansing) some bad data. SELECT ColumnA, ColumnB, ColumnC FROM ( SELECT a.ColumnA, a.ColumnB, a.ColumnC, ROW_NUMBER() over(partition by a.ColumnD order by f.ColumnX) as RowNum FROM dbo.MyTableA AS a INNER JOIN dbo.MyFunction(@MyArg) f ON f.myID = a.myID WHERE (a.myBit = 1 OR a.myID = @MyArg) ) AS x WHERE x.rownum = 1;

    Read the article

  • How to Pass complex objects in ASP.NET MVC using Get parameters?

    - by VJ
    I am wanting to pass something like the following to my view from my controller via GET not POST: public class MyDTO { public string val1 { get; set; } public string val2 { get; set; } public MyObject obj { get; set; } } public class MyObject { public int SomeInt { get; set; } public string ACoolValue { get; set; } public string YetAnotherCoolValue { get; set; } } And then the controller would like like this. (Note it is a GET): public ActionResult MyView(MyDTO dto) { return View(dto) } The problem is that the instance of MyObject is coming back as null, where val1 and val2 have data. Has anyone run across this?

    Read the article

  • C++ stream as a parameter when overloading operator<<

    - by TheOm3ga
    I'm trying to write my own logging class and use it as a stream: logger L; L << "whatever" << std::endl; This is the code I started with: #include <iostream> using namespace std; class logger{ public: template <typename T> friend logger& operator <<(logger& log, const T& value); }; template <typename T> logger& operator <<(logger& log, T const & value) { // Here I'd output the values to a file and stdout, etc. cout << value; return log; } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { logger L; L << "hello" << '\n' ; // This works L << "bye" << "alo" << endl; // This doesn't work return 0; } But I was getting an error when trying to compile, saying that there was no definition for operator<<: pruebaLog.cpp:31: error: no match for ‘operator<<’ in ‘operator<< [with T = char [4]](((logger&)((logger*)operator<< [with T = char [4]](((logger&)(& L)), ((const char (&)[4])"bye")))), ((const char (&)[4])"alo")) << std::endl’ So, I've been trying to overload operator<< to accept this kind of streams, but it's driving me mad. I don't know how to do it. I've been loking at, for instance, the definition of std::endl at the ostream header file and written a function with this header: logger& operator <<(logger& log, const basic_ostream<char,char_traits<char> >& (*s)(basic_ostream<char,char_traits<char> >&)) But no luck. I've tried the same using templates instead of directly using char, and also tried simply using "const ostream& os", and nothing. Another thing that bugs me is that, in the error output, the first argument for operator<< changes, sometimes it's a reference to a pointer, sometimes looks like a double reference...

    Read the article

  • Update rich:dataTable binding on Ajax selectionchange

    - by MilkJug
    I want to find the current selection of the data table whenever a selection changes. I can update other items using: <a4j:ajax render=":tmp,:tmp2" event="selectionchange"> But I cannot find the current selection - I think the major issue is that the UIExtendedDataTable backing does not get updated on the Ajax request. Is there a way to update the current selection on a selectionchange (Using RichFaces 4)?

    Read the article

  • Isn't objective-c function parameter syntax weird? [closed]

    - by Haoest
    Consider the following method: +(void) myMethod:(int)arg1 **argument2**(int)arg2 **argument3**(int) arg3; See how the first argument, unlike the 2nd and 3rd, doesn't have a description, giving it an impression of bad symmetry. Also you would expect the extra typing will provide named argument as you pass it in, but you still have to pass them in the correct order. Can anyone help me make sense of this?

    Read the article

  • JNI - native method with ByteBuffer parameter

    - by Ajan
    I've got a method: public native void doSomething(ByteBuffer in, ByteBuffer out); Generated by javah C/C++ header of this method is: JNIEXPORT void JNICALL Java__MyClass_doSomething (JNIEnv *, jobject, jobject, jobject, jint, jint); How can I get a data array from jobject (that is a ByteBuffer instance) ?

    Read the article

  • c# Wrapper to native c++ code, wrapping a parameter which is a pointer to an array

    - by mb300dturbo
    Hi, I have the following simple DLL in c++ un-managed code; extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) void ArrayMultiplier(float (*pointerArray)[3], int scalar, int length); void ArrayMultiplier(float (*pointerArray)[3], int scalar, int length) { for (int i = 0 ; i < length ; length++) { for (int j = 0; j < 3; j++) { pointerArray[i][j] = pointerArray[i][j] * scalar; } } } I have tried writing the following wrapper function for the above in c#: [DllImport("sample.dll")] public static extern void ArrayMultiplier(ref float elements, int scalar, int length); where elements is a 2 dimentional 3x3 array: public float[][] elements = { new float[] {2,5,3}, new float [] {4,8,6}, new float [] {5,28,3} }; The code given above compiles, but the program crashes when the wrapper function is called: Wrapper.ArrayMultiplier(ref elements, scalar, length); Please help me here, and tell me whats wrong with the code above, or how a wrapper can be written for a simple c++ function: void SimpleFunction(float (*pointerToArray)[3]); Thank you all in advance

    Read the article

  • Calling C++/CLI Method with System::DateTime parameter requires 'ValueType' as a parameter?

    - by David Ipsen
    I'm attempting to call a method written in C++/CLI from C#. The C++/CLI code is used to update a TIMESTAMP column in an Oracle database, given a record ID and the System::DateTime object which is the .NET compatible data type for Oracle's TIMESTAMP type. The method I am calling has the following prototype: bool ChangeJobUpdateDate (int jobIdIn, System::DateTime^ updateDateIn) I've added a reference to this DLL project in a test project that I made; I'm writing the tests in C#. However, when I try to call this method from the C# unit test project, the function appears to have the following method declaration (via intellisense): bool ChangeJobUpdateDate (int jobIdIn, ValueType updateDateIn) I'm admittedly not that familiar with C++/CLI, so is there something I'm missing?

    Read the article

  • current url javascript binding into html

    - by soField
    document.write("window.location.href");&layout=button_count&show_faces=true&width=450&action=like&font=arial&colorscheme=light&height=21" scrolling="no" frameborder="0" style="border:none; overflow:hidden; width:450px; height:21px;" allowTransparency="true" i am trying to bind current url of my page to this html how can i do that

    Read the article

  • Tomcat6 fails to update User parameter on a stopped service

    - by Woot4Moo
    At the moment I have installed tomcat via the service.bat command. After install I stop the service and execute the following command: //US//TOMCAT6 --User=MyUser this fails to update the service with the user MyUser, in addition this command also fails //US//TOMCAT6 --User=MyUser --Password=MyPassword I am running xp sp3 and it is Tomcat 6.20

    Read the article

  • Passing data to a jQuery click() function

    - by jakenoble
    Hi I have a simple span like so <span class="action removeAction">Remove</span> This span is within a table, each row has a remove span. And then I call a URL using AJAX when that span is clicked. The AJAX event needs to know the ID of the object for that row? What is the best way of getting that ID into the click function? I thought I could do something like this <span class="action removeAction" id="1">Remove</span> But an ID should not start with a number? Right? Then I thought I could do <span class="action removeAction" id="my1">Remove</span> Then just strip the 'my' part from the ID, but that just seems Yuk! Below is my click event and where my AJAX event is. <script type="text/javascript" language="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".removeAction").click(function() { //AJAX here that needs to know the ID } }); </script> I am sure there is a nice way of doing this? Thanks. Jake.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89  | Next Page >