Search Results

Search found 57327 results on 2294 pages for 'nested set'.

Page 828/2294 | < Previous Page | 824 825 826 827 828 829 830 831 832 833 834 835  | Next Page >

• Pylons error "No object (name: request) has been registered for this thread" with debug = false

  - by Evgeny

  I'm unable to access the request object in my Pylons 0.9.7 controller when I set debug = false in the .ini file. I have the following code: def run_something(self): print('!!! request = %r' % request) print('!!! request.params = %r' % request.params) yield 'Stuff' With debugging enabled this works fine and prints out: !!! request = <Request at 0x9571190 POST http://my_url> !!! request.params = UnicodeMultiDict([... lots of stuff ...]) If I set debug = false I get the following: !!! request = <paste.registry.StackedObjectProxy object at 0x4093790> Error - <type 'exceptions.TypeError'>: No object (name: request) has been registered for this thread The stack trace confirms that the error is on the print('!!! request.params = %r' % request.params) line. I'm running it using the Paste server and these two lines are the very first lines in my controller method. This only occurs if I have yield statements in the method (even though the statements aren't reached). I'm guessing Pylons sees that it's a generator method and runs it on some other thread. My questions are: How do I make it work with debug = false ? Why does it work with debug = true ? Obviously this is quite a dangerous bug, since I normally develop with debug = true, so it can go unnoticed during development.

  Read the article

• Twitter-OAuth update_profile_*_image methods problem [EpiTwitter]

  - by KPL

  People, I have been struggling over the two methods - Update Profile Image and Update Background Image I am using EpiTwitter library. I am uploading GIFs, Twitter returns the expected result for update_profile_background_image but returns 401 for update_profile_image , but the image is not changed. Here are the headers catched from $apiObj-headers in my case while using the update_profile_background_image Array ( [Date] = Sat, 24 Apr 2010 17:51:36 GMT [Server] = hi [Status] = 200 OK [X-Transaction] = 1272131495-55190-23911 [ETag] = b6a421c01936f3547802ae6b59ee7ef3" [Last-Modified] = Sat, 24 Apr 2010 17:51:36 GMT [X-Runtime] = 0.13990 [Content-Type] = application/json; charset=utf-8 [Content-Length] = 1272 [Pragma] = no-cache [X-Revision] = DEV [Expires] = Tue, 31 Mar 1981 05:00:00 GMT [Cache-Control] = no-cache, no-store, must-revalidate, pre- check=0, post-check=0 [Set-Cookie] = *REMOVED* [Vary] = Accept-Encoding [Connection] = close ) and for update_profile_image - Array ( [Date] => Sat, 24 Apr 2010 17:57:58 GMT [Server] => hi [Status] => 401 Unauthorized [WWW-Authenticate] => Basic realm="Twitter API" [X-Runtime] => 0.02263 [Content-Type] => text/html; charset=utf-8 [Content-Length] => 152 [Cache-Control] => no-cache, max-age=300 [Set-Cookie] => *REMOVED* [Expires] => Sat, 24 Apr 2010 18:02:58 GMT [Vary] => Accept-Encoding [Connection] => close ) Can somebody help me out?

  Read the article

• Wrapped WPF Control

  - by Robert

  Hi, I'm trying to create a GUI (WPF) Library where each (custom) control basically wraps an internal (third party) control. Then, I'm manually exposing each property (not all of them, but almost). In XAML the resulting control is pretty straightforward: <my:CustomButton Content="ClickMe" /> And the code behind is quite simple as well: public class CustomButton : Control { private MyThirdPartyButton _button = null; static CustomButton() { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(CustomButton), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(typeof(CustomButton))); } public CustomButton() { _button = new MyThirdPartyButton(); this.AddVisualChild(_button); } protected override int VisualChildrenCount { get { return _button == null ? 0 : 1; } } protected override Visual GetVisualChild(int index) { if (_button == null) { throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException(); } return _button; } #region Property: Content public Object Content { get { return GetValue(ContentProperty); } set { SetValue(ContentProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty ContentProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "Content", typeof(Object), typeof(CustomButton), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(new PropertyChangedCallback(ChangeContent)) ); private static void ChangeContent(DependencyObject source, DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { (source as CustomButton).UpdateContent(e.NewValue); } private void UpdateContent(Object sel) { _button.Content = sel; } #endregion } The problem comes after we expose MyThirdPartyButton as a property (in case we don't expose something, we would like to give the programmer the means to use it directly). By simply creating the property, like this: public MyThirdPartyButton InternalControl { get { return _button; } set { if (_button != value) { this.RemoveVisualChild(_button); _button = value; this.AddVisualChild(_button); } } } The resulting XAML would be this: <my:CustomButton> <my:CustomButton.InternalControl> <thirdparty:MyThirdPartyButton Content="ClickMe" /> </my:CustomButton.InternalControl> And what I'm looking for, is something like this: <my:CustomButton> <my:CustomButton.InternalControl Content="ClickMe" /> But (with the code I have) its impossible to add attributes to InternalControl... Any ideas/suggestions? Thanks a lot, -- Robert

  Read the article

• scripsharp reference web service / strongly type to results model

  - by user175528

  With scriptsharp (script#) is it possible to get strong typing when calling a service defined in my web app? The only way I can see is to: 1 - use linked / shared files to shadow copy my results classes / domain models across into my script# lib 2 - replicate my model across in the script# lib and use automapper to validate? 3 - use some .tt to code gen? also, even if I can do this, how do I get around the auto camel-casing script# does, when my service result (asmx) wont do this? (so my JSON response will comback as UserMessage, script# will have changed that to userMessage) basically, what I am looking to use script# to achieve is better compile time support against our domain model when calling and processing services in javascript, so something like this: Scriptlet public static class MyScriptlet { public static void Main() { MyService.Service1("hello", ProcessResponse);} public static void ProcessResponse(MyService.Service1ResponseData resp) { jQuery.Select('#Message').Text(resp.UserMessage); jQuery.Select('#Detail').Text(resp.UserDetail); } Service (in our web app) public class MyService { public class Service1ResponseData { public string UserMessage {get;set;} public string UserDetail {get;set;} } public Service1ResponseData Service1(string user) { return new Service1ResponseData() { UserMessage:"hi",UserDetail:"some text"}; } }

  Read the article

• Crystal reports 11 RDC (COM API) displays printer dialog even when I tell it not to prompt

  - by bdonlan

  I'm using Crystal Reports 11's RDC (COM) API to print. My code looks like this: HRESULT res = m_Report->SelectPrinter(b_driver, b_device, b_port); if (FAILED(res)) return res; // For these calls, the #import wrapper throws on error m_Report->PutPrinterDuplex(dmDuplex); m_Report->PutPaperSize(dmPaperSize); m_Report->PutPaperSource((CRPaperSource)pdlg->GetDevMode()->dmDefaultSource); if (m_Report->GetPaperOrientation() == crDefaultPaperOrientation) m_Report->PutPaperOrientation(crPortrait); VARIANT vfalse; VariantInit(&vfalse); vfalse.vt=VT_BOOL; vfalse.boolVal=0; res = m_Report->PrintOut(vfalse); However, at the end of all this, crystal reports still shows its own printer selection dialog - but only for some reports, it seems. Why does crystal reports show a print dialog even when I pass false for promptUser? And how, then, can I suppress crystal reports' internal printer selection dialog and force it to use my values? Edit: Whoops, CR11, not CR9. Some further information: The reports that work properly (ie, do not show the print dialog) are generated internally using the RDC API; we create a new report object, import subreports into it, then print the result. No problem there. The reports that do not work properly (ie, force the print dialog to open) have been created with a previous version of crystal reports; however, opening and saving the report does not seem to help. Sample reports in the Crystal Reports installation directory show the same problem. I tried reproducing with VBScript; however, the result was that nothing was printed at all (no dialog, no nothing): Set app = CreateObject("CrystalRuntime.Application.11") Set report = app.OpenReport("C:\Program Files\Business Objects\Crystal Reports 11.5\Samples\en\Reports\General Business\Inventory Crosstab.rpt") report.PrintOut(True) rem Testing with a True parameter to force a print dialog - but no printout and nothing appears (no error either though)

  Read the article

• Tracking Down a Stack Overflow in My Linq Query

  - by Lazarus

  I've written the following Linq query: IQueryable<ISOCountry> entries = (from e in competitorRepository.Competitors join c in countries on e.countryID equals c.isoCountryCode where !e.Deleted orderby c.isoCountryCode select new ISOCountry() { isoCountryCode = e.countryID, Name = c.Name }).Distinct(); The objective is to retrieve a list of the countries represented by the competitors found in the system. 'countries' is an array of ISOCountry objects explicitly created and returned as an IQueryable (ISOCountry is an object of just two strings, isoCountryCode and Name). Competitors is an IQueryable which is bound to a database table through Linq2SQL though I created the objects from scratch and used the Linq data mapping decorators. For some reason this query causes a stack overflow when the system tries to execute it. I've no idea why, I've tried trimming the Distinct, returning an anonymous type of the two strings, using 'select c', all result in the overflow. The e.CountryID value is populated from a dropdown that was in itself populated from the IQueryable so I know the values are appropriate but even if not I wouldn't expect a stack overflow. Can anyone explain why the overflow is occurring or give good speculation as to why it might be happening? EDIT As requested, code for ISOCountry: public class ISOCountry { public string isoCountryCode { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } }

  Read the article

• How to deal with calculated values with Dependency Properties on a custom WPF control

  - by jpierson

  To summarize what I'm doing, I have a custom control that looks like a checked listbox and that has two dependency properties one that provides a list of available options and the other that represents a enum flag value that combines the selection options. So as I mentioned my custom control exposes two different DependencyProperties, one of which is a list of options called Options and the other property called SelectedOptions is of a specific Enum type that uses the [Flags] attribute to allow combinations of values to be set. My UserControl then contains an ItemsControl similar to a ListBox that is used to display the options along with a checkbox. When the check box is checked or unchecked the SelectedOptions property should be updated accordingly by using the corresponding bitwise operation. The problem I'm experiencing is that I have no way other than resorting to maintaining private fields and handling property change events to update my properties which just feels unatural in WPF. I have tried using ValueConverters but have run into the problem that I can't really using binding with the value converter binding so I would need to resort to hard coding my enum values as the ValueConverter parameter which is not acceptable. If anybody has seen a good example of how to do this sanely I would greatly appreciate any input. Side Note: This has been a problem I've had in the past too while trying to wrap my head around how dependency properties don't allow calculated or deferred values. Another example is when one may want to expose a property on a child control as a property on the parent. Most suggest in this case to use binding but that only works if the child controls property is a Dependency Property since placing the binding so that the target is the parent property it would be overwritten when the user of the parent control wants to set their own binding for that property.

  Read the article

• Custom UITableViewCell with 2 UILabel's resized

  - by petert

  I'm struggling to create a custom UITableViewCell (in IB) that has a UIImageView on the left, fixed to the top left corner, then 2 UILabel's adjacent to it, side by side. So the cell looks something like: +---------------------------+ | IMAGE LABEL1 LABEL2 > | +---------------------------+ What I cannot seem to do is to change the frame of LABEL1 so it fits the text is contains, then make sure LABEL2 moves to the left (or right) so it ends up directly adjacent to it, filling all the space for the rest of the cell. So, concentrating on the label text, I'd like cell to look like this: +---------------------------+ | IMAGE Call 123456 > | +---------------------------+ after I've set LABEL1 to "Call" and LABEL2 to "123456" in: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath Actually I can resize LABEL1 with this: CGSize sizeToMakeLabel = [label.text sizeWithFont:label.font]; label.frame = CGRectMake(label.frame.origin.x, label.frame.origin.y, sizeToMakeLabel.width + 3, sizeToMakeLabel.height); Now the frame for the text "Call" fits this text (confirmed by setting a background color), but the text "123456" doesn't seem to shift to the left, whatever autosizing I set in IB, or methods to resize the cells view? I seem to need the +3 to make sure "Call" didn't look like this "C…" also? I'm using 2 labels so LABEL1 can be in a bold font say.

  Read the article

• asp.net mvc cookies not being sent back

  - by brian b

  My application at mysubdomain.mydomain.com needs to set a cookie that contains some user session information. They log in at a https page. We authenticate them and set some session info in a cookie. We do this in a helper library that takes in the controller context contextBase.Response.Cookies[CookiePayload.CookieName].Value = encryptedTicket; contextBase.Response.Cookies[CookiePayload.CookieName].Expires = cookieExpires; contextBase.Response.Cookies[CookiePayload.CookieName].Domain= ConfigHelper.CookieDomain; contextBase.Response.Cookies[CookiePayload.CookieName].HttpOnly=true; We do a quick redirect in the controller (to a non https page): this.ControllerContext.HttpContext.Response.Redirect(redirectTo, false); return null; The cookie appears in the response (according to firebug's net tab). But neither fireforx nor ie send the cookie on subsequent gets. We are setting the cookie domain to mydomain.com even though the site is mysubdomain.mydomain.com. Skipping the redirect command has no effect, nor does changing the cookie value. I'm baffled. Thanks for any suggestions.

  Read the article

• Relation between HTTP Keep Alive duration and TCP timeout duration

  - by Suresh Kumar

  I am trying to understand the relation between TCP/IP and HTTP timeout values. Are these two timeout values different or same? Most Web servers allow users to set the HTTP Keep Alive timeout value through some configuration. How is this value used by the Web servers? is this value just set on the underlying TCP/IP socket i.e is the HTTP Keep Alive timeout and TCP/IP Keep Alive Timeout same? or are they treated differently? My understanding is (maybe incorrect): The Web server uses the default timeout on the underlying TCP socket (i.e. indefinite) regardless of the configured HTTP Keep Alive timeout and creates a Worker thread that counts down the specified HTTP timeout interval. When the Worker thread hits zero, it closes the connection. EDIT: My question is about the relation or difference between the two timeout durations i.e. what will happen when HTTP keep-alive timeout duration and the timeout on the Socket (SO_TIMEOUT) which the Web server uses is different? should I even worry about these two being same or not?

  Read the article

• OpenStreetMap Proximity search using mySQL

  - by Chris

  Hi, I'm just playing around with a dataset of my region generated by JOSM. I moved it into a mySQL DB with the 0.6 API scheme using Osmosis and now I'm desperately trying the following: I want to get all streets of a city. AFAIK there is no tag/relation in the OSM data to determine this so I tried it using a proximity search to get all nodes in a radius around a node representing the city center. Most of the time I looked at the approaches here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/574691/mysql-great-circle-distance-haversine-formula What I got is the following SQL code that should get me the closest 100 nodes around the node with id 36187002 and within a radius of 10km. set @nodeid = 36187002; set @dist = 10; select longitude, latitude into @mylon, @mylat from nodes where id=@nodeid limit 1; SELECT id, ( 6371 * acos( cos( radians(@mylon) ) * cos( radians( latitude ) ) * cos( radians( longitude ) - radians(@mylat) ) + sin( radians(@mylon) ) * sin( radians( latitude ) ) ) ) AS distance FROM nodes HAVING distance < @dist ORDER BY distance LIMIT 0 , 100; Well.. it doesn't work. :( I guess the main problem is that OSM lats/lons are multiplied by 10.000.000 and I don't know how I can correct this function to make it work. Any ideas about this? All solutions/alternatives are very welcome! Have a nice weekend! Chris

  Read the article

• Declraing namespace schema with prefix in XSD/XML

  - by user1493537

  I am new to XML and I have a couple of questions about prefix. I need to "add the root schema element and insert the declaration for the XML schema namespace using the xc prefix. Set the default namespace and target of the schema to the URI test.com/test1" I am doing: <xc:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns="http://test.com/test1" targetNamespace="http://test.com/test1"> </xc:schema> Is this correct? The next one is: "insert the root schema element, declaring the XML schema namespace with the xc prefix. Declare the library namespace using the lib prefix and the contributors namespace using the cont prefix. Set the default namespace and the schema target to URI test.com/test2" The library URI is http://test.com/library and contributor URI is test.com/contributor I am doing: <xc:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:lib="http://test.com/library" xmlns:clist="http://test.com/contributor" targetNamespace="http://test.com/test2"> </xc:schema> Does this look right? I am confused with prefix and all. Thanks for the help.

  Read the article

• Working around MySQL error "Deadlock found when trying to get lock; try restarting transaction"

  - by Anon Guy

  Hi all: I have a MySQL table with about 5,000,000 rows that are being constantly updated in small ways by parallel Perl processes connecting via DBI. The table has about 10 columns and several indexes. One fairly common operation gives rise to the following error sometimes: DBD::mysql::st execute failed: Deadlock found when trying to get lock; try restarting transaction at Db.pm line 276. The SQL statement that triggers the error is something like this: UPDATE file_table SET a_lock = 'process-1234' WHERE param1 = 'X' AND param2 = 'Y' AND param3 = 'Z' LIMIT 47 The error is triggered only sometimes. I'd estimate in 1% of calls or less. However, it never happened with a small table and has become more common as the database has grown. Note that I am using the a_lock field in file_table to ensure that the four near-identical processes I am running do not try and work on the same row. The limit is designed to break their work into small chunks. I haven't done much tuning on MySQL or DBD::mysql. MySQL is a standard Solaris deployment, and the database connection is set up as follows: my $dsn = "DBI:mysql:database=" . $DbConfig::database . ";host=${DbConfig::hostname};port=${DbConfig::port}"; my $dbh = DBI->connect($dsn, $DbConfig::username, $DbConfig::password, { RaiseError => 1, AutoCommit => 1 }) or die $DBI::errstr; I have seen online that several other people have reported similar errors and that this may be a genuine deadlock situation. I have two questions: What exactly about my situation is causing the error above? Is there a simple way to work around it or lessen its frequency? For example, how exactly do I go about "restarting transaction at Db.pm line 276"? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Firebird sequence-backed ID shorthand

  - by pilcrow

  What do others do to simplify the creation of simple, serial surrogate keys populated by a SEQUENCE (a.k.a. GENERATOR) in Firebird = 2.1? I finc the process comparatively arduous: For example, in PostgreSQL, I simply type: pg> CREATE TABLE tbl ( > id SERIAL NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, > ... In MySQL, I simply type: my> CREATE TABLE tbl ( > id INT NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY AUTO_INCREMENT, > ... But in Firebird I type: fb> CREATE TABLE tbl ( > id BIGINT NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, > ... fb> CREATE SEQUENCE tbl_id_seq; fb> SET TERM !!; > CREATE TRIGGER tbl_id_trg FOR tbl > ACTIVE BEFORE INSERT POSITION 0 > AS > BEGIN > IF ((new.id IS NULL) OR (new.id <= 0)) THEN > BEGIN > new.id = GEN_ID(tbl_id_seq, 1); > END > END !! > SET TERM ; !! ... and I get pretty bored by the time I reach trigger definition. However, I routinely make SEQUENCE-backed ID fields for temporary, developement and throw-away tables. What do others do to simplify this? Work with an IDE? Run a pre-processing, in-house perl script over the DDL file? Etc.

  Read the article

• Jelly script to reset the issue resolution in JIRA

  - by edlftt

  I am trying to run a jelly script in JIRA to set the resolution to null for all my issues. The following script runs without errors and returns this: <JiraJelly xmlns:jira='jelly:com.atlassian.jira.jelly.JiraTagLib' xmlns:log='jelly:log' xmlns:core='jelly:core' xmlns:jx='jelly:xml' xmlns:util='jelly:util'>org.ofbiz.core.entity.GenericValue.NULL_VALUEorg.ofbiz.core.entity.GenericValue.NULL_VALUEorg.ofbiz.core.entity.GenericValue.NULL_VALUE.... </JiraJelly> Here is the script. <JiraJelly xmlns:jira="jelly:com.atlassian.jira.jelly.JiraTagLib" xmlns:util="jelly:util" xmlns:core="jelly:core" xmlns:jx="jelly:xml" xmlns:log="jelly:log"> <jira:RunSearchRequest var="issues" /> <core:forEach var="genericIssue" items="${issues}"> <core:invokeStatic className="com.atlassian.jira.issue.IssueImpl" method="getIssueObject" var="issue"> <core:arg type="org.ofbiz.core.entity.GenericValue" value="${genericIssue}"/> </core:invokeStatic> <core:invoke on="${issue}" method="setResolution"> <core:arg type="org.ofbiz.core.entity.GenericValue">org.ofbiz.core.entity.GenericValue.NULL_VALUE</core:arg> </core:invoke> </core:forEach> </JiraJelly> Does any one have any idea why this isn't working or have any ideas on how I might set the resolution to nothing? Thank you!!

  Read the article

• How does Android decide which background resource to draw on the foreground?

  - by Sebi

  I defined two ImageButton which are contained in a LinearLayout in my XML layout file: <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/tabs" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:orientation="horizontal" android:minHeight="40px" android:background="@drawable/library_tabs_background"> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/button_library" android:layout_width="160px" android:paddingTop="7px" android:layout_height="40px" android:paddingLeft="30px" android:orientation="horizontal"> <ImageButton android:id="@+id/list" android:layout_width="110px" android:layout_height="30px" android:src="@drawable/library_tab1_button_active"> </ImageButton> </LinearLayout> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/button_search" android:layout_width="160px" android:paddingTop="7px" android:layout_height="40px" android:orientation="horizontal"> <ImageButton android:id="@+id/search" android:layout_width="110px" android:layout_height="30px" android:src="@drawable/library_tab2_button_deactive"> </ImageButton> </LinearLayout> </LinearLayout> As one can see in the XML file, also the LinearLayout in which the buttons are contained, a background image is set. This two images (the button background and the linearlayout background) are overlapping. So in some views, the button background is in front of the layout background and in other views (im using a view flipper), the background of the layer is in the foreground. How can i set a clear rule? How does Android decide which BackgroundResource to draw first?

  Read the article

• asp.net mvc json result format

  - by ile

  public class JsonCategoriesDisplay { public JsonCategoriesDisplay() { } public int CategoryID { set; get; } public string CategoryTitle { set; get; } } public class ArticleCategoryRepository { private DB db = new DB(); public IQueryable<JsonCategoriesDisplay> JsonFindAllCategories() { var result = from c in db.ArticleCategories select new JsonCategoriesDisplay { CategoryID = c.CategoryID, CategoryTitle = c.Title }; return result; } .... } public class ArticleController : Controller { ArticleRepository articleRepository = new ArticleRepository(); ArticleCategoryRepository articleCategoryRepository = new ArticleCategoryRepository(); public string Categories() { var jsonCats = articleCategoryRepository.JsonFindAllCategories().ToList(); //return Json(jsonCats, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); return new JavaScriptSerializer().Serialize(new { jsonCats}); } } This results with following: {"jsonCats":[{"CategoryID":2,"CategoryTitle":"Politika"},{"CategoryID":3,"CategoryTitle":"Informatika"},{"CategoryID":4,"CategoryTitle":"Nova kategorija"},{"CategoryID":5,"CategoryTitle":"Testna kategorija"}]} If I use line that is commented and place JsonResult instead of returning string, I get following result: [{"CategoryID":2,"CategoryTitle":"Politika"},{"CategoryID":3,"CategoryTitle":"Informatika"},{"CategoryID":4,"CategoryTitle":"Nova kategorija"},{"CategoryID":5,"CategoryTitle":"Testna kategorija"}] But, I need result to be formatted like this: {'2':'Politika','3':'Informatika','4':'Nova kateorija','5':'Testna kategorija'} Is there a simple way to accomplish this or I will need to hardcode result? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• Flow control in a batch file

  - by dboarman-FissureStudios

  Reference Iterating arrays in a batch file I have the following: for /f "tokens=1" %%Q in ('query termserver') do ( if not ERRORLEVEL ( echo Checking %%Q for /f "tokens=1" %%U in ('query user %UserID% /server:%%Q') do (echo %%Q) ) ) When running query termserver from the command line, the first two lines are: Known ------------------------- ...followed by the list of terminal servers. However, I do not want to include these as part of the query user command. Also, there are about 4 servers I do not wish to include. When I supply UserID with this code, the program is promptly exiting. I know it has something to do with the if statement. Is this not possible to nest flow control inside the for-loop? I had tried setting a variable to exactly the names of the servers I wanted to check, but the iteration would end on the first server: set TermServers=Server1.Server2.Server3.Server7.Server8.Server10 for /f "tokens=2 delims=.=" %%Q in ('set TermServers') do ( echo Checking %%Q for /f "tokens=1" %%U in ('query user %UserID% /server:%%Q') do (echo %%Q) ) I would prefer this second example over the first if nothing else for cleanliness. Any help regarding either of these issues would be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• COM access to classic ASP intrinsic objects

  - by wrench

  I'm converting a VB6 COM object that works with classic ASP to a c# .Net COM Object Interop_COMSVCS.ObjectContext objContext; Interop_COMSVCS.AppServer objAppServer; objAppServer = null; // need to initialize before using objAppServer = new Interop_COMSVCS.AppServer(); objContext = objAppServer.GetObjectContext(); oApplication = (Interop_ASP.Application)objContext["Application"]; oSession = (Interop_ASP.Session)objContext["Session"]; oResponse = (Interop_ASP.Response)objContext["Response"]; oRequest = (Interop_ASP.Request)objContext["Request"]; oSession works to store local information to.from ASP storage oResponse can do simple writes to the browser BUT any code like oRequest.Cookies["sessionId"] or oResponse.Cookies["sessionId"] doesn't provide any sort of read or write access. Any cast or conversion I trry to do tells me I'm dealing with an empty or null System Object. There doesn't seem to be any sort of syntax to get/set the cookie collection. With COM+ I've seesn soem articles that indcate a switch for Access to ASP Intrinsic Objects -- that seesm to describe my issue, but I'd rather not use COM+. There are also some articles that indicate if I was using ASP.NET I could use HttpContext and HttpRequest/Response, but that's a completely different set of data objects that don't seem to be available with classic ASP. I've been stuck on this fopr a few days. Any help appreciated.

  Read the article

• [WPF Datagrid] Binding to a List<>

  - by Tr?n Qu?c Bình

  I have a datagrid like this: <dg:DataGrid Name="dg" AutoGenerateColumns="False" CanUserDeleteRows="True"> <dg:DataGrid.Columns> <dg:DataGridTextColumn Header="Product Code" x:Name="columnProductCode" Binding="{Binding Path=Product.ProductCode}" IsReadOnly="True" ></dg:DataGridTextColumn> <dg:DataGridTextColumn Header="Product Name" x:Name="columnProductName" Binding="{Binding Path=Product.Name}" IsReadOnly="True" ></dg:DataGridTextColumn> <dg:DataGridTextColumn Header="ProductMeasure" x:Name="columnDonViTinh" Binding="{Binding Path=Product.Measure IsReadOnly="True"></dg:DataGridTextColumn> <dg:DataGridTextColumn Header="Quantity" x:Name="ColumnQuantity" Binding="{Binding Path=Quantity IsReadOnly="False"></dg:DataGridTextColumn> </dg:DataGrid.Columns> </dg:DataGrid> In the behind code, I have a struct like this: private struct ProductDetail { public TProduct Product { get; set ; } // TProduct is a class provied by a web service public int Quantity { get; set; } } and a List like this: private IList<ProductDetail> bs = new List<ProductDetail>(); I had tried to fill data to "bs". And binding like this: this.dg.ItemsSource = this.bs; Everything is ok. I can insert a new row, delete row, but when I try to modified the column Quantity then click on the header of the datagrid (to resort) -- the Quantity column change to it is before. How can I fix this problem. Thanks advanced.

  Read the article

• Rendering a control generates security exception in .Net 4

  - by Jason Short

  I am having a problem with code that worked fine in .Net 2 giving this error under .Net 4. Build (web): Inheritance security rules violated while overriding member: 'Controls.RelatedPosts.RenderControl(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter)'. Security accessibility of the overriding method must match the security accessibility of the method being overriden. This is in DotNetBlogEngine. There were several other security demands in the code that .Net 4 didn't seem to like. I followed some of the advice I found on blogs (and here) and got rid of all the other errors. But this one still eludes me. The Main blogengine core dll is not set for security demands anylonger and is compiled for .Net 4 as well. This error is in the website side attempting to use the dll. There are controls that call a RenderControl method taking an HtmlTextWriter. Apparently the text writer now has some soft of security attributes set on it. Each of the controls implements a custom interface ( public interface ICustomFilter ), there are no security permissions present or demands. The site is running full trust on my local dev machine.

  Read the article

• Data view web part throwing error

  - by Ashutosh Singh

  Hi I'm using a xslt based dataview webpart the steps i have taken to create a data view webpart is that 1. added a list view webpart on the page 2. Modified the toolbar property to show fulll toolbar 3. open the web page containing above list view webpart in sharepoint desginer and converted it to xslt based webpart (to make further changes in UI) 4. saved the page and previewed in browser in browser web part was throwing the error while i was able to see it properly in desginer witout any error the error maesseged shown in webpart was: ** Unable to display this Web Part. To troubleshoot the problem, open this Web page in a Windows SharePoint Services-compatible HTML editor such as Microsoft Office SharePoint Designer. If the problem persists, contact your Web server administrator. ** the error message provided in sharepoint log file was : 05/12/2010 17:56:29.54 w3wp.exe (0x19FC) 0x1E9C Windows SharePoint Services Web Parts 89a1 Monitorable Error while executing web part: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.SharePoint.WebPartPages.DataFormWebPart.ResolveParameterValuesToXsl(ArgumentClassWrapper argList) at Microsoft.SharePoint.WebPartPages.DataFormWebPart.PrepareAndPerformTransform() 05/12/2010 17:56:29.62 w3wp.exe (0x19FC) 0x1E9C Windows SharePoint Services Web Controls 88wy Medium SPDataSourceView.ExecuteSelect() - selectArguments: IsEmpty=True, MaximumRows=0, RetrieveTotalRowCount=False, SortExpression=, StartRowIndex=0, TotalRowCount=-1 05/12/2010 17:56:29.62 w3wp.exe (0x19FC) 0x1E9C Windows SharePoint Services Web Controls 88x2 Medium SPDataSourceView.ExecuteSelect() - formattedQuery = 1 05/12/2010 17:56:29.64 w3wp.exe (0x19FC) 0x1E9C Windows SharePoint Services Web Parts 89a1 Monitorable Error while executing web part: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.SharePoint.WebPartPages.DataFormWebPart.ResolveParameterValuesToXsl(ArgumentClassWrapper argList) at Microsoft.SharePoint.WebPartPages.DataFormWebPart.PrepareAndPerformTransform()

  Read the article

• Setting Path and Expiration for session cookie in asp.net

  - by Sergej Andrejev

  Anything I have tried didn't work. Currenly I have following code to change asp.net session cookie expiration date and path, but asp doesn't want to listen to me. I sends same cookie in Set-Cookie header two times sometimes, sometimes it sends it's default cookie ignoring path and expiration date, sometimes it sends everything as expected, and sometimes it doesn't send Set-Cookie at all. What should I do. This drives me nuts :( My code in Global.asax protected void Application_PreRequestHandlerExecute(Object sender, EventArgs e) { /// only apply session cookie persistence to requests requiring session information if (Context.Handler is IRequiresSessionState || Context.Handler is IReadOnlySessionState) { var sessionState = ConfigurationManager.GetSection("system.web/sessionState") as SessionStateSection; var cookieName = sessionState != null && !string.IsNullOrEmpty(sessionState.CookieName) ? sessionState.CookieName : "ASP.NET_SessionId"; var timeout = sessionState != null ? sessionState.Timeout : TimeSpan.FromMinutes(20); /// Ensure ASP.NET Session Cookies are accessible throughout the subdomains. if (Request.Cookies[cookieName] != null && Session != null && Session.SessionID != null) { Response.Cookies[cookieName].Value = Session.SessionID; Response.Cookies[cookieName].Path = Request.ApplicationPath; Response.Cookies[cookieName].Expires = DateTime.Now.Add(timeout); } } }

  Read the article

• Check box and text box for Other value

  - by Svish

  When I have a set of either check boxes or radio buttons I often need to have an Other choice. This check box or radio button is very often accompanied by a text box where the user is supposed to fill out what this Other is. How do you usually handle this set up? What kind of markup do you use? What do you require in your validation? Do you use java script for anything? For example: How do you make the form accessible? Do you use and how do you use the label tag, for example. Do you connect the check box and text box in any way with some javascript? For example, do you activate the text box when the check box is checked? Do you check or uncheck the check box automatically if the text box is filled out or cleared? Do you let validation fail with error messages if the check box is checked but the text box is not filled out, or if the text box is filled out but the check box is not checked? Or do you just consider it not filled out and not checked? Very unsure how to best deal with this issue, so any advice and examples are most welcome c",)

  Read the article

• How to connect to a queue manager with ssl enabled server connection channel when authentication is

  - by Dr. Xray

  I am trying to write a java application connecting to server connection channel with SSL enabled. So far, I have been successfully connected to the channel by setting authentication to 'optional'. However, when I set it to be 'required', the connection fails. Here is what I did: Create key db for queue manager and keystore for the java client user. Create key/self-signed certificates for the queue manager and the client user, with names prefixed ibmwebspheremq. Export, exchange and import certificates for the queue manager and the client. (I did answered 'yes' when being asked whether I trust the queue manager cert). The location and password to the truststore and keystore are set to point to the same keystore at the client side, where the orgininal created client user key and the imported queue manager key are. With other settings being the same, if I switch back to 'optional' authentication, the connection works. I think there is something I understand incorrectly about this ssl authenticaion but cannot figure out what. Could someone kindly help me?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 824 825 826 827 828 829 830 831 832 833 834 835  | Next Page >