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• Code Golf: Evaluating Mathematical Expressions

  - by Noldorin

  Challenge Here is the challenge (of my own invention, though I wouldn't be surprised if it has previously appeared elsewhere on the web). Write a function that takes a single argument that is a string representation of a simple mathematical expression and evaluates it as a floating point value. A "simple expression" may include any of the following: positive or negative decimal numbers, +, -, *, /, (, ). Expressions use (normal) infix notation. Operators should be evaluated in the order they appear, i.e. not as in BODMAS, though brackets should be correctly observed, of course. The function should return the correct result for any possible expression of this form. However, the function does not have to handle malformed expressions (i.e. ones with bad syntax). Examples of expressions: 1 + 3 / -8 = -0.5 (No BODMAS) 2*3*4*5+99 = 219 4 * (9 - 4) / (2 * 6 - 2) + 8 = 10 1 + ((123 * 3 - 69) / 100) = 4 2.45/8.5*9.27+(5*0.0023) = 2.68... Rules I anticipate some form of "cheating"/craftiness here, so please let me forewarn against it! By cheating, I refer to the use of the eval or equivalent function in dynamic languages such as JavaScript or PHP, or equally compiling and executing code on the fly. (I think my specification of "no BODMAS" has pretty much guaranteed this however.) Apart from that, there are no restrictions. I anticipate a few Regex solutions here, but it would be nice to see more than just that. Now, I'm mainly interested in a C#/.NET solution here, but any other language would be perfectly acceptable too (in particular, F# and Python for the functional/mixed approaches). I haven't yet decided whether I'm going to accept the shortest or most ingenious solution (at least for the language) as the answer, but I would welcome any form of solution in any language, except what I've just prohibited above! My Solution I've now posted my C# solution here (403 chars). Update: My new solution has beaten the old one significantly at 294 chars, with the help of a bit of lovely regex! I suspected that this will get easily beaten by some of the languages out there with lighter syntax (particularly the funcional/dynamic ones), and have been proved right, but I'd be curious if someone could beat this in C# still. Update I've seen some very crafty solutions already. Thanks to everyone who has posted one. Although I haven't tested any of them yet, I'm going to trust people and assume they at least work with all of the given examples. Just for the note, re-entrancy (i.e. thread-safety) is not a requirement for the function, though it is a bonus. Format Please post all answers in the following format for the purpose of easy comparison: Language Number of characters: ??? Fully obfuscated function: (code here) Clear/semi-obfuscated function: (code here) Any notes on the algorithm/clever shortcuts it takes.

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• iPhone JSON Object

  - by Cosizzle

  Hello, I'm trying to create a application that will retrieve JSON data from an HTTP request, send it to a the application main controller as a JSON object then from there do further processing with it. Where I'm stick is actually creating a class that will serve as a JSON class in which will take a URL, grab the data, and return that object. Alone, im able to make this class work, however I can not get the class to store the object for my main controller to retrieve it. Because im fairly new to Objective-C itself, my thoughts are that im messing up within my init call: -initWithURL:(NSString *) value { responseData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; NSString *theURL = value; NSURLRequest *request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:theURL]]; [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:request delegate:self]; return self; } The processing of the JSON object takes place here: - (void)connectionDidFinishLoading:(NSURLConnection *)connection { [connection release]; NSString *responseString = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:responseData encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; [responseData release]; NSError *jsonError; SBJSON *json = [[SBJSON new] autorelease]; NSDictionary *parsedJSON = [json objectWithString:responseString error:&jsonError]; // NSArray object. listings = [parsedJSON objectForKey:@"posts"]; NSEnumerator *enumerator = [listings objectEnumerator]; NSDictionary* item; // to prove that it does work. while (item = (NSDictionary*)[enumerator nextObject]) { NSLog(@"posts:id = %@", [item objectForKey:@"id"]); NSLog(@"posts:address = %@", [item objectForKey:@"address"]); NSLog(@"posts:lat = %@", [item objectForKey:@"lat"]); NSLog(@"posts:lng = %@", [item objectForKey:@"lng"]); } [responseString release]; } Now when calling the object within the main controller I have this bit of code in the viewDidLoad method call: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; JSON_model *jsonObj = [[JSON_model alloc] initWithURL:@"http://localhost/json/faith_json.php?user=1&format=json"]; NSEnumerator *enumerator = [[jsonObj listings] objectEnumerator]; NSDictionary* item; // while (item = (NSDictionary*)[enumerator nextObject]) { NSLog(@"posts:id = %@", [item objectForKey:@"id"]); NSLog(@"posts:address = %@", [item objectForKey:@"address"]); NSLog(@"posts:lat = %@", [item objectForKey:@"lat"]); NSLog(@"posts:lng = %@", [item objectForKey:@"lng"]); } }

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• Creating meaningful routes in wizard style ASP.NET MVC form

  - by R0MANARMY

  I apologize in advance for a long question, figured better have a bit more information than not enough. I'm working on an application with a fairly complex form (~100 fields on it). In order to make the UI a little more presentable the fields are organized into regions and split across multiple (~10) tabs (not unlike this, but each tab does a submit/redirect to next tab). This large input form can also be in one of 3 views (read only, editable, print friendly). The form represents a large domain object (let's call it Foo). I have a controller for said domain object (FooController). It makes sense to me to have the controller be responsible for all the CRUD related operations. Here are the problems I'm having trouble figuring out. Goals: I'd like to keep to conventions so that Foo/Create creates a new record Foo/Delete deletes a record Foo/Edit/{foo_id} takes you to the first tab of the form ...etc I'd like to be able to not repeat the data access code such that I can have Foo/Edit/{foo_id}/tab1 Foo/View/{foo_id}/tab1 Foo/Print/{foo_id}tab1 ...etc use the same data access code to get the data and just specify which view to use to render it. My current implementation has a massive FooController with Create, Delete, Tab1, Tab2, etc actions. Tab actions are split out into separate files for organization (using partial classes, which may or may not be abuse of partial classes). Problem I'm running into is how to organize my controller(s) and routes to make that happen. I have the default route {controller}/{action}/{id} Which handles goal 1 properly but doesn't quite play nice with goal 2. I tried to address goal 2 by defining extra routes like so: routes.MapRoute( "FooEdit", "Foo/Edit/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "Edit", id = (string)null } ); routes.MapRoute( "FooView", "Foo/View/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "View", id = (string)null } ); routes.MapRoute( "FooPrint", "Foo/Print/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "Print", id = (string)null } ); However defining these extra routes causes the Url.Action to generate routs like Foo/Edit/Create instead of Foo/Create. That leads me to believe I designed something very very wrong, but this is my first attempt an asp.net mvc project and I don't know any better. Any advice with this particular situation would be awesome, but feedback on design in similar projects is welcome.

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• Help with OpenSSL request using Python

  - by Ldn

  Hi i'm creating a program that has to make a request and then obtain some info. For doing that the website had done some API that i will use. There is an how-to about these API but every example is made using PHP. But my app is done using Python so i need to convert the code. here is the how-to: The request string is sealed with OpenSSL. The steps for sealing are as follows: • Random 128-bit key is created. • Random key is used to RSA-RC4 symettrically encrypt the request string. • Random key is encrypted with the public key using OpenSSL RSA asymmetrical encryption. • The encrypted request and encrypted key are each base64 encoded and placed in the appropriate fields. In PHP a full request to our API can be accomplished like so: <?php // initial request. $request = array('object' => 'Link', 'action' => 'get', 'args' => array( 'app_id' => 303612602 ) ); // encode the request in JSON $request = json_encode($request); // when you receive your profile, you will be given a public key to seal your request in. $key_pem = "-----BEGIN PUBLIC KEY----- MFwwDQYJKoZIhvcNAQEBBQADSwAwSAJBALdu5C6d2sA1Lu71NNGBEbLD6DjwhFQO VLdFAJf2rOH63rG/L78lrQjwMLZOeHEHqjaiUwCr8NVTcVrebu6ylIECAwEAAQ== -----END PUBLIC KEY-----"; // load the public key $pkey = openssl_pkey_get_public($key_pem); // seal! $newrequest and $enc_keys are passed by reference. openssl_seal($request, $enc_request, $enc_keys, array($pkey)); // then wrap the request $wrapper = array( 'profile' => 'ProfileName', 'format' => 'RSA_RC4_Sealed', 'enc_key' => base64_encode($enc_keys[0]), 'request' => base64_encode($enc_request) ); // json encode the wrapper. urlencode it as well. $wrapper = urlencode(json_encode($wrapper)); // we can send the request wrapper via the cURL extension $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, 'http://api.site.com/'); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, "request=$wrapper"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); $data = curl_exec($ch); curl_close($ch); ?> Of all of that, i was able to convert "$request" and i'v also made the JSON encode. This is my code: import urllib import urllib2 import json url = 'http://api.site.com/' array = {'app_id' : "303612602"} values = { "object" : "Link", "action": "get", "args" : array } data = urllib.urlencode(values) json_data = json.dumps(data) What stop me is the sealing with OpenSSL and the publi key (that obviously i have) Using PHP OpenSSL it's so easy, but in Python i don't really know how to use it Please, help me!

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• Synchronized IEnumerator<T>

  - by Dan Bryant

  I'm putting together a custom SynchronizedCollection<T> class so that I can have a synchronized Observable collection for my WPF application. The synchronization is provided via a ReaderWriterLockSlim, which, for the most part, has been easy to apply. The case I'm having trouble with is how to provide thread-safe enumeration of the collection. I've created a custom IEnumerator<T> nested class that looks like this: private class SynchronizedEnumerator : IEnumerator<T> { private SynchronizedCollection<T> _collection; private int _currentIndex; internal SynchronizedEnumerator(SynchronizedCollection<T> collection) { _collection = collection; _collection._lock.EnterReadLock(); _currentIndex = -1; } #region IEnumerator<T> Members public T Current { get; private set;} #endregion #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { var collection = _collection; if (collection != null) collection._lock.ExitReadLock(); _collection = null; } #endregion #region IEnumerator Members object System.Collections.IEnumerator.Current { get { return Current; } } public bool MoveNext() { var collection = _collection; if (collection == null) throw new ObjectDisposedException("SynchronizedEnumerator"); _currentIndex++; if (_currentIndex >= collection.Count) { Current = default(T); return false; } Current = collection[_currentIndex]; return true; } public void Reset() { if (_collection == null) throw new ObjectDisposedException("SynchronizedEnumerator"); _currentIndex = -1; Current = default(T); } #endregion } My concern, however, is that if the Enumerator is not Disposed, the lock will never be released. In most use cases, this is not a problem, as foreach should properly call Dispose. It could be a problem, however, if a consumer retrieves an explicit Enumerator instance. Is my only option to document the class with a caveat implementer reminding the consumer to call Dispose if using the Enumerator explicitly or is there a way to safely release the lock during finalization? I'm thinking not, since the finalizer doesn't even run on the same thread, but I was curious if there other ways to improve this. EDIT After thinking about this a bit and reading the responses (particular thanks to Hans), I've decided this is definitely a bad idea. The biggest issue actually isn't forgetting to Dispose, but rather a leisurely consumer creating deadlock while enumerating. I now only read-lock long enough to get a copy and return the enumerator for the copy.

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• Android table width queries

  - by user1653285

  I have a table layout (code below), but I have am having a bit of a problem with the width of the cells. The picture below shows the problem. There should be a white border on the right hand side of the screen. I also want the text "Auditorium" not to wrap onto a new line (I would prefer that "13th -" get put onto the new line instead, I don't want to put \n in there because then it would mean it goes onto a new line at that point on bigger screens/landscape view). How can I fix those two problems? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <ScrollView xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:background="#013567" > <TableLayout android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:shrinkColumns="*" android:stretchColumns="*" > <TableRow android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" > <TextView android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/textlines" android:gravity="center" android:text="@string/meeting_5" android:textColor="#fff" > </TextView> <TextView android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/textlines" android:gravity="center" android:text="@string/meeting_5_date" android:textColor="#fff" > </TextView> <TextView android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/textlines" android:gravity="center" android:text="@string/meeting_5_location" android:textColor="#fff" > </TextView> </TableRow> <TableRow android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" > <TextView android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/textlines" android:gravity="center" android:text="@string/AGM" android:textColor="#fff" > </TextView> <TextView android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/textlines" android:gravity="center" android:text="@string/AGM_date" android:textColor="#fff" > </TextView> <TextView android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/textlines" android:gravity="center" android:text="@string/AGM_location" android:textColor="#fff" > </TextView> </TableRow> </TableLayout>

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• Lightbox image / link URL

  - by GSTAR

  Basically I have a slightly non-standard implementation of FancyBox. By default you have to include a link to the large version of the image so that the Lightbox can display it. However, in my implementation, the image link URLs point to a script rather than directly to the image file. So for example, instead of: <a href="mysite/images/myimage.jpg" rel="gallery"> I have: <a href="mysite/photos/view/abc123" rel="gallery"> The above URL points to a function: public function actionPhotos($view) { $photo=Photo::model()->find('name=:name', array(':name'=>$view)); if(!empty($photo)) { $this->renderPartial('_photo', array('photo'=>$photo, true)); } } The "$this-renderPartial()" bit simply calls a layout file which includes a standard HTML tag to output. Now when the user clicks on a thumbnail, the above function is called and the large image is displayed in the Lightbox. Now if the user right clicks on the thumbnail and selects "open in new tab/window" then the image is displayed in the browser as per normal, i.e. just the image. I want to change this so that it displays the image within a layout. In the above code I can include the following and put it in an IF statement: $this->render('photos', array('photo'=>$photo)); This will call the layout file "photos" which contains the layout to display the image in. I have a specific limitation for this - the image URL must remain the same, i.e. no additional GET variables in the URL. However if we can pass in a GET variable in the background then that is OK. I will most likely need to change my function above so that it calls a different file for this functionality. EDIT: To demonstrate exactly what I am trying to do, check out the following: http://www.starnow.co.uk/KimberleyMarren Go to the photos tab and hover over a thumbnail - note the URL. Click the thumbnail and it will open up in the Lightbox. Next right click on that same thumbnail and select "open in new tab/new window". You will notice that the image is now displayed in a layout. So that same URL is used for displaying the image in the Lightbox and on its own page. The way StarNow have done this is using some crazy long JavaScript functionality, which I'm not too keen on replicating.

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• WinForms Form won't close on pressing X or Close() in C#

  - by MadBoy

  I'm having a bit weird problem with WinForm which seems to refuse to close for some weird reason. I've got very simple gui which sometimes doesn't react for me pressing X or when i use events on buttons it even reaches Close() and does nothing.. private void buttonZapisz_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string plik = textBoxDokumentDoZaladowania.Text; if (File.Exists(plik)) { string extension = Path.GetExtension(plik); string nazwaPliku = Path.GetFileName(plik); SqlMethods.databaseFilePut(plik, comboBoxTypDokumentu.Text, textBoxKomentarz.Text, sKlienciID, sPortfelID, extension, nazwaPliku); Close(); } } There are no events assigned to FormClosed or FormClosing. So how can I find out what's wrong. Sometimes X will work after the GUI is loaded but after i press Button to save some stuff to database it reaches Close() in that button event and it still is visible and does nothing. Can't use X, nor ALT+F4. I can go around GUI and choose other values for ComboBox without problem. I call GUI like this: private void contextMenuDokumentyDodaj_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { var lv = (ListView) contextMenuDokumenty.SourceControl; string varPortfelID = Locale.ustalDaneListViewKolumny(listViewNumeryUmow, 0); string varKlienciID = Locale.ustalDaneListViewKolumny(listViewKlienci, 0); if (lv == listViewDokumentyPerKlient) { if (varKlienciID != "") { var dokumenty = new DocumentsGui(varKlienciID); dokumenty.Show(); dokumenty.FormClosed += varDocumentsGuiKlienci_FormClosed; } } else if (lv == listViewDokumentyPerPortfel) { if (varPortfelID != "" && varKlienciID != "") { var dokumenty = new DocumentsGui(varKlienciID, varPortfelID); dokumenty.Show(); dokumenty.FormClosed += varDocumentsGuiPortfele_FormClosed; } } } While I can't close GUI i can work on the main gui without problem too. I can open up same GUI and after opening new GUI i can quickly close it. GUI is very simple with few ComboBoxes,TextBoxes and one EditButton from Devexpress. Edit: varDocumentsGuiPortfele_FormClosed code allows me to refresh GUI (reload ListView's depending on where the user is on now). private void varDocumentsGuiPortfele_FormClosed(object sender, FormClosedEventArgs e) { TabControl varTabControl = tabControlKlientPortfele; if (varTabControl.TabPages.IndexOf(tabPageDokumentyPerKlient) == varTabControl.SelectedIndex) { loadTabControlKlientPortfeleBezZmianyUmowy(); } }

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• Learning Treetop

  - by cmartin

  I'm trying to teach myself Ruby's Treetop grammar generator. I am finding that not only is the documentation woefully sparse for the "best" one out there, but that it doesn't seem to work as intuitively as I'd hoped. On a high level, I'd really love a better tutorial than the on-site docs or the video, if there is one. On a lower level, here's a grammar I cannot get to work at all: grammar SimpleTest rule num (float / integer) end rule float ( (( '+' / '-')? plain_digits '.' plain_digits) / (( '+' / '-')? plain_digits ('E' / 'e') plain_digits ) / (( '+' / '-')? plain_digits '.') / (( '+' / '-')? '.' plain_digits) ) { def eval text_value.to_f end } end rule integer (( '+' / '-' )? plain_digits) { def eval text_value.to_i end } end rule plain_digits [0-9] [0-9]* end end When I load it and run some assertions in a very simple test object, I find: assert_equal @parser.parse('3.14').eval,3.14 Works fine, while assert_equal @parser.parse('3').eval,3 raises the error: NoMethodError: private method `eval' called for # If I reverse integer and float on the description, both integers and floats give me this error. I think this may be related to limited lookahead, but I cannot find any information in any of the docs to even cover the idea of evaluating in the "or" context A bit more info that may help. Here's pp information for both those parse() blocks. The float: SyntaxNode+Float4+Float0 offset=0, "3.14" (eval,plain_digits): SyntaxNode offset=0, "" SyntaxNode+PlainDigits0 offset=0, "3": SyntaxNode offset=0, "3" SyntaxNode offset=1, "" SyntaxNode offset=1, "." SyntaxNode+PlainDigits0 offset=2, "14": SyntaxNode offset=2, "1" SyntaxNode offset=3, "4": SyntaxNode offset=3, "4" The Integer... note that it seems to have been defined to follow the integer rule, but not caught the eval() method: SyntaxNode+Integer0 offset=0, "3" (plain_digits): SyntaxNode offset=0, "" SyntaxNode+PlainDigits0 offset=0, "3": SyntaxNode offset=0, "3" SyntaxNode offset=1, "" Update: I got my particular problem working, but I have no clue why: rule integer ( '+' / '-' )? plain_digits { def eval text_value.to_i end } end This makes no sense with the docs that are present, but just removing the extra parentheses made the match include the Integer1 class as well as Integer0. Integer1 is apparently the class holding the eval() method. I have no idea why this is the case. I'm still looking for more info about treetop.

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• RSpec mocking a nested model in Rails - ActionController problem

  - by emson

  Hi All I am having a problem in RSpec when my mock object is asked for a URL by the ActionController. The URL is a Mock one and not a correct resource URL. I am running RSpec 1.3.0 and Rails 2.3.5 Basically I have two models. Where a subject has many notes. class Subject < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :title has_many :notes end class Note < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :title belongs_to :subject end My routes.rb file nests these two resources as such: ActionController::Routing::Routes.draw do |map| map.resources :subjects, :has_many => :notes end The NotesController.rb file looks like this: class NotesController < ApplicationController # POST /notes # POST /notes.xml def create @subject = Subject.find(params[:subject_id]) @note = @subject.notes.create!(params[:note]) respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to(@subject) } end end end Finally this is my RSpec spec which should simply post my mocked objects to the NotesController and be executed... which it does: it "should create note and redirect to subject without javascript" do # usual rails controller test setup here subject = mock(Subject) Subject.stub(:find).and_return(subject) notes_proxy = mock('association proxy', { "create!" => Note.new }) subject.stub(:notes).and_return(notes_proxy) post :create, :subject_id => subject, :note => { :title => 'note title', :body => 'note body' } end The problem is that when the RSpec post method is called. The NotesController correctly handles the Mock Subject object, and create! the new Note object. However when the NoteController#Create method tries to redirect_to I get the following error: NoMethodError in 'NotesController should create note and redirect to subject without javascript' undefined method `spec_mocks_mock_url' for #<NotesController:0x1034495b8> Now this is caused by a bit of Rails trickery that passes an ActiveRecord object (@subject, in our case, which isn't ActiveRecord but a Mock object), eventually to url_for who passes all the options to the Rails' Routing, which then determines the URL. My question is how can I mock Subject so that the correct options are passed so that I my test passes. I've tried passing in :controller = 'subjects' options but no joy. Is there some other way of doing this? Thanks...

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• How to run an application as root without asking for an admin password?

  - by kvaruni

  I am writing a program in Objective-C (XCode 3.2, on Snow Leopard) that is capable of either selectively blocking certain sites for a duration or only allow certain sites (and thus block all others) for a duration. The reasoning behind this program is rather simple. I tend to get distracted when I have full internet access, but I do need internet access during my working hours to get to a number of work-related websites. Clearly, this is not a permanent block, but only helps me to focus whenever I find myself wandering a bit too much. At the moment, I am using a Unix script that is called via AppleScript to obtain Administrator permissions. It then activates a number of ipfw rules and clears those after a specific duration to restore full internet access. Simple and effective, but since I am running as a standard user, it gets cumbersome to enter my administrator password each and every time I want to go "offline". Furthermore, this is a great opportunity to learn to work with XCode and Objective-C. At the moment, everything works as expected, minus the actual blocking. I can add a number of sites in a list, specify whether or not I want to block or allow these websites and I can "start" the blocking by specifying a time until which I want to stay "offline". However, I find it hard to obtain clear information on how I can run a privileged Unix command from Objective-C. Ideally, I would like to be able to store information with respect to the Administrator account into the Keychain to use these later on, so that I can simply move into "offline" mode with the convenience of clicking a button. Even more ideally, there might be some class in Objective-C with which I can block access to some/all websites for this particular user without needing to rely on privileged Unix commands. A third possibility is in starting this program with root permissions and the reducing the permissions until I need them, but since this is a GUI application that is nested in the menu bar of OS X, the results are rather awkward and getting it to run each and every time with root permission is no easy task. Anyone who can offer me some pointers or advice? Please, no security-warnings, I am fully aware that what I want to do is a potential security threat.

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• C# Begin/EndReceive - how do I read large data?

  - by ryeguy

  When reading data in chunks of say, 1024, how do I continue to read from a socket that receives a message bigger than 1024 bytes until there is no data left? Should I just use BeginReceive to read a packet's length prefix only, and then once that is retrieved, use Receive() (in the async thread) to read the rest of the packet? Or is there another way? edit: I thought Jon Skeet's link had the solution, but there is a bit of a speedbump with that code. The code I used is: public class StateObject { public Socket workSocket = null; public const int BUFFER_SIZE = 1024; public byte[] buffer = new byte[BUFFER_SIZE]; public StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); } public static void Read_Callback(IAsyncResult ar) { StateObject so = (StateObject) ar.AsyncState; Socket s = so.workSocket; int read = s.EndReceive(ar); if (read > 0) { so.sb.Append(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(so.buffer, 0, read)); if (read == StateObject.BUFFER_SIZE) { s.BeginReceive(so.buffer, 0, StateObject.BUFFER_SIZE, 0, new AyncCallback(Async_Send_Receive.Read_Callback), so); return; } } if (so.sb.Length > 0) { //All of the data has been read, so displays it to the console string strContent; strContent = so.sb.ToString(); Console.WriteLine(String.Format("Read {0} byte from socket" + "data = {1} ", strContent.Length, strContent)); } s.Close(); } Now this corrected works fine most of the time, but it fails when the packet's size is a multiple of the buffer. The reason for this is if the buffer gets filled on a read it is assumed there is more data; but the same problem happens as before. A 2 byte buffer, for exmaple, gets filled twice on a 4 byte packet, and assumes there is more data. It then blocks because there is nothing left to read. The problem is that the receive function doesn't know when the end of the packet is. This got me thinking to two possible solutions: I could either have an end-of-packet delimiter or I could read the packet header to find the length and then receive exactly that amount (as I originally suggested). There's problems with each of these, though. I don't like the idea of using a delimiter, as a user could somehow work that into a packet in an input string from the app and screw it up. It also just seems kinda sloppy to me. The length header sounds ok, but I'm planning on using protocol buffers - I don't know the format of the data. Is there a length header? How many bytes is it? Would this be something I implement myself? Etc.. What should I do?

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• T-SQL - Left Outer Joins - Filters in the where clause versus the on clause.

  - by Greg Potter

  I am trying to compare two tables to find rows in each table that is not in the other. Table 1 has a groupby column to create 2 sets of data within table one. groupby number ----------- ----------- 1 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 4 Table 2 has only one column. number ----------- 1 3 4 So Table 1 has the values 1,2,4 in group 2 and Table 2 has the values 1,3,4. I expect the following result when joining for Group 2: `Table 1 LEFT OUTER Join Table 2` T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 2 2 NULL `Table 2 LEFT OUTER Join Table 1` T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- NULL NULL 3 The only way I can get this to work is if I put a where clause for the first join: PRINT 'Table 1 LEFT OUTER Join Table 2, with WHERE clause' select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number --****************************** WHERE table1.groupby = 2 AND table2.number IS NULL and a filter in the ON for the second: PRINT 'Table 2 LEFT OUTER Join Table 1, with ON clause' select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL Can anyone come up with a way of not using the filter in the on clause but in the where clause? The context of this is I have a staging area in a database and I want to identify new records and records that have been deleted. The groupby field is the equivalent of a batchid for an extract and I am comparing the latest extract in a temp table to a the batch from yesterday stored in a partioneds table, which also has all the previously extracted batches as well. Code to create table 1 and 2: create table table1 (number int, groupby int) create table table2 (number int) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (1, 1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (2, 1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (1, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (2, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (3) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (4, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (4) EDIT: A bit more context - depending on where I put the filter I different results. As stated above the where clause gives me the correct result in one state and the ON in the other. I am looking for a consistent way of doing this. Where - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number --****************************** WHERE table1.groupby = 2 AND table2.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 2 2 NULL On - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table2.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 1 1 NULL 2 2 NULL 1 2 NULL Where (table 2 this time) - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- NULL NULL 3 On - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL AND table1.groupby = 2 Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- (0) rows returned

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• SVN directories not showing up in localhost when using WAMP

  - by JsusSalv

  Hi: I recently installed WAMP for actual local use. I've worked on live development servers but now am working on localhost. I've managed to get multiple virtual hosts setup on my WAMP/Vista 64-bit box but am having difficulty with directories pulled from SVN. I have four vhosts setup. Two work well and they are not tied to any SVN just yet. I'm also using TortoiseSVN in case it makes any difference. However, the other projects are coming from SVN repositories. When I view these two projects I get the following error: Internal Server Error The server encountered an internal error or misconfiguration and was unable to complete your request. Please contact the server administrator, admin@localhost and inform them of the time the error occurred, and anything you might have done that may have caused the error. More information about this error may be available in the server error log. The way I setup the vhosts is as follows: httpd.conf # Multiple Virtual Hosts <VirtualHost 127.0.0.1> ServerName localhost DocumentRoot "C:/wamp/www/" </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 127.0.1.0> ServerName testone.local DocumentRoot "C:/wamp/www/root/projectone/" </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 127.0.2.0> ServerName testtwo.local DocumentRoot "C:/wamp/www/root/projecttwo/" </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 127.0.3.0> ServerName testthree.local DocumentRoot "C:/wamp/www/root/projectthree/" </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 127.0.3.1> ServerName testfour.local DocumentRoot "C:/wamp/www/root/projectfour/" </VirtualHost> And here's the 'hosts' file: # Localhost 127.0.0.1 localhost ::1 localhost # Project One 127.0.1.0 testone.local # Project Two 127.0.2.0 testtwo.local # Project Three 127.0.3.0 testthree.local # Project Four 127.0.3.1 testfour.local Everything works just fine. So if you want to tell me I'm doing something wrong then by all means point out a few things. But as it stands, it works and I'm content using different IPs and/or named-based vhosts. The problem comes in not being able to see the directories and files in the projects that are tied to an SVN. Whenever I visit http://testxxxx.local I get the error message at the top of this post. Please provide some suggestions. Thank you!

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• Java Hardware Acceleration

  - by Freezerburn

  I have been spending some time looking into the hardware acceleration features of Java, and I am still a bit confused as none of the sites that I found online directly and clearly answered some of the questions I have. So here are the questions I have for hardware acceleration in Java: 1) In Eclipse version 3.6.0, with the most recent Java update for Mac OS X (1.6u10 I think), is hardware acceleration enabled by default? I read somewhere that someCanvas.getGraphicsConfiguration().getBufferCapabilities().isPageFlipping() is supposed to give an indication of whether or not hardware acceleration is enabled, and my program reports back true when that is run on my main Canvas instance for drawing to. If my hardware acceleration is not enabled now, or by default, what would I have to do to enable it? 2) I have seen a couple articles here and there about the difference between a BufferedImage and VolatileImage, mainly saying that VolatileImage is the hardware accelerated image and is stored in VRAM for fast copy-from operations. However, I have also found some instances where BufferedImage is said to be hardware accelerated as well. Is BufferedImage hardware accelerated as well in my environment? What would be the advantage of using a VolatileImage if both types are hardware accelerated? My main assumption for the advantage of having a VolatileImage in the case of both having acceleration is that VolatileImage is able to detect when its VRAM has been dumped. But if BufferedImage also support acceleration now, would it not have the same kind of detection built into it as well, just hidden from the user, in case that the memory is dumped? 3) Is there any advantage to using someGraphicsConfiguration.getCompatibleImage/getCompatibleVolatileImage() as opposed to ImageIO.read() In a tutorial I have been reading for some general concepts about setting up the rendering window properly (tutorial) it uses the getCompatibleImage method, which I believe returns a BufferedImage, to get their "hardware accelerated" images for fast drawing, which ties into question 2 about if it is hardware accelerated. 4) This is less hardware acceleration, but it is something I have been curious about: do I need to order which graphics get drawn? I know that when using OpenGL via C/C++ it is best to make sure that the same graphic is drawn in all the locations it needs to be drawn at once to reduce the number of times the current texture needs to be switch. From what I have read, it seems as if Java will take care of this for me and make sure things are drawn in the most optimal fashion, but again, nothing has ever said anything like this clearly. 5) What AWT/Swing classes support hardware acceleration, and which ones should be used? I am currently using a class that extends JFrame to create a window, and adding a Canvas to it from which I create a BufferStrategy. Is this good practice, or is there some other type of way I should be implementing this? Thank you very much for your time, and I hope I provided clear questions and enough information for you to answer my several questions.

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• "Alert" and "if" changes behaviour of dom copying from iframe to div

  - by lowkey

  Hi guys! Tried to make a little old school ajax (iframe-javascript) script. A bit of mootools is used for DOM navigation Description: HTML: 1 iframe called "buffer" 1 div called "display" JAVASCRIPT: (short: copy iframe content into a div on the page) 1) onLoad on iframe triggers handler(), a counter makes sure it only run once (this is because otherwise firefox will go into feedback loop. What i think happens: iframe on load handler() copyBuffer change src of iframe , and firefox takes that as an onload again) 2) copybuffer() is called, it sets src of iframe then copies iframe content into div, then erases iframe content THE CODE: count=0; function handler(){ if (count==0){ copyBuffer(); count++; } } function copyBuffer(){ $('buffer').set('src','http://www.somelink.com/'); if (window.frames['buffer'] && $('display') ) { $('display').innerHTML = window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML; window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML=""; } } problems: QUESTION 1) nothing happens, the content is not loaded into the div. But if i either: A) remove the counter and let the script run in a feedback loop: the content is suddenly copied into the div, but off course there is a feedback loop going on, you can see it keeps loading in the status bar. OR B) insert an alert in the copyBuffer function. The content is copied, without the feedback loop. why does this happen? QUESTION 2) The If wrapped around the copying code i got from a source on the internet. I am not sure what it does? If i remove it the code does not work in: Safari and Chrome. Many thanks in advance! UPDATE: Like the answers said i have created an event handler. They used jQuery, i have made one in mootools: window.addEvent('domready', function() { $('buffer').addEvent('load', function(){ $('display').set('html',window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML) window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML=""; }).set('src','somelink'); }); Bonus question: 3) Im new at stackoverflow (what an amazing place!), is it better if i make new threads for follow up questions?

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• Why does UIWebKit throw a structuralComplexityContribution exception?

  - by Axeva

  I've got a simple UIWebView in my iPhone app that's loading a XHTML document with some SGV embeded. This all works find on the desktop version of Safari, but it crashes in a UIWebView. Here is the Objective C: NSString *path = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"test" ofType:@"html"]; NSData *fileData = [NSData dataWithContentsOfFile: path]; [svgView loadData: fileData MIMEType: @"text/xml" textEncodingName: @"UTF-8" baseURL: [NSURL fileURLWithPath: path]]; I also tried a MIMEType of application/xhtml+xml, but it didn't help. Here is the HTML: <!DOCTYPE html> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>XTech SVG Demo</title> </head> <body> <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg"> <g style="fill-opacity:0.7;"> <circle cx="6.5cm" cy="2cm" r="100" style="fill:red; stroke:black; stroke-width:0.1cm" transform="translate(0,50)" /> <circle cx="6.5cm" cy="2cm" r="100" style="fill:blue; stroke:black; stroke-width:0.1cm" transform="translate(70,150)" /> <circle cx="6.5cm" cy="2cm" r="100" style="fill:green; stroke:black; stroke-width:0.1cm" transform="translate(-70,150)"/> </g> </svg> </body> </html> All very basic stuff. When it loads on the iPhone, however, it crashes with this error: 2010-03-31 10:37:10.252 ColorDoodle[2014:20b] -[DOMElement structuralComplexityContribution]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3e51b60 2010-03-31 10:37:10.253 ColorDoodle[2014:20b] Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: ' -[DOMElement structuralComplexityContribution]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3e51b60' Any idea why? Is this a bug in the rendering engine of the UIWebView? I don't see anything too odd here. * Updated * There is definitely something screwy going on here. If I add this bit of code just inside the tag, it works fine: <form> </form> Take that code back out, and it crashes again.

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• Event Listener in Google Charts API

  - by DeanGrobler

  I'm busy using Google Charts in one of my projects to display data in a table. Everything is working great. Except that I need to see what line a user selected once they click a button. This would obviously be done with Javascript, but I've been struggling for days now to no avail. Below I've pasted code for a simple example of the table, and the Javascript function that I want to use (that doesn't work). <html> <head> <script type='text/javascript' src='https://www.google.com/jsapi'></script> <script type='text/javascript'> google.load('visualization', '1', {packages:['table']}); google.setOnLoadCallback(drawTable); var table = ""; function drawTable() { var data = new google.visualization.DataTable(); data.addColumn('string', 'Name'); data.addColumn('number', 'Salary'); data.addColumn('boolean', 'Full Time Employee'); data.addRows(4); data.setCell(0, 0, 'Mike'); data.setCell(0, 1, 10000, '$10,000'); data.setCell(0, 2, true); data.setCell(1, 0, 'Jim'); data.setCell(1, 1, 8000, '$8,000'); data.setCell(1, 2, false); data.setCell(2, 0, 'Alice'); data.setCell(2, 1, 12500, '$12,500'); data.setCell(2, 2, true); data.setCell(3, 0, 'Bob'); data.setCell(3, 1, 7000, '$7,000'); data.setCell(3, 2, true); table = new google.visualization.Table(document.getElementById('table_div')); table.draw(data, {showRowNumber: true}); } function selectionHandler() { selectedData = table.getSelection(); row = selectedData[0].row; item = table.getValue(row,0); alert("You selected :" + item); } </script> </head> <body> <div id='table_div'></div> <input type="button" value="Select" onClick="selectionHandler()"> </body> </html> Thanks in advance for anyone taking the time to look at this. I've honestly tried my best with this, hope someone out there can help me out a bit.

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• What is the best way to archive data in a relational database?

  - by GenericTypeTea

  I have a bit of an issue with a particular aspect of a program I'm working on. I need the ability to archive (fix) a table so that a change anywhere in the system will not affect the results it returns. This is the basic structure of what I need to fix: Recipe --> Recipe (as sub recipe) Recipe --> Ingredients So, if I fix a Recipe, I need to ensure all the sub recipes (including all the sub recipes sub recipes and so forth) are fixed and all its ingredients are fixed. The problem is that the sub recipe and ingredients still need to be modifiable as they are used by other recipes that are not fixed. I came up with a solution whereby I serialize (with protobuf-net) a master object that deals with the recipe and all the sub recipes and ingredients and save the archive data to a table like follows: Archive{ ReferenceId, (i.e. RecipeId) ReferenceTypeId, (i.e. Recipe) ArchiveData varbinary(max) } Now, this works great and is almost perfect... however I totally forgot (I'd love to blame the agile development mentally, however this was just short sighted) that this information needs to be reported on. As far as I'm aware I can't think how I could inflate the serialized data back into my Recipe Object and use it in a Report. I'm using the standard SQL 2005 report services at the moment. Alternatively, I guess I could do the following: Duplicate every table and tag the word "Archive" on the end of the table name. This would then give me an area of specific archive data... but ignoring my simplified example, there'd actually be about 15 tables duplicated. Add a nullable, non-foreign key property called "CopiedFromId" to every table that contains fixed data and duplicate every record that the recipe (and all it's sub recipes and all their sub recipes) touches. Create some sort of denormalised structure that could be restored from at a later date to the original, unfixed recipe. Although I think this would be like option 1 and involve a lot of extra tables. Anyway, I'm at a total loss and do not like any of the ideas particularly. Can anyone please advise the best course of action? EDIT: Or 4) Create tables specific to what the report requires and populate them with the data when the user clicks the report button? This would cause about 4 extra tables for the report in question.

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• How can I highlight empty fields in ASP.NET MVC 2 before model binding has occurred?

  - by Richard Poole

  I'm trying to highlight certain form fields (let's call them important fields) when they're empty. In essence, they should behave a bit like required fields, but they should be highlighted if they are empty when the user first GETs the form, before POST & model validation has occurred. The user can also ignore the warnings and submit the form when these fields are empty (i.e. empty important fields won't cause ModelState.IsValid to be false). Ideally it needs to work server-side (empty important fields are highlighted with warning message on GET) and client-side (highlighted if empty when losing focus). I've thought of a few ways of doing this, but I'm hoping some bright spark can come up with a nice elegant solution... Just use a CSS class to flag important fields Update every view/template to render important fields with an important CSS class. Write some jQuery to highlight empty important fields when the DOM is ready and hook their blur events so highlights & warning messages can be shown/hidden as appropriate. Pros: Quick and easy. Cons: Unnecessary duplication of importance flags and warning messages across views & templates. Clients with JavaScript disabled will never see highlights/warnings. Custom data annotation and client-side validator Create classes similar to RequiredAttribute, RequiredAttributeAdapter and ModelClientValidationRequiredRule, and register the adapter with DataAnnotationsModelValidatorProvider.RegisterAdapter. Create a client-side validator like this that responds to the blur event. Pros: Data annotation follows DRY principle (Html.ValidationMessageFor<T> picks up field importance and warning message from attribute, no duplication). Cons: Must call TryValidateModel from GET actions to ensure empty fields are decorated. Not technically validation (client- & server-side rules don't match) so it's at the mercy of framework changes. Clients with JavaScript disabled will never see highlights/warnings. Clone the entire validation framework It strikes me that I'm trying to achieve exactly the same thing as validation but with warnings rather than errors. It needs to run before model binding (and therefore validation) has occurred. Perhaps it's worth designing a similar framework with annotations like Required, RegularExpression, StringLength, etc. that somehow cause Html.TextBoxFor<T> etc. to render the warning CSS class and Html.ValidationMessageFor<T> to emit the warning message and JSON needed to enable client-side blur checks. Pros: Sounds like something MVC 2 could do with out of the box. Cons: Way too much effort for my current requirement! I'm swaying towards option 1. Can anyone think of a better solution?

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• emulator crashes

  - by Dave

  I am setting up an Android environment for the first time on Eclipse. I have many years of Eclipse experience, but new to Android. This is being done on an Apple Mac Mini, running MacOSX 10.6.3. I am using the latest Eclipse Classic, version 3.5.2. I am trying to get the tiny hello world program running. When I run it, I get the following in the console window of Eclipse: [2010-06-12 13:48:08 - HelloAndroid] Automatic Target Mode: launching new emulator with compatible AVD 'Android2.2AVD' [2010-06-12 13:48:08 - HelloAndroid] Launching a new emulator with Virtual Device 'Android2.2AVD' [2010-06-12 13:48:11 - HelloAndroid] New emulator found: emulator-5554 [2010-06-12 13:48:11 - HelloAndroid] Waiting for HOME ('android.process.acore') to be launched... [2010-06-12 13:48:12 - Emulator] 2010-06-12 13:48:12.783 emulator[50495:903] Warning once: This application, or a library it uses, is using NSQuickDrawView, which has been deprecated. Apps should cease use of QuickDraw and move to Quartz. [2010-06-12 13:48:19 - HelloAndroid] emulator-5554 disconnected! Cancelling 'com.example.helloandroid.HelloAndroid activity launch'! The emulator crashes with the following info. I have followed all the instructions for running the hello world sample. Anyone have any ideas? Process: emulator [50398] Path: /Users/jeremy/android-sdk-mac_86/tools/emulator Identifier: emulator Version: ??? (???) Code Type: X86 (Native) Parent Process: eclipse [50388] Date/Time: 2010-06-12 13:28:38.595 -0400 OS Version: Mac OS X 10.6.3 (10D573) Report Version: 6 Interval Since Last Report: 363037 sec Crashes Since Last Report: 9 Per-App Crashes Since Last Report: 7 Exception Type: EXC_BAD_ACCESS (SIGSEGV) Exception Codes: KERN_INVALID_ADDRESS at 0x00000000007fd000 Crashed Thread: 4 Thread 0: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread 0 emulator 0x000eed4e helper_set_cp15 + 30 Thread 1: 0 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020bbd2 __workq_kernreturn + 10 1 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020c168 _pthread_wqthread + 941 2 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020bd86 start_wqthread + 30 Thread 2: Dispatch queue: com.apple.libdispatch-manager 0 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020cb42 kevent + 10 1 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020d25c _dispatch_mgr_invoke + 215 2 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020c719 _dispatch_queue_invoke + 163 3 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020c4be _dispatch_worker_thread2 + 240 4 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020bf41 _pthread_wqthread + 390 5 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020bd86 start_wqthread + 30 Thread 3: 0 libSystem.B.dylib 0x901e635a semaphore_timedwait_signal_trap + 10 1 libSystem.B.dylib 0x90213ea1 _pthread_cond_wait + 1066 2 libSystem.B.dylib 0x90242a28 pthread_cond_timedwait_relative_np + 47 3 com.apple.audio.CoreAudio 0x9056f965 CAGuard::WaitFor(unsigned long long) + 219 4 com.apple.audio.CoreAudio 0x90572997 CAGuard::WaitUntil(unsigned long long) + 289 5 com.apple.audio.CoreAudio 0x90570294 HP_IOThread::WorkLoop() + 1892 6 com.apple.audio.CoreAudio 0x9056fb2b HP_IOThread::ThreadEntry(HP_IOThread*) + 17 7 com.apple.audio.CoreAudio 0x9056fa42 CAPThread::Entry(CAPThread*) + 140 8 libSystem.B.dylib 0x90213a19 _pthread_start + 345 9 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9021389e thread_start + 34 Thread 4 Crashed: 0 emulator 0x00040380 audioInDeviceIOProc + 96 Thread 4 crashed with X86 Thread State (32-bit): eax: 0x00000000 ebx: 0x007fd000 ecx: 0x000001fe edx: 0x0198f3f0 edi: 0x00000200 esi: 0x01119850 ebp: 0x01119800 esp: 0xb020fad0 ss: 0x0000001f efl: 0x00010212 eip: 0x00040380 cs: 0x00000017 ds: 0x0000001f es: 0x0000001f fs: 0x0000001f gs: 0x00000037 cr2: 0x007fd000

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• SQL CLR Stored Procedure and Web Service

  - by Nathan

  I am current working on a task in which I am needing to call a method in a web service from a CLR stored procedure. A bit of background: Basically, I have a task that requires ALOT of crunching. If done strictly in SQL, it takes somewhere around 30-45 mins to process. If I pull the same process into code, I can get it complete in seconds due to being able to optimize the processing so much more efficiently. The only problem is that I have to have this process set as an automated task in SQL Server. In that vein, I have exposed the process as a web service (I use it for other things as well) and want the SQL CLR sproc to consume the service and execute the code. This allows me to have my automated task. The problem: I have read quite a few different topics regarding how to consume a web service in a CLR Sproc and have done so effectivly. Here is an example of what I have followed. http://blog.hoegaerden.be/2008/11/11/calling-a-web-service-from-sql-server-2005/ I can get this example working without any issues. However, whenever I pair this process w/ a Web Service method that involves a database call, I get the following exceptions (depending upon whether or not I wrap in a try / catch): Msg 10312, Level 16, State 49, Procedure usp_CLRRunDirectSimulationAndWriteResults, Line 0 .NET Framework execution was aborted. The UDP/UDF/UDT did not revert thread token. or Msg 6522, Level 16, State 1, Procedure MyStoredProc , Line 0 A .NET Framework error occurred during execution of user defined routine or aggregate 'MyStoredProc': System.Security.SecurityException: Request for the permission of type 'System.Security.Permissions.EnvironmentPermission, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089' failed. System.Security.SecurityException: at System.Security.CodeAccessSecurityEngine.Check(Object demand, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean isPermSet) at System.Security.CodeAccessPermission.Demand() at System.Net.CredentialCache.get_DefaultCredentials() at System.Web.Services.Protocols.WebClientProtocol.set_UseDefaultCredentials(Boolean value) at MyStoredProc.localhost.MPWebService.set_UseDefaultCredentials(Boolean Value) at MyStoredProclocalhost.MPWebService..ctor() at MyStoredProc.StoredProcedures.MyStoredProc(String FromPostCode, String ToPostCode) I am sure this is a permission issue, but I can't, for the life of me get it working. I have attempted using impersonation in the CLR sproc and a few other things. Any suggestions? What am I missing?

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• Htaccess rewrite rule .aspx to .php

  - by Markus Ossi

  Background: I have a website that has been built with ASP.NET 2.0 and is on Windows hosting. I now have to rewrite my site in PHP and move it into Linux hosting. I have a lot of incoming links to my site from around the web that point directly into the old .aspx-pages. The site itself is very simple, one dynamic page and five static ones. I saved the static .aspx pages as .php-pages and rewrote the dynamic page in PHP. The dynamic page is called City.aspx and I have written it in PHP and it is now called City.php. On my old Windows hosting, I used ASP.NET's URL mapping for friendly URL. For example, incoming URL request for Laajakaista/Ypaja.aspx was mapped into City.aspx?CityID=981. My goal: To redirect all human visitors and search engines looking for the old .aspx pages into the new .php pages. I am thinking that the easiest way to redirect visitors into new pages will be by making a redirect, where all requests for .aspx-files will be redirected into .php filetypes. So, if someone asks for MYSITE/City.aspx?CityID=5, they will be taken into MYSITE/City.php?CityID=5 instead. However, I am having a lot of trouble getting this to work. So far this is what I have found: rewriterule ^([.]+)\.aspx$ http://www.example.com/$1.php [R=301,L] However, I think this can not handle the parameters after the filetype and I am also not quite sure what to put on front. To make things a bit more complicated, at my previous site I used friendly URL's so that I had a huge mapping file with mappings like this: <add url="~/Laajakaista/Ypaja.aspx" mappedUrl="~/City.aspx?CityID=981" /> <add url="~/Laajakaista/Aetsa.aspx" mappedUrl="~/City.aspx?CityID=988" /> <add url="~/Laajakaista/Ahtari.aspx" mappedUrl="~/City.aspx?CityID=989" /> <add url="~/Laajakaista/Aanekoski.aspx" mappedUrl="~/City.aspx?CityID=992" /> I tried to make a simple redirect like this: Redirect 301 Laajakaista/Aanekoski.aspx City.php?CityID=992 but was not able to get it to work. I ended up with an internal server error and a 50k .htaccess-file... Any help is greatly appreciated.

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• How to add CSS classes to Zend_Form_Element_Select option

  - by Jah Selassie

  Hi, I'm trying to add a CSS class to a Zend_Form_Element_Select option, but I just can't find a way to do it. The desired output would be something like this: <select name="hey" id="hey"> <option value="value1" style="parent">label1</option> <option value="value2" style="sibling">sublabel1</option> <option value="value3" style="sibling">sublabel2</option> <option value="value4" style="parent">label2</option> <option value="value5" style="sibling">sublabel3</option> <option value="value6" style="sibling">sublabel4</option> </select> But I'm getting this: <select name="hey" id="hey"> <option value="value1">label1</option> <option value="value2">sublabel1</option> <option value="value3">sublabel2</option> <option value="value4">label2</option> <option value="value5">sublabel3</option> <option value="value6">sublabel4</option> </select> I can't seem to pass a CSS class attribute to any of the options in the select element although I can style the select element itselft. My code: $sel = new Zend_Form_Element_Select('hey'); $sel->setRequired(true)->setLabel('Select an Option:'); $sel->addMultiOption('value1', 'label1', array('class' => 'parent')) ->addMultiOption('value2', 'sublabel1', array('class' => 'sibling')) (etc...); After researching a bit I found out that Element_Select doesn't have a method for adding CSS styles to the options in the select box, only for the select itself. So, how can I add them? Should I extend the form_element_select? Or would a custom decorator suffice? Can anyone give me a hint? I'm baffled with this. Thanks in advance!

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• SSIS DTS Package flat file error - "The file name specified in the connection was not valid"

  - by MisterZimbu

  I have a pretty basic SSIS package that is attempting to read a file hosted on a share, and import its contents to a database table. The package runs fine when I run it manually within SSIS. However, when I set up a SQL Agent job and attempt to execute it, I get the following error: Executed as user: DOMAIN\UserName. Microsoft (R) SQL Server Execute Package Utility Version 9.00.3042.00 for 64-bit Copyright (C) Microsoft Corp 1984-2005. All rights reserved. Started: 10:14:17 AM Error: 2010-05-03 10:14:17.75 Code: 0xC001401E Source: DataImport Connection manager "Data File Local" Description: The file name "\10.1.1.159\llpf\datafile.dat" specified in the connection was not valid. End Error Error: 2010-05-03 10:14:17.75 Code: 0xC001401D Source: DataAnimalImport Description: Connection "Data File Local" failed validation. End Error DTExec: The package execution returned DTSER_FAILURE (1). Started: 10:14:17 AM Finished: 10:14:17 AM Elapsed: 0.594 seconds. The package execution failed. The step failed. This leads me to believe it's a permissions issue, but every attempt I've made to fix it has failed. What I've tried so far: Run as the SQL Agent account (DOMAIN\SqlAgent) - yields same error. DOMAIN\SqlAgent has "Full Control" permissions on both the share and the uploaded file. Set up a proxy account with a different account's credentials (DOMAIN\Account) - yields same error. Like above, "Full Control" permissions were given over the share to that account. Gave "Everyone" full control permissions over the share (temporarily!). Yielded same error. Manually copied the file to a local path and tested with the SQL Agent account. Worked properly. Added an ActiveX script task that would first copy the remotely hosted file to a local path, and then have the DTS package reference the local file. Gave a completely nondescriptive (even by SSIS standards) error when trying to run the script. Set up a proxy account, using my own personal account's credentials - worked correctly. However, this is not an acceptable solution as there are password policies in place on my account, as well as being a bad practice to set things up this way in general. Any ideas? I'm still convinced it's a permissions issue. However, what I've read from various searches more or less says giving the executing account permissions on the share should work. However, this is not the case here (unless I'm missing something obscure when I'm setting up permissions on the share).

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