Search Results

Search found 22065 results on 883 pages for 'performance testing'.

Page 833/883 | < Previous Page | 829 830 831 832 833 834 835 836 837 838 839 840  | Next Page >

  • Rails Tutorial Chapter 4 2nd Ed. Title Helper not being called with out argument.

    - by SuddenlyAwakened
    I am running through the Rails Tutorial by Michael Hartl (Screen Cast). Ran into the and issue in chapter 4 on the title helper. I have been putting my own twist on the code as I go to make sure I understand it all. However on this one I it is very similar and I am not quite sure why it is acting the way it is. Here is the code: Application.html.erb <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <%- Rails.logger.info("Testing: #{yield(:title)}") %> <title><%= full_title(yield(:title)) %></title> <%= stylesheet_link_tag "application", :media => "all" %> <%= javascript_include_tag "application" %> <%= csrf_meta_tags %> </head> <body> <%= yield %> </body> </html> Application_helper.rb module ApplicationHelper def full_title(page_title) full_title = "Ruby on Rails Tutorial App" full_title += " | #{page_title}" unless page_title.blank? end end Home.html.erb <h1><%= t(:sample_app) %></h1> <p> This is the home page for the <a href="http://railstutorial.org/">Ruby on Rails Tutorial</a> sample application </p> about.html.erb <% provide(:title, t(:about_us)) %> <h1><%= t(:about_us) %></h1> <p> The <a href="http://railstutorial.org/">Ruby on Rails Tutorial</a> is a project to make a book and screencast to teach web development with <a href="http://railstutorial.org/">Ruby on Rails</a>. This is the sample application for the tutorial. </p> What Happens: The code works fine when I set the provide method like on the about page. However when I do not it does not seem to even call the helper. I am assuming that because no title is passed back. Any ideas on what I am doing wrong? Thank you all for your help.

    Read the article

  • Why won't C# accept a (seemingly) perfectly good Sql Server CE Query?

    - by VoidKing
    By perfectly good sql query, I mean to say that, inside WebMatrix, if I execute the following query, it works to perfection: SELECT page AS location, (len(page) - len(replace(UPPER(page), UPPER('o'), ''))) / len('o') AS occurences, 'pageSettings' AS tableName FROM PageSettings WHERE page LIKE '%o%' UNION SELECT pageTitle AS location, (len(pageTitle) - len(replace(UPPER(pageTitle), UPPER('o'), ''))) / len('o') AS occurences, 'ExternalSecondaryPages' AS tableName FROM ExternalSecondaryPages WHERE pageTitle LIKE '%o%' UNION SELECT eventTitle AS location, (len(eventTitle) - len(replace(UPPER(eventTitle), UPPER('o'), ''))) / len('o') AS occurences, 'MainStreetEvents' AS tableName FROM MainStreetEvents WHERE eventTitle LIKE '%o%' Here i am using 'o' as a static search string to search upon. No problem, but not exeactly very dynamic. Now, when I write this query as a string in C# and as I think it should be (and even as I have done before) I get a server-side error indicating that the string was not in the correct format. Here is a pic of that error: And (although I am only testing the output, should I get it to quit erring), here is the actual C# (i.e., the .cshtml) page that queries the database: @{ Layout = "~/Layouts/_secondaryMainLayout.cshtml"; var db = Database.Open("Content"); string searchText = Request.Unvalidated["searchText"]; string selectQueryString = "SELECT page AS location, (len(page) - len(replace(UPPER(page), UPPER(@0), ''))) / len(@0) AS occurences, 'pageSettings' AS tableName FROM PageSettings WHERE page LIKE '%' + @0 + '%' "; selectQueryString += "UNION "; selectQueryString += "SELECT pageTitle AS location, (len(pageTitle) - len(replace(UPPER(pageTitle), UPPER(@0), ''))) / len(@0) AS occurences, 'ExternalSecondaryPages' AS tableName FROM ExternalSecondaryPages WHERE pageTitle LIKE '%' + @0 + '%' "; selectQueryString += "UNION "; selectQueryString += "SELECT eventTitle AS location, (len(eventTitle) - len(replace(UPPER(eventTitle), UPPER(@0), ''))) / len(@0) AS occurences, 'MainStreetEvents' AS tableName FROM MainStreetEvents WHERE eventTitle LIKE '%' + @0 + '%'"; @:beginning <br/> foreach (var row in db.Query(selectQueryString, searchText)) { @:entry @:@row.location &nbsp; @:@row.occurences &nbsp; @:@row.tableName <br/> } } Since it is erring on the foreach (var row in db.Query(selectQueryString, searchText)) line, that heavily suggests that something is wrong with my query, however, everything seems right to me about the syntax here and it even executes to perfection if I query the database (mind you, un-parameterized) directly. Logically, I would assume that I have erred somewhere with the syntax involved in parameterizing this query, however, my double and triple checking (as well as, my past experience at doing this) insists that everything looks fine here. Have I messed up the syntax involved with parameterizing this query, or is something else at play here that I am overlooking? I know I can tell you, for sure, as it has been previously tested, that the value I am getting from the query string is, indeed, what I would expect it to be, but as there really isn't much else on the .cshtml page yet, that is about all I can tell you.

    Read the article

  • Loading the last related record instantly for multiple parent records using Entity framework

    - by Guillaume Schuermans
    Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework for the problem described below? I am trying for our next release to come up with a performant way to show the placed orders for the logged on customer. Of course paging is always a good technique to use when a lot of data is available I would like to see an answer without any paging techniques. Here's the story: a customer places an order which gets an orderstatus = PENDING. Depending on some strategy we move that order up the chain in order to get it APPROVED. Every change of status is logged so we can see a trace for statusses and maybe even an extra line of comment per status which can provide some extra valuable information to whoever sees this order in an interface. So an Order is linked to a Customer. One order can have multiple orderstatusses stored in OrderStatusHistory. In my testscenario I am using a customer which has 100+ Orders each with about 5 records in the OrderStatusHistory-table. I would for now like to see all orders in one page not using paging where for each Order I show the last relevant Status and the extra comment (if there is any for this last status; both fields coming from OrderStatusHistory; the record with the highest Id for the given OrderId). There are multiple scenarios I have tried, but I would like to see any potential other solutions or comments on the things I have already tried. Trying to do Include() when getting Orders but this still results in multiple queries launched on the database. Each order triggers an extra query to the database to get all orderstatusses in the history table. So all statusses are queried here instead of just returning the last relevant one, plus 100 extra queries are launched for 100 orders. You can imagine the problem when there are 100000+ orders in the database. Having 2 computed columns on the database: LastStatus, LastStatusInformation and a regular Linq-Query which gets those columns which are available through the Entity-model. The problem with this approach is the fact that those computed columns are determined using a scalar function which can not be changed without removing the formula from the computed column, etc... In the end I am very familiar with SQL and Stored procedures, but since the rest of the data-layer uses Entity Framework I would like to stick to it as long as possible, even though I have my doubts about performance. Using the SQL approach I would write something like this: WITH cte (RN, OrderId, [Status], Information) AS ( SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY OrderId ORDER BY Id DESC), OrderId, [Status], Information FROM OrderStatus ) SELECT o.Id, cte.[Status], cte.Information AS StatusInformation, o.* FROM [Order] o INNER JOIN cte ON o.Id = cte.OrderId AND cte.RN = 1 WHERE CustomerId = @CustomerId ORDER BY 1 DESC; which returns all orders for the customer with the statusinformation provided by the Common Table Expression. Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework?

    Read the article

  • When to call glEnable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB)?

    - by Steven Lu
    I have a rendering system where I draw to an FBO with a multisampled renderbuffer, then blit it to another FBO with a texture in order to resolve the samples in order to read off the texture to perform post-processing shading while drawing to the backbuffer (FBO index 0). Now I'd like to get some correct sRGB output... The problem is the behavior of the program is rather inconsistent between when I run it on OS X and Windows and this also changes depending on the machine: On Windows with the Intel HD 3000 it will not apply the sRGB nonlinearity but on my other machine with a Nvidia GTX 670 it does. On the Intel HD 3000 in OS X it will also apply it. So this probably means that I'm not setting my GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB enable state at the right points in the program. However I can't seem to find any tutorials that actually tell me when I ought to enable it, they only ever mention that it's dead easy and comes at no performance cost. I am currently not loading in any textures so I haven't had a need to deal with linearizing their colors yet. To force the program to not simply spit back out the linear color values, what I have tried is simply comment out my glDisable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB) line, which effectively means this setting is enabled for the entire pipeline, and I actually redundantly force it back on every frame. I don't know if this is correct or not. It certainly does apply a nonlinearization to the colors but I can't tell if this is getting applied twice (which would be bad). It could apply the gamma as I render to my first FBO. It could do it when I blit the first FBO to the second FBO. Why not? I've gone so far as to take screen shots of my final frame and compare raw pixel color values to the colors I set them to in the program: I set the input color to RGB(1,2,3) and the output is RGB(13,22,28). That seems like quite a lot of color compression at the low end and leads me to question if the gamma is getting applied multiple times. I have just now gone through the sRGB equation and I can verify that the conversion seems to be only applied once as linear 1/255, 2/255, and 3/255 do indeed map to sRGB 13/255, 22/255, and 28/255 using the equation 1.055*C^(1/2.4)+0.055. Given that the expansion is so large for these low color values it really should be obvious if the sRGB color transform is getting applied more than once. So, I still haven't determined what the right thing to do is. does glEnable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB) only apply to the final framebuffer values, in which case I can just set this during my GL init routine and forget about it hereafter?

    Read the article

  • c++ class member functions instatiated by traits

    - by Jive Dadson
    I am reluctant to say I can't figure this out, but I can't figure this out. I've googled and searched stackoverflow, and come up empty. The abstract, and possibly overly vague form of the question is, how can I use the traits-pattern to instantiate non-virtual member functions? The question came up while modernizing a set of multivariate function optimizers that I wrote more than 10 years ago. The optimizers all operate by selecting a straight-line path through the parameter space away from the current best point (the "update"), then finding a better point on that line (the "line search"), then testing for the "done" condition, and if not done, iterating. There are different methods for doing the update, the line-search, and conceivably for the done test, and other things. Mix and match. Different update formulae require different state-variable data. For example, the LMQN update requires a vector, and the BFGS update requires a matrix. If evaluating gradients is cheap, the line-search should do so. If not, it should use function evaluations only. Some methods require more accurate line-searches than others. Those are just some examples. The original version instantiates several of the combinations by means of virtual functions. Some traits are selected by setting mode bits that are tested at runtime. Yuck. It would be trivial to define the traits with #define's and the member functions with #ifdef's and macros. But that's so twenty years ago. It bugs me that I cannot figure out a whiz-bang modern way. If there were only one trait that varied, I could use the curiously recurring template pattern. But I see no way to extend that to arbitrary combinations of traits. I tried doing it using boost::enable_if, etc.. The specialized state info was easy. I managed to get the functions done, but only by resorting to non-friend external functions that have the this-pointer as a parameter. I never even figured out how to make the functions friends, much less member functions. The compiler (vc++ 2008) always complained that things didn't match. I would yell, "SFINAE, you moron!" but the moron is probably me. Perhaps tag-dispatch is the key. I haven't gotten very deeply into that. Surely it's possible, right? If so, what is best practice?

    Read the article

  • Poor man's "lexer" for C#

    - by Paul Hollingsworth
    I'm trying to write a very simple parser in C#. I need a lexer -- something that lets me associate regular expressions with tokens, so it reads in regexs and gives me back symbols. It seems like I ought to be able to use Regex to do the actual heavy lifting, but I can't see an easy way to do it. For one thing, Regex only seems to work on strings, not streams (why is that!?!?). Basically, I want an implementation of the following interface: interface ILexer : IDisposable { /// <summary> /// Return true if there are more tokens to read /// </summary> bool HasMoreTokens { get; } /// <summary> /// The actual contents that matched the token /// </summary> string TokenContents { get; } /// <summary> /// The particular token in "tokenDefinitions" that was matched (e.g. "STRING", "NUMBER", "OPEN PARENS", "CLOSE PARENS" /// </summary> object Token { get; } /// <summary> /// Move to the next token /// </summary> void Next(); } interface ILexerFactory { /// <summary> /// Create a Lexer for converting a stream of characters into tokens /// </summary> /// <param name="reader">TextReader that supplies the underlying stream</param> /// <param name="tokenDefinitions">A dictionary from regular expressions to their "token identifers"</param> /// <returns>The lexer</returns> ILexer CreateLexer(TextReader reader, IDictionary<string, object> tokenDefinitions); } So, pluz send the codz... No, seriously, I am about to start writing an implementation of the above interface yet I find it hard to believe that there isn't some simple way of doing this in .NET (2.0) already. So, any suggestions for a simple way to do the above? (Also, I don't want any "code generators". Performance is not important for this thing and I don't want to introduce any complexity into the build process.)

    Read the article

  • Best way to test for a variable's existence in PHP; isset() is clearly broken

    - by chazomaticus
    From the isset() docs: isset() will return FALSE if testing a variable that has been set to NULL. Basically, isset() doesn't check for whether the variable is set at all, but whether it's set to anything but NULL. Given that, what's the best way to actually check for the existence of a variable? I tried something like: if(isset($v) || @is_null($v)) (the @ is necessary to avoid the warning when $v is not set) but is_null() has a similar problem to isset(): it returns TRUE on unset variables! It also appears that: @($v === NULL) works exactly like @is_null($v), so that's out, too. How are we supposed to reliably check for the existence of a variable in PHP? Edit: there is clearly a difference in PHP between variables that are not set, and variables that are set to NULL: <?php $a = array('b' => NULL); var_dump($a); PHP shows that $a['b'] exists, and has a NULL value. If you add: var_dump(isset($a['b'])); var_dump(isset($a['c'])); you can see the ambiguity I'm talking about with the isset() function. Here's the output of all three of these var_dump()s: array(1) { ["b"]=> NULL } bool(false) bool(false) Further edit: two things. One, a use case. An array being turned into the data of an SQL UPDATE statement, where the array's keys are the table's columns, and the array's values are the values to be applied to each column. Any of the table's columns can hold a NULL value, signified by passing a NULL value in the array. You need a way to differentiate between an array key not existing, and an array's value being set to NULL; that's the difference between not updating the column's value and updating the column's value to NULL. Second, Zoredache's answer, array_key_exists() works correctly, for my above use case and for any global variables: <?php $a = NULL; var_dump(array_key_exists('a', $GLOBALS)); var_dump(array_key_exists('b', $GLOBALS)); outputs: bool(true) bool(false) Since that properly handles just about everywhere I can see there being any ambiguity between variables that don't exist and variables that are set to NULL, I'm calling array_key_exists() the official easiest way in PHP to truly check for the existence of a variable. (Only other case I can think of is for class properties, for which there's property_exists(), which, according to its docs, works similarly to array_key_exists() in that it properly distinguishes between not being set and being set to NULL.)

    Read the article

  • How to stream semi-live audio over internet

    - by Thomas Tempelmann
    I want to write something like Skype, i.e. I have a constant audio stream on one computer and then recompress it in a format that's suitable for a latent internet connection, receive it on the other end and play it. Let's also assume that the internet connection is fairly modern and fast, i.e. DSL or alike, no slow connections over phone and such. The involved computers will also be rather modern (Dual Core Intel CPUs at 2GHz or more). I know how to handle the audio on the machines. What I don't know is how to transmit the audio in an efficient way. The challenges are: I'd like get good audio quality across the line. The stream should be received without drops. The stream may, however, be received with a little delay (a second delay is acceptable). I imagine that the transport software could first determine the average (and max) latency, then start the stream and tell the receiver to wait for that max latency before starting to play the audio. With that, if the latency doesn't get any higher, the entire stream will be playable on the other side without stutter or drops. If, due to unexpected IP latencies or blockages, the stream does get cut off, I want to be able to notice this so that I can take actions (e.g. abort the stream) and eventually start a new transmission. What are my options if I want do use ready-made software for the compression and tranmission? I have no intention to write my own audio compression engine, really. OTOH, I plan to sell the solution in a vertical market, meaning I can afford a few dollars of license fees per copy, but not $100s. I guess the simplest solution would be to just open a TCP stream, send a few packets back and forth to determine their running time (or even use UDP for that), then use the results as the guide for my max latency value, then simply fire the audio data in its raw form (uncompressed 16 bit stereo), along with a timing code over the TCP connection. The receiver reads the data and plays it with the pre-determined delay. That might just work with the type of fast connection I expect. I just wonder if there are better solutions to reach this goal, with better performance (lower latency) and less data (compressed). BTW, I first try to implement this on OS X, but might want to do it on Windows, too, if it proves successful.

    Read the article

  • How to implement a tagging plugin for jQuery

    - by anxiety
    Goal: To implement a jQuery plugin for my rails app (or write one myself, if necessary) that creates a "box" around text after a delimiter is typed. Example: With tagging on SO, the user begins typing a tag, then selects one from the drop-down list provided. The input field recognizes that a tag has been selected, puts a space and then is ready for the next tag. Similarly, I am attempting to use this plugin to put a box around the previously entered tag before moving to to accept the next tag/input. The instructions in the README.txt seem simple enough, however I have been receiving a $(".tagbox").tagbox is not a function error when debugging my app with firebug. Here is what I have in my application.js: $(document).ready( function(){ $('.tagbox').tagbox({ separator: /\[,]/, // specifying comma separation for <code>tags</code> }); }); And here is my _form.html.erb: <% form_for @tag do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <p> <%= f.label :name %><br /> <%= text_field :tag, :name, { :method => :get, :class => "tagbox" } %> </p> <p><%= f.submit "Submit" %></p> <% end %> I have omitted some other code (namely the implementation of an autocomplete plugin) existing within my _form.html.erb and application.js for sake of readability. The inclusion or exclusion of this omitted code does not affect the performance of this plugin. I have included all of the necessary files for the tagbox plugin (as well as application.js after all other included JS files) within the javascript_include_tag in my application.html.erb file. I'm pretty much confused as to why I'd be getting this "not a function" error when jquery.tagbox.js clearly defines the function and is included in the head of my html page in question. I've been struggling with this plugin for longer than I'd like to admit, so any help would really be appreciated. And, of course, I'm open to any other plugins or from-scratch suggestions you may have in mind.. This tagbox plugin does not seem to have a wealth of documentation or any currently working examples. Also to note, I'm trying to avoid using jrails. Thanks for your time

    Read the article

  • Remote Postgresql - extremely slow

    - by Muffinbubble
    Hi, I have setup PostgreSQL on a VPS I own - the software that accesses the database is a program called PokerTracker. PokerTracker logs all your hands and statistics whilst playing online poker. I wanted this accessible from several different computers so decided to installed it on my VPS and after a few hiccups I managed to get it connecting without errors. However, the performance is dreadful. I have done tons of research on 'remote postgresql slow' etc and am yet to find an answer so am hoping someone is able to help. Things to note: The query I am trying to execute is very small. Whilst connecting locally on the VPS, the query runs instantly. While running it remotely, it takes about 1 minute and 30 seconds to run the query. The VPS is running 100MBPS and then computer I'm connecting to it from is on an 8MB line. The network communication between the two is almost instant, I am able to remotely connect fine with no lag whatsoever and am hosting several websites running MSSQL and all the queries run instantly, whether connected remotely or locally so it seems specific to PostgreSQL. I'm running their newest version of the software and the newest compatible version of PostgreSQL with their software. The database is a new database, containing hardly any data and I've ran vacuum/analyze etc all to no avail, I see no improvements. I don't understand how MSSQL can query almost instantly yet PostgreSQL struggles so much. I am able to telnet to the post 5432 on the VPS IP with no problems, and as I say the query does execute it just takes an extremely long time. What I do notice is on the router when the query is running that hardly any bandwidth is being used - but then again I wouldn't expect it to for a simple query but am not sure if this is the issue. I've tried connecting remotely on 3 different networks now (including different routers) but the problem remains. Connecting remotely via another machine via the LAN is instant. I have also edited the postgre conf file to allow for more memory/buffers etc but I don't think this is the problem - what I am asking it to do is very simple - it shouldn't be intensive at all. Thanks, Ricky

    Read the article

  • Unlimited SMS API/Gateway (Sending and Receiving)

    - by Naif
    I am creating a chat application which requires that users be able to send and receive sms messages through a web interface. It would be somewhat similar to the text messaging service available in yahoo mail or in aol instant messenger. The situation is this: Given the high quantity of messages that would be sent and received, paying on a per message basis is not economically feasible. How is it that sites such as yahoo, aim, and twitter can send and receive unlimited sms messages? Essentially, I am looking for a way to send and receive unlimited sms from my computer. Below is a list of some approaches I've come up with but have run into problems with as well. If just one of the approaches can be utilized effectively, then I am fine. As a note on the nature of my application: I will only be sending messages to users that explicitly sign up for the service and permit the receiving of messages. They can unsubscribe at any time. This is to prevent spam. I am aware of software such as Kannel which allows one to connect to a providers smsc gateway. However, this adds the risk of not being approved by the provider which would be unacceptable. Is there any way to significantly mitigate this risk? Utilizing a gateway provider eliminates this risk, but adds the issue of per message pricing. I am also aware of email to sms. However, I have done some testing with that and it appears that this method results in many messages being undelivered or delivered VERY late. If it weren't for that, this approach would have been ideal. Is there any way to negotiate with carriers to remove me from their filters (considering the nature of my service as stated before)? I could use a gsm modem, but even with an "unilimited" plan on a sim card, there are still limits (around 100,000 messages or so). Furthermore, from my understanding, gsm modems are capable of only sending out around a dozen messages per minute. I need to be able to send out as much as several hundred messages per second. During the first 2 months, around 10 messages per second would suffice. There are ways to send out ads with messages to cover the per message costs. However, this is a deal-breaker since it has a high chance of tarnishing the quality of service. Furthermore, I know it is possible to do it without such ads since yahoo, aim, and twitter do not send ads with their messages.

    Read the article

  • markdown to HTML with customised WMD editor

    - by spirytus
    For my application I customized slightly the way WMD behaves so when user enters empty lines, these are reflected in HTML output as <br />'s. Now I came to a point when I should store it somewhere at backend and so after going thru SO posts for a while I'm not sure what is the best way to do it. I have few options and if you could point out which their pros/cons that would be much appreciated. send to server and store as markdown rather than HTML. To me obvious advantage would be keeping exactly same formatting as user originally entered. But then how can I convert it back to HTML for display to a client? It seems very troublesome to convert it on client side as even if it would be possible what would happen if JS would be disabled? If I wanted to do it on the server, then standard server side implementations of markup to HTML might be resource expensive. Would that be an issue in your opinion? Even if it wouldn't be the case then as I mentioned my WMD implementation is customised and those server side solutions wouldn't probably do the right conversion to markdown anyway and there always would be a risk that something would convert wrong. Send to server as converted HTML. Same as above.. conversion on client side would be difficult, server side same with possibility of getting it wrong. send original markdown and converted HTML and store both. No performance issues related to converting markdown to HTML on client side, nor on server side. Users would have always same markdown they originally entered and same HTML they originally saw in preview (possibly sanitized in php though). It would have to take twice that much storage space though and that is my biggest worry. I tend to lean towards 3rd solution as it seems simplest, but there is a worry of doubled storage space needed for this solution. Please bear in mind that my implementation of WMD is slightly modified and also I'm going with PHP/MySql server side implementation. So apart from 3 options I listed above, are there any other possible solutions to my problem? Did I miss anything important that would make one of the options above better then the rest? And what other pros/cons would apply to each solution I listed? Also how is it implemented on SO? I read somwhere that they using option 3, and so if its good enough for SO would be good enough for me :) but not sure if its true anyway, so how is it done? Also please forgive me, but at least for once I got to say that StackOverflow IS THE BEST DAMN RESOURCE ON THE WEB and I truly appreciate all the people trying to help others here! The site and users here are simply amazing!

    Read the article

  • Mocking methods that call other methods Still hit database.Can I avoid it?

    - by devnet247
    Hi, It has been decided to write some unit tests using moq etc..It's lots of legacy code c# (this is beyond my control so cannot answer the whys of this) Now how do you cope with a scenario when you dont want to hit the database but you indirectly still hit the database? This is something I put together it's not the real code but gives you an idea. How would you deal with this sort of scenario? Basically calling a method on a mocked interface still makes a dal call as inside that method there are other methods not part of that interface?Hope it's clear [TestFixture] public class Can_Test_this_legacy_code { [Test] public void Should_be_able_to_mock_login() { var mock = new Mock<ILoginDal>(); User user; var userName = "Jo"; var password = "password"; mock.Setup(x => x.login(It.IsAny<string>(), It.IsAny<string>(),out user)); var bizLogin = new BizLogin(mock.Object); bizLogin.Login(userName, password, out user); } } public class BizLogin { private readonly ILoginDal _login; public BizLogin(ILoginDal login) { _login = login; } public void Login(string userName, string password, out User user) { //Even if I dont want to this will call the DAL!!!!! var bizPermission = new BizPermission(); var permissionList = bizPermission.GetPermissions(userName); //Method I am actually testing _login.login(userName,password,out user); } } public class BizPermission { public List<Permission>GetPermissions(string userName) { var dal=new PermissionDal(); var permissionlist= dal.GetPermissions(userName); return permissionlist; } } public class PermissionDal { public List<Permission> GetPermissions(string userName) { //I SHOULD NOT BE GETTING HERE!!!!!! return new List<Permission>(); } } public interface ILoginDal { void login(string userName, string password,out User user); } public interface IOtherStuffDal { List<Permission> GetPermissions(); } public class Permission { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } Any suggestions? Am I missing the obvious? Is this Untestable code? Very very grateful for any suggestions.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate MappingException Unknown entity: $Proxy2

    - by slynn1324
    I'm using Hibernate annotations and have a VERY basic data object: import java.io.Serializable; import javax.persistence.Entity; import javax.persistence.Id; @Entity public class State implements Serializable { /** * */ private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id private String stateCode; private String stateFullName; public String getStateCode() { return stateCode; } public void setStateCode(String stateCode) { this.stateCode = stateCode; } public String getStateFullName() { return stateFullName; } public void setStateFullName(String stateFullName) { this.stateFullName = stateFullName; } } and am trying to run the following test case: public void testCreateState(){ Session s = HibernateUtil.getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession(); Transaction t = s.beginTransaction(); State state = new State(); state.setStateCode("NE"); state.setStateFullName("Nebraska"); s.save(s); t.commit(); } and get an org.hibernate.MappingException: Unknown entity: $Proxy2 at org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl.getEntityPersister(SessionFactoryImpl.java:628) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.getEntityPersister(SessionImpl.java:1366) at org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractSaveEventListener.saveWithGeneratedId(AbstractSaveEventListener.java:121) .... I haven't been able to find anything referencing the $Proxy part of the error - and am at a loss.. Any pointers to what I'm missing would be greatly appreciated. hibernate.cfg.xml <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class">org.hsqldb.jdbcDriver</property> <property name="connection.url">jdbc:hsqldb:hsql://localhost/xdb</property> <property name="connection.username">sa</property> <property name="connection.password"></property> <property name="current_session_context_class">thread</property> <property name="dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.HSQLDialect</property> <property name="show_sql">true</property> <property name="hbm2ddl.auto">update</property> <property name="hibernate.transaction.factory_class">org.hibernate.transaction.JDBCTransactionFactory</property> <mapping class="com.test.domain.State"/> in HibernateUtil.java public static SessionFactory getSessionFactory(boolean testing ) { if ( sessionFactory == null ){ try { String configPath = HIBERNATE_CFG; AnnotationConfiguration config = new AnnotationConfiguration(); config.configure(configPath); sessionFactory = config.buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); throw new ExceptionInInitializerError(e); } } return sessionFactory; }

    Read the article

  • Few doubts regarding Bitmaps , Images & `using` blocks

    - by imageWorker
    I caught up in this problem. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2559826/garbage-collector-not-doing-its-job-memory-consumption-1-5gb-outofmemory-exc I feel that there is something wrong in my understanding. Please clarify these things. Destructor & IDisposable.Dispose are two methods for freeing resources that are not not under the control of .NET. Which means, everything except memory. right? using blocks are just better way of calling IDisposable.Dispose() method of an object. This is the main code I'm referring to. class someclass { static someMethod(Bitmap img) { Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(img); //statement1 // some code here and return } } here is class I'm using for testing: class someotherClass { public static voide Main() { foreach (string imagePath in imagePathsArray) { using (Bitmap img1 = new Bitmap(imagePath)) { someclass.someMethod(img1); // does some more processing on `img1` } } } } Is there any memory leak with statement1? Question1: If each image size is say 10MB. Then does this bmp object occupy atleast 10MB? What I mean is, will it make completely new copy of entire image? or just refer to it? Question2:should I or should I not put the statement1 in using block? My Argument: We should not. Because using is not for freeing memory but for freeing the resources (file handle in this case). If I use it in using block. It closes file handle here encapsulated by this bmp object. It means we are also closing filehandle for the caller's img1 object. Which is not correct? As of the memory leak. No there is no scope of memory leak here. Because reference bmp is destroyed when this method is returned. Which leaves memory it refered without any pointer. So, its garbage collected. Am I right? Edit: class someclass { static Bitmap someMethod(Bitmap img) { Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(img); //can I use `using` block on this enclosing `return bmp`; ??? // do some processing on bmp here return bmp; } }

    Read the article

  • Trying to integrate CakePHP and jQuery

    - by user198003
    Trying to integrate CakePHP and jQuery, using next example http://bakery.cakephp.org/articles/view/dynamic-select-boxes-with-ajax-jquery What I want is to when user change first option element, to automaticly fill second select option box with proper values. But, nothing happens, if you can help me why. So, there is a Invoice add form (add.ctp), with next code... <?php echo $form->create('Invoice');?> <?php echo $javascript->link('jquery.js'); $category = array('1' => 'First', '4' => 'Fourth', '7' => 'Seventh'); echo $form->input('client_id', array('options' => $category, 'empty' => 'Choose:')); echo $form->select('clientBank_id', array("Choose category first"), null, null, false); ?> <script> $("#InvoiceClientId").change(function () { $.post('/invoices/listTitleByCategory/' + $(this).val(), function(data) { $("#InvoiceClientBankId").empty().append(data); }, 'html'); }) </script> Also, there is controller (invoices_controller.php): <?php var $name = 'Invoices'; var $helpers = array('Html', 'Form', 'Time', 'Number', 'Javascript'); var $paginate = array('order' => array('Invoice.pinned DESC', 'Invoice.invoiceNumber')); var $components = array('RequestHandler'); function beforeRender(){ // prevent useless warnings for Ajax if($this->RequestHandler->isAjax()){ Configure::write('debug', 0); } } // etc... function listTitleByCategory($category = "") { $this->layout = 'ajax'; $this->beforeRender(); $this->autoRender = false; $data = $this->Invoice->Client->find('list'); echo "<option value=0>just for testing...</option>"; foreach($data as $key => $val) { echo "<option value=$key>$val</option>"; } } ?> Please, if you can help me solving this. Thank you in advance!

    Read the article

  • Hide jQuery Accordion while loading

    - by zac
    I am testing a site build with a slow connection and I noticed the jQuery Accordion stays expanded for a long time, until the rest of the site is loaded, and then finally collapses. Not very pretty. I was wondering how I could keep it collapsed through the loading process and only expand when clicked. I am working with the standalone 1.6 version of the accordion plugin. The basic structure : <div class="sidebar"> <ul id="navigation" class="ui-accordion-container"> <li><a class="head" href="#">1</a> <ul class="sub"> <li><a href="#">1a</a></li> <li><a href="#">2a</a></li> </ul> </li> </ul> </div> and the script jQuery().ready(function(){ jQuery('#navigation').accordion({ active: 'false', header: '.head', navigation: true, animated: 'easeslide', collapsible: true }); }); I tried to hide the elements in the CSS to keep them from appearing while loading but all that achieved is in having them always hidden. Maybe the problem is in the CSS I have a background image in each of the sub menus: #navigation{ margin:0px; margin-left: 10px; padding:0px; text-indent:0px; font-size: 1.1em; width:200px; text-transform: uppercase; padding-bottom: 30px; } #navigation ul{ border-width:0px; margin:0px; padding:0px; text-indent:0px; } #navigation li{ list-style:none outside none; } #navigation li ul{ height:185px; overflow:auto; } #navigation li ul.sub{ background:url('../images/sub.jpg') no-repeat; dispaly: block; } #navigation li li a{ color:#000000; display:block; text-indent:20px; text-decoration: none; padding: 6px 0; } #navigation li li a:hover{ background-color:#FFFF99; color:#FF0000; } Thanks in advance for any advice on how to have this thing run a little smoother and having the accordion always collapsed. -edit - I forgot to mention that I am also hoping for a solution that will allow the nav to still be accessible for those without javscript.

    Read the article

  • How to handle environment-specific application configuration organization-wide?

    - by Stuart Lange
    Problem Your organization has many separate applications, some of which interact with each other (to form "systems"). You need to deploy these applications to separate environments to facilitate staged testing (for example, DEV, QA, UAT, PROD). A given application needs to be configured slightly differently in each environment (each environment has a separate database, for example). You want this re-configuration to be handled by some sort of automated mechanism so that your release managers don't have to manually configure each application every time it is deployed to a different environment. Desired Features I would like to design an organization-wide configuration solution with the following properties (ideally): Supports "one click" deployments (only the environment needs to be specified, and no manual re-configuration during/after deployment should be necessary). There should be a single "system of record" where a shared environment-dependent property is specified (such as a database connection string that is shared by many applications). Supports re-configuration of deployed applications (in the event that an environment-specific property needs to change), ideally without requiring a re-deployment of the application. Allows an application to be run on the same machine, but in different environments (run a PROD instance and a DEV instance simultaneously). Possible Solutions I see two basic directions in which a solution could go: Make all applications "environment aware". You would pass the environment name (DEV, QA, etc) at the command line to the app, and then the app is "smart" enough to figure out the environment-specific configuration values at run-time. The app could fetch the values from flat files deployed along with the app, or from a central configuration service. Applications are not "smart" as they are in #1, and simply fetch configuration by property name from config files deployed with the app. The values of these properties are injected into the config files at deploy-time by the install program/script. That install script takes the environment name and fetches all relevant configuration values from a central configuration service. Question How would/have you achieved a configuration solution that solves these problems and supports these desired features? Am I on target with the two possible solutions? Do you have a preference between those solutions? Also, please feel free to tell me that I'm thinking about the problem all wrong. Any feedback would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • What (tf) are the secrets behind PDF memory allocation (CGPDFDocumentRef)

    - by Kai
    For a PDF reader I want to prepare a document by taking 'screenshots' of each page and save them to disc. First approach is CGPDFDocumentRef document = CGPDFDocumentCreateWithURL((CFURLRef) someURL); for (int i = 1; i<=pageCount; i++) { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc]init]; CGPDFPageRef page = CGPDFDocumentGetPage(document, i); ...//getting + manipulating graphics context etc. ... CGContextDrawPDFPage(context, page); ... UIImage *resultingImage = UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); ...//saving the image to disc [pool drain]; } CGPDFDocumentRelease(document); This results in a lot of memory which seems not to be released after the first run of the loop (preparing the 1st document), but no more unreleased memory in additional runs: MEMORY BEFORE: 6 MB MEMORY DURING 1ST DOC: 40 MB MEMORY AFTER 1ST DOC: 25 MB MEMORY DURING 2ND DOC: 40 MB MEMORY AFTER 2ND DOC: 25 MB .... Changing the code to for (int i = 1; i<=pageCount; i++) { CGPDFDocumentRef document = CGPDFDocumentCreateWithURL((CFURLRef) someURL); NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc]init]; CGPDFPageRef page = CGPDFDocumentGetPage(document, i); ...//getting + manipulating graphics context etc. ... CGContextDrawPDFPage(context, page); ... UIImage *resultingImage = UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); ...//saving the image to disc CGPDFDocumentRelease(document); [pool drain]; } changes the memory usage to MEMORY BEFORE: 6 MB MEMORY DURING 1ST DOC: 9 MB MEMORY AFTER 1ST DOC: 7 MB MEMORY DURING 2ND DOC: 9 MB MEMORY AFTER 2ND DOC: 7 MB .... but is obviously a step backwards in performance. When I start reading a PDF (later in time, different thread) in the first case no more memory is allocated (staying at 25 MB), while in the second case memory goes up to 20 MB (from 7). In both cases, when I remove the CGContextDrawPDFPage(context, page); line memory is (nearly) constant at 6 MB during and after all preparations of documents. Can anybody explain whats going on there?

    Read the article

  • Is "Systems Designer" the job title that best describes what I do? [closed]

    - by ivo-rossi
    After having worked as Java developer for almost 3 years in the same company that I currently work at, I moved to a new position associated with the development of the same application. I’m in this new position for more than 1 year now. My official job title is Systems Designer, but I’m not sure this is a title that expresses well what I do. So my question here is what would be the most appropriate job title for me? I see this question as important for my career development. After all, I should be able to explain in one word what I do. And it’s no longer “Java Developer”. Well, in more than one word, this is what I do: The business analysts gather requirements / business problems to be solved with the clients and then discuss these requirements with me. Given the requirements, I design the high level solutions to be implemented in our system (e.g. a new screen on the client application, modifications to existing reports, extension to the XML export format of some objects, etc). I base my decision on the current capabilities of the system, the overall impact that the solutions would have on the system and the estimated effort to implement them (as I was a developer of this same application for almost 3 years before I moved to this position, I’m confident in my estimates). The solutions are discussed iteratively with the business analysts until we agree that they are good. The outcome of this analysis is what we call the “requirements design” document, which is written by me, shared with clients for approval and then also with the team that is going to implement the solutions and test them. Note that there are a few problems that I need to find a solution for that are non-functional. If the users are unhappy with the performance of a certain tool, I will investigate what can be done to speed it up. I will do some research – often based in the Java code itself - to identify possibilities of optimizations. But in this new position I no longer code, the main outcome of my work is really the “requirements design”. Is “Systems Designer” really the most appropriate job title?

    Read the article

  • How to develop a Jquery plugin to find the first child that match with a selector?

    - by Ivan
    I'm trying to make a Jquery plugin (findFirst()) to find the first child with a given characteristics (something in the middle of the find() and children() functions. For instance, given this markup: <div id="start"> <div> <span>Hello world</span> <ul class="valid-result"> ... </ul> <ul class="valid-result"> <li> <ul class="not-a-result"> ... </ul> </li> </ul> <div> <ul class="valid-result"> ... </ul> </div> </div> </div> If you ask for $("#start").findFirst('ul') it should return all ul lists that I have tagged with the valid-result class, but not the ul with class not-a-result. It is, this function has to find the first elements that matches with a given selector, but not the inner elements that match this selector. This is the first time I try to code a Jquery function, and what I've already read doesn't helps me too much with this. The function I have developed is this: jQuery.fn.findFirst = function (sel) { return this.map(function() { return $(this).children().map(function() { if ($(this).is(sel)) { return $(this); } else { return $(this).findFirst(sel); } }); }); } It works in the sense it tries to return the expected result, but the format it returns the result is very rare for me. I suppose the problem is something I don't understand about Jquery. Here you have the JFiddle where I'm testing. EDIT The expected result after $("#start").findFirst('ul') is a set with all UL that have the class 'valid-result' BUT it's not possible to use this class because it doesn't exist in a real case (it's just to try to explain the result). This is not equivalent to first(), because first returns only one element!

    Read the article

  • Catching error caused by InitialContext.lookup

    - by Martin Schröder
    I'm developing a command line client (Java SE6) that now needs to talk to a Glassfish 2.1 server. The code for setting up this connection is try { final InitialContext context = new InitialContext(); final String ejbName = GeneratorCancelledRemote.class.getName(); generatorCancelled = (GeneratorCancelledRemote) context.lookup(ejbName); } catch (Throwable t) { System.err.println("--> Could not call server:"); t.printStackTrace(System.err); runWithOutEJB = true; } I'm now testing it without a running server and the client (when run from Eclipse 4.2) just bombs with 31.10.2012 10:40:09 com.sun.corba.ee.impl.transport.SocketOrChannelConnectionImpl WARNUNG: "IOP00410201: (COMM_FAILURE) Connection failure: socketType: IIOP_CLEAR_TEXT; hostname: localhost; port: 3700" org.omg.CORBA.COMM_FAILURE: vmcid: SUN minor code: 201 completed: No at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.logging.ORBUtilSystemException.connectFailure(ORBUtilSystemException.java:2783) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.logging.ORBUtilSystemException.connectFailure(ORBUtilSystemException.java:2804) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.transport.SocketOrChannelConnectionImpl.(SocketOrChannelConnectionImpl.java:261) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.transport.SocketOrChannelConnectionImpl.(SocketOrChannelConnectionImpl.java:274) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.transport.SocketOrChannelContactInfoImpl.createConnection(SocketOrChannelContactInfoImpl.java:130) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.protocol.CorbaClientRequestDispatcherImpl.beginRequest(CorbaClientRequestDispatcherImpl.java:192) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.protocol.CorbaClientDelegateImpl.request(CorbaClientDelegateImpl.java:184) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.protocol.CorbaClientDelegateImpl.is_a(CorbaClientDelegateImpl.java:328) at org.omg.CORBA.portable.ObjectImpl._is_a(ObjectImpl.java:112) at org.omg.CosNaming.NamingContextHelper.narrow(NamingContextHelper.java:69) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialContext.narrowProvider(SerialContext.java:134) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialContext.getCachedProvider(SerialContext.java:259) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialContext.getRemoteProvider(SerialContext.java:204) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialContext.getProvider(SerialContext.java:159) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialContext.lookup(SerialContext.java:409) at javax.naming.InitialContext.lookup(InitialContext.java:392) at com.werkii.latex.generator.Generator.main(Generator.java:344) Caused by: java.lang.RuntimeException: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused: connect at com.sun.enterprise.iiop.IIOPSSLSocketFactory.createSocket(IIOPSSLSocketFactory.java:347) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.transport.SocketOrChannelConnectionImpl.(SocketOrChannelConnectionImpl.java:244) ... 14 more Caused by: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused: connect at sun.nio.ch.Net.connect(Native Method) at sun.nio.ch.SocketChannelImpl.connect(SocketChannelImpl.java:532) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.orbutil.ORBUtility.openSocketChannel(ORBUtility.java:105) at com.sun.enterprise.iiop.IIOPSSLSocketFactory.createSocket(IIOPSSLSocketFactory.java:332) ... 15 more It's o.k. for now (while I'm still in development) that it bombs, but it does this repeatedly and the catch clause is never reached (even though I'm catching Throwable) - the message is not printed. So how can I handle connection errors during lookup in my program?

    Read the article

  • Few iPhone noob questions

    - by mshsayem
    Why should I declare local variables as 'static' inside a method? Like: static NSString *cellIdentifier = @"Cell"; Is it a performance advantage? (I know what 'static' does; in C context) What does this syntax mean?[someObj release], someObj = nil; Two statements? Why should I assign nil again? Is not 'release' enough? Should I do it for all objects I allocate/own? Or for just view objects? Why does everyone copy NSString, but retains other objects (in property declaration)? Yes, NSStrings can be changed, but other objects can be changed also, right? Then why 'copy' for just NSString, not for all? Is it just a defensive convention? Shouldn't I release constant NSString? Like here:NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; Why not? Does the compiler allocate/deallocate it for me? In some tutorial application I observed these (Built with IB): Properties(IBOutlet, with same ivar name): window, someLabel, someTextField, etc etc... In the dealloc method, although the window ivar was released, others were not. My question is: WHY? Shouldn't I release other ivars(labels, textField) as well? Why not? Say, I have 3 cascaded drop-down lists. I mean, based on what is selected on the first list, 2nd list is populated and based on what is selected on the second list, 3rd list is populated. What UI components can reflect this best? How is drop-down list presented in iPhone UI? Tableview with UIPicker? When should I update the 2nd, 3rd list? Or just three labels which have touch events? Can you give me some good example tutorials about Core-Data? (Not just simple data fetching and storing on 2/3 tables with 1/2 relationship) How can I know whether my app is leaking memory? Any tools?

    Read the article

  • how do i know how many clients are calling my WCF service function

    - by ZhengZhiren
    i am writing a program to test WCF service performance in high concurrency circumstance. On client side, i start many threads to call a WCF service function which returns a long list of data object. On server side, in that function called by my client, i need to know the number of clients calling the function. For doing that, i set a counter variable. In the beginning of the function, i add the counter by 1, but how can i decrease it after the funtion has returned the result? int clientCount=0; public DataObject[] GetData() { Interlocked.Increment(ref clientCount); List<DataObject> result = MockDb.GetData(); return result.ToArray(); Interlocked.Decrement(ref clientCount); //can't run to here... } i have seen a way in c++. Create a new class named counter. In the constructor of the counter class, increase the variable. And decrease it in the destructor. In the function, make a counter object so that its constructor will be called. And after the function returns, its destructor will be called. Like this: class counter { public: counter(){++clientCount; /* not simply like this, need to be atomic*/} ~counter(){--clientCount; /* not simply like this, need to be atomic*/} }; ... myfunction() { counter c; //do something return something; } In c# i think i can do so with the following codes, but not for sure. public class Service1 : IService1 { static int clientCount = 0; private class ClientCounter : IDisposable { public ClientCounter() { Interlocked.Increment(ref clientCount); } public void Dispose() { Interlocked.Decrement(ref clientCount); } } public DataObject[] GetData() { using (ClientCounter counter = new ClientCounter()) { List<DataObject> result = MockDb.GetData(); return result.ToArray(); } } } i write a counter class implement the IDisposable interface. And put my function codes into a using block. But it seems that it doesn't work so good. No matter how many threads i start, the clientCount variable is up to 3. Any advise would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Having trouble wrapping functions in the linux kernel

    - by Corey Henderson
    I've written a LKM that implements Trusted Path Execution (TPE) into your kernel: https://github.com/cormander/tpe-lkm I run into an occasional kernel OOPS (describe at the end of this question) when I define WRAP_SYSCALLS to 1, and am at my wit's end trying to track it down. A little background: Since the LSM framework doesn't export its symbols, I had to get creative with how I insert the TPE checking into the running kernel. I wrote a find_symbol_address() function that gives me the address of any function I need, and it works very well. I can call functions like this: int (*my_printk)(const char *fmt, ...); my_printk = find_symbol_address("printk"); (*my_printk)("Hello, world!\n"); And it works fine. I use this method to locate the security_file_mmap, security_file_mprotect, and security_bprm_check functions. I then overwrite those functions with an asm jump to my function to do the TPE check. The problem is, the currently loaded LSM will no longer execute the code for it's hook to that function, because it's been totally hijacked. Here is an example of what I do: int tpe_security_bprm_check(struct linux_binprm *bprm) { int ret = 0; if (bprm->file) { ret = tpe_allow_file(bprm->file); if (IS_ERR(ret)) goto out; } #if WRAP_SYSCALLS stop_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); ret = cs_security_bprm_check.ptr(bprm); start_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); #endif out: return ret; } Notice the section between the #if WRAP_SYSCALLS section (it's defined as 0 by default). If set to 1, the LSM's hook is called because I write the original code back over the asm jump and call that function, but I run into an occasional kernel OOPS with an "invalid opcode": invalid opcode: 0000 [#1] SMP RIP: 0010:[<ffffffff8117b006>] [<ffffffff8117b006>] security_bprm_check+0x6/0x310 I don't know what the issue is. I've tried several different types of locking methods (see the inside of start/stop_my_code for details) to no avail. To trigger the kernel OOPS, write a simple bash while loop that endlessly starts a backgrounded "ls" command. After a minute or so, it'll happen. I'm testing this on a RHEL6 kernel, also works on Ubuntu 10.04 LTS (2.6.32 x86_64). While this method has been the most successful so far, I have tried another method of simply copying the kernel function to a pointer I created with kmalloc but when I try to execute it, I get: kernel tried to execute NX-protected page - exploit attempt? (uid: 0). If anyone can tell me how to kmalloc space and have it marked as executable, that would also help me solve the above problem. Any help is appreciated!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 829 830 831 832 833 834 835 836 837 838 839 840  | Next Page >