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  • Managing several custom content types from one module(drupal)

    - by Andrew
    Is it possible to declare and manage several custom content types inside one module? I'm creating a site that needs four custom content types and I'd like to manage them from one module instead of creating module for every content type. After some testing, I found out that it seems impossible. Because, unless hook_form and content type share the same name of module, drupal doesn't call hook_form. Here's how I'd like to do - function mycontent_node_info(){ return array( 'mycontent1' => array( 'name' => t('....'), 'module' => 'mycontent', 'description' => t('...), 'has_title' => TRUE, 'title_label' => t('Title'), 'has_body' => TRUE, 'body_label' => t('content body'), ), 'mycontent2' => array( ....... ), 'mycontent3' => array( ...... ), 'mycontent4' => array( ...... ), ); } function mycontent1_form(&$node){ $form['control1'] = array( '#type' => 'select', '#options' => array( '0' => t('selection 1'), '1' => t('selection 2'), ), '#attributes' => array('id'=>'control1'), ); $form['control2'] = array( '#type' => 'select', '#options' => array( '0' => t('1'), '1' => t('2'), '2' => t('3'), '3' => t('4'), ), '#attributes' => array('id'=>'control2'), ); return $form; } function mycontent2_form(&$node){ .... } function mycontent3_form(&$node){ .... } function mycontent4_form(&$node){ .... } Am I doing something wrong here or is not possible and there's no alternative other than creating module for every content types. I appreciate much your help.

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  • Flex Drag & Drop: Detecting when all data has been moved from source to destination

    - by Adam Tuttle
    I have two mx:TileList controls that I'm using to allow editing of objects in batch. The first contains a collection of all available data, and the 2nd contains the current batch. Both are bound to ArrayCollections, and using the native drag-n-drop functionality of the TileList control the data is moved from one ArrayCollection to the other when an object is dragged between them. I need to change the currentState to show & reset the batch manipulation controls when the batch count goes from 0 to n or n to 0 items. Based on the documentation, I would have thought that I should listen to the dragComplete event, but my testing shows that instead of firing after the data has been removed from the source ArrayCollection and added to the destination ArrayCollection, it fires (consistently) between these two actions. Both lists are similar to this: <mx:TileList id="srcList" dragEnabled="true" dropEnabled="true" dragMoveEnabled="true" dataProvider="{images}" dragComplete="handleDragComplete(event)" allowMultipleSelection="true" /> And here's the source of the handleDragComplete function: private function handleDragComplete(e:DragEvent):void{ trace(e.dragInitiator.name + '.dragComplete: batch.length=' + batch.length.toString()); trace(e.dragInitiator.name + '.dragComplete: images.length=' + images.length.toString()); if (batch.length > 0){ currentState = 'show'; }else{ currentState = ''; } } And lastly, here's some example output from running the code. These are all run one after the other. Case 1: The application loads with 10 objects in the first list and the batch is empty. I dragged 1 object from the source list to the batch list. srcList.dragComplete: batch.length=1 srcList.dragComplete: images.length=10 (Expected: 1,9) Clearly, the object has been added to the batch ArrayCollection but not removed from the source. Case 2: Now, I'll drag a 2nd object into the batch. srcList.dragComplete: batch.length=2 srcList.dragComplete: images.length=9 (Expected: 2,8) Firstly, we can see that images.length has changed, showing that the object that I dragged from the source list to the batch list was removed AFTER the dragComplete event fired. The same thing happens this time: The new object is added to the batch ArrayCollection (batch.length=2), the dragComplete event fires (running these traces), and then the object is removed from the source ArrayCollection. Case 3: Now, I'll drag both images from the batch list back to their original location in the source list. batchList.dragComplete: batch.length=2 batchList.dragComplete: images.length=10 (Expected: 0,10) We can see that batch.length hasn't gone down, but the source images array is back at its original length of 10. QUESTION: Am I doing something wrong? Is there another event I could listen for? (Note: I tried both DragExit and DragDrop, just to be sure, and those behave as expected, but are not what I need.) Or is there another way to get the data that I want? Or... have I found a bug in the SDK?

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  • jQuery - Save to SQL via PHP

    - by Kenny Bones
    This is probably easy for you guys, but I can't understand it. I want to save the filename of an image to it's own row in the SQL base. Basically, I log on to the site where I have my own userID. And each user has its own column for background images. And the user can choose his own image if he wants to. So basically, when the user clicks on the image he wants, a jquery click event occurs and an ajax call is made to a php file which is supposed to take care of the actual update. The row for each user always exist so there's only an update of the data that's necessary. First, I collect the filename of the css property 'background-image' and split it so I get only the filename. I then store that filename in a variable I call 'filename' which is then passed on to this jQuery snippet: $.ajax({ url: 'save_to_db.php', data: filename, dataType:'Text', type: 'POST', success: function(data) { // Just for testing purposes. alert('Background changed to: ' + data); } }); And this is the php: <?php require("dbconnect.php") ?> <?php $uploadstring = ($_POST['filename']); mysql_query("UPDATE brukere SET brukerBakgrunn = $uploadstring WHERE brukerID=" .$_SESSION['id'] .""; mysql_close(); ?> Basically, each user has their own ID and this is called 'brukerID' The table everything is in is called 'brukere' and the column I'm supposed to update is the one called 'brukerBakgrunn' When I just run the javascript snippet, I get this message box in return where it says: Background changed to: Parse error: syntax error, unexpected ';' in /var/www/clients/client2/web8/web/save_to_db.php on line 8 I actualle get this messagebox twice, not sure why. Line 8 in 'save_to_db.php' is this one: mysql_query("UPDATE brukere SET brukerBakgrunn = $uploadstring WHERE brukerID=" .$_SESSION['id'] .""; Not sure if you need to see db_connect.php as well. I can add that later if you need to see it. So what am I missing here?

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  • issues regarding UAC prompt

    - by peter
    I want to implement a UAC prompt for an application in visualc++ the operating system is 32bit x7460(2processor) Windowsserver 2008 the exe is myproject.exe through manifest.. Here for testing i wl build the application in Windows XP OS and copy the exe in to system containg the Windowsserver 2008 machine and replace it So what i did is i added a manifest like this name of that is myproject.exe.manifest My project has 3 folders like Headerfile,Resourcefile and Source file.I added this manifest(myproject.exe.manifest) in the Sourcefile folder containing other cpp and c code <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <assembly xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1" manifestVersion="1.0"> <assemblyIdentity version="4.0" processorArchitecture="X7460" name="myproject" type="win32"/> <description>myproject Problem</description> <!-- Identify the application security requirements. --> <trustInfo xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v2"> <security> <requestedPrivileges> <requestedExecutionLevel level="requireAdministrator" uiAccess="false"/> </requestedPrivileges> </security> </trustInfo> </assembly> then i added this line of code in Resourcefile(.rc).Means one header file is there(Myproject.h).I added the line of code there #define MANIFEST_RESOURCE_ID 1 MANIFEST_RESOURCE_ID RT_MANIFEST "myproject.exe.manifest" Finally i did the following step Under Project, select Properties. 3. In Properties, select Manifest Tool, and then select Input and Output. 4. Add in the name of your application manifest file under Additional manifest files. 5. Rebuild your application. But i am getting lot of Syntax errors Is there any problems in the way which i followed.If i commented the line #define MANIFEST_RESOURCE_ID 1 MANIFEST_RESOURCE_ID RT_MANIFEST "myproject.exe.manifest" which added in Myproject.h for adding values in .rc file there willnot any error other than this general error c1010070: Failed to load and parse the manifest. The system cannot find the file specified. .\myproject.exe.manifest How to enable UAC prompt through programming

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  • WPF PathGeometry/RotateTransform optimization

    - by devinb
    I am having performance issues when rendering/rotating WPF triangles If I had a WPF triangle being displayed and it will be rotated to some degree around a centrepoint, I can do it one of two ways: Programatically determine the points and their offset in the backend, use XAML to simply place them on the canvas where they belong, it would look like this: <Path Stroke="Black"> <Path.Data> <PathGeometry> <PathFigure StartPoint ="{Binding CalculatedPointA, Mode=OneWay}"> <LineSegment Point="{Binding CalculatedPointB, Mode=OneWay}" /> <LineSegment Point="{Binding CalculatedPointC, Mode=OneWay}" /> <LineSegment Point="{Binding CalculatedPointA, Mode=OneWay}" /> </PathFigure> </PathGeometry> </Path.Data> </Path> Generate the 'same' triangle every time, and then use a RenderTransform (Rotate) to put it where it belongs. In this case, the rotation calculations are being obfuscated, because I don't have any access to how they are being done. <Path Stroke="Black"> <Path.Data> <PathGeometry> <PathFigure StartPoint ="{Binding TriPointA, Mode=OneWay}"> <LineSegment Point="{Binding TriPointB, Mode=OneWay}" /> <LineSegment Point="{Binding TriPointC, Mode=OneWay}" /> <LineSegment Point="{Binding TriPointA, Mode=OneWay}" /> </PathFigure> </PathGeometry> </Path.Data> <Path.RenderTransform> <RotateTransform CenterX="{Binding Centre.X, Mode=OneWay}" CenterY="{Binding Centre.Y, Mode=OneWay}" Angle="{Binding Orientation, Mode=OneWay}" /> </Path.RenderTransform> </Path> My question is which one is faster? I know I should test it myself but how do I measure the render time of objects with such granularity. I would need to be able to time how long the actual rendering time is for the form, but since I'm not the one that's kicking off the redraw, I don't know how to capture the start time.

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  • Regular expression Not working properly n case of multiple trailing ]]]]

    - by ronan
    I have the requirement that in a textbox a user can jump to the next word enclosed in [] on a tab out for example Hi [this] is [an] example. Testing [this] So when my cursor is at Hi and I do a tab out , the characters enclosed in the [this] are highlighted and when I again do a tabl out th next characters enclosed in following [an] are highlighted. This works fine Now the requirement is whatever the text including the special chars between [] needs to be highlighted case 1: when I have trailing ]]], it only highlights leading [[[ and ignores ]]]] e.g case 2: In case of multiple trailing ] e.e [this]]]] is [test], ideally one a single tabl out from this , it should go to next text enclosed in [] but a user has to tab out 4 times one tab per training ] to go to next [text] strong text The code is $(document).ready(function() { $('textarea').highlightTextarea({ color : '#0475D1', words : [ "/(\[.*?\])/g" ], textColor : '#000000' }); $('textarea').live('keydown', function(e) { var keyCode = e.keyCode || e.which; if (keyCode == 9) { var currentIndex = getCaret($(this).get(0)) selectText($(this), currentIndex); return false; } }); }); function selectText(element, currentIndex) { var rSearchTerm = new RegExp(/(\[.*?\])/); var ind = element.val().substr(currentIndex).search(rSearchTerm) currentIndex = (ind == -1 ? 0 : currentIndex); ind = (ind == -1 ? element.val().search(rSearchTerm) : ind); currentIndex = (ind == -1 ? 0 : currentIndex); var lasInd = (element.val().substr(currentIndex).search(rSearchTerm) == -1 ? 0 : element.val().substr(currentIndex).indexOf(']')); var input = element.get(0); if (input.setSelectionRange) { input.focus(); input.setSelectionRange(ind + currentIndex, lasInd + 1 + currentIndex); } else if (input.createTextRange) { var range = input.createTextRange(); range.collapse(true); range.moveEnd('character', lasInd + 1 + currentIndex); range.moveStart('character', ind + currentIndex); range.select(); } } function getCaret(el) { if (el.selectionEnd) { return el.selectionEnd; } else if (document.selection) { el.focus(); var r = document.selection.createRange(); if (r == null) { return 0; } var re = el.createTextRange(), rc = re.duplicate(); re.moveToBookmark(r.getBookmark()); rc.setEndPoint('EndToStart', re); return rc.text.length; } return 0; } Please let me know to handle two above cases

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  • Adding a clustered index to a SQL table: what dangers exist for a live production system?

    - by MoSlo
    Right, keep in mind i need to describe this by abstracting all possible confidential info: I've been put in charge of a 10-year old transactional system of which the majority business logic is implemented at database level (triggers, stored procedures etc). Win2000 server, MSSQL 2000 Enterprise. No immediate plans for replacing/updating the system are being considered :( The core process is a program that executes transactions - specifically, it executes a stored procedure with various parameters, lets call it sp_ProcessTrans. The program executes the stored procedure at asynchronous intervals. By itself, things work fine. But there are 30 instances of this program on remotely located workstations, all of them asynchronously executing sp_ProcessTrans and then retrieving data from the SQL server (execution is pretty regular - ranging 0 to 60 times a minute, depending on what items the program instance is responsible for) . Performance of the system has dropped considerably with 10 yrs of data growth: the reason is the deadlocks and specifically deadlock wait times. The deadlock is on the Employee table. I have discovered: In sp_ProcessTrans' execution, it selects from an Employee table 7 times (dont ask) The select is done on a field that is NOT the primary key No index exists on this field. Thus a table scan is performed. 7 times. per transaction So the reason for deadlocks is clear. I created a non-unique ordered clustered index on the field (field looks good, almost unique, NUM(7), very rarely changes). Immediate improvement in the test environment. The problem is that i cannot simulate the deadlocks in a test environment (I'd need 30 workstations; i'd need to simulate 'realistic' activity on those stations, so visualization is out). I need to know if i must schedule downtime. Creating an index shouldn't be a risky operation for MSSQL, but is there any danger (data corruption in transactions/select statements/extra wait time etc) to create this field index on the production database while the transactions are still taking place? (although i can select a time when transactions are fairly quiet through the 30 stations) Are there any hidden dangers i'm not seeing (not looking forward to needing to restore the DB if something goes wrong, restoring would take a lot of time with 10yrs of data).

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  • Interconnecting Emulator Instances Android

    - by blah01
    Hi all I want to communicate two emulators via DatagramSocket in Android. Each of them is a Node in a P2P system. Thus each of them has a server Thread and client Thread (created per GUI event). This is how I create server public static final String SERVERIP = "10.0.2.15"; //... run() { InetAddress serverAddr = InetAddress.getByName(SERVERIP); DatagramSocket socket = new DatagramSocket(SERVERPORT,serverAddr); while(true) { byte[] buf = new byte[29]; DatagramPacket packet = new DatagramPacket(buf, buf.length); socket.receive(packet); //... } } The port is given by the user during initializing application. The client part (requesting some data) InetAddress serverAddr = InetAddress.getByName("10.0.2.2"); //... Log.i("Requester", "Trying to connect to device port = "+target); DatagramSocket socketJ = new DatagramSocket(); byte[] bufJ = Adaptor.createStringMsg(Adaptor.createJoingMsg(id, Location.getX(), Location.getY())).getBytes(); DatagramPacket packetJ = new DatagramPacket(bufJ, bufJ.length, serverAddr, target); Log.i("Requester", "Sending: '" + new String(bufJ) + "'"); socketJ.send(packetJ); Log.i("Requester", "Done."); Some additional info. The Node1 (emulatorA) has a server on port 8000 and Node2 (emulatorB) has a server on port 8001. The target port for "client part" is read properly. What tried to do is to set the redirection as such: //emulatorA redir add tcp:8000:8000 //emulatorB redir add tcp:8001:8001 However I can not get any communication beetwen those 2 emulators. As far as I understood the android tutorial about it should work like this redir add tcp:localhostPort:emulatorPort. I'm stuck with it :/. Can anyone point me the mistake or give some good advice. For the record while I was testing communication on a single device (client faking other node) everything worked, so I don't think there is a bug in the code. Btw does any one knows how can I get 2 set of logs for those 2 emulators (logA, logB)? It would help me a lot.

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  • Unable to find assembly, C#

    - by PlasmaCube
    So, here's the deal. I've got two ASP.NET applications, both of which use SQLServer Session State management. They also both use the same server. I've got a custom session class in an external DLL, which fully implements serialization, and which both applications have referenced. Each application, in turn, has a class which inherits from the DLL class, and both applications use their own respective classes for their session state. Now, what I was trying to accomplish was that if you wanted to go to the other application, it could look in the session (they all use the same session key) and treat the existing object there as the base (the one from the DLL), extract whatever login info you need, then overwrite the session object with your own. Unfortunately, when the second application attempts to read the session, it seems that it looks for the DLL of the first application, and when it can't find it, it throws an exception. Is there a flaw in my logic? Here's an example: // Global.asax of the 1st app protected void Session_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { Session.Add( "UserSessionKey", new FirstUserSession()); // FirstUserSession inherits from BaseUserSession } Now the second application: // Global.asax of 2nd app protected void Session_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Session["UserSessionKey"] != null) { BaseUserSession existing = (BaseUserSession)Session["UserSessionKey"]; SecondUserSession session = new SecondUserSession(); // This also inherits from BaseUserSession session.Authenticated = existing.Authenticated; session.Id = existing.Id; session.Role = existing.Role; Session.Add("UserSessionKey", session); } else { Session.Add("UserSessionKey", new SecondUserSession()); } } Here's the exception stack trace. In this case, "MyCBC" is the real name of the first app, and "ASPTesting" is the second app. [SerializationException: Unable to find assembly 'MyCBC, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'.] System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.BinaryAssemblyInfo.GetAssembly() +1871092 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectReader.GetType(BinaryAssemblyInfo assemblyInfo, String name) +7545734 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectMap..ctor(String objectName, String[] memberNames, BinaryTypeEnum[] binaryTypeEnumA, Object[] typeInformationA, Int32[] memberAssemIds, ObjectReader objectReader, Int32 objectId, BinaryAssemblyInfo assemblyInfo, SizedArray assemIdToAssemblyTable) +120 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectMap.Create(String name, String[] memberNames, BinaryTypeEnum[] binaryTypeEnumA, Object[] typeInformationA, Int32[] memberAssemIds, ObjectReader objectReader, Int32 objectId, BinaryAssemblyInfo assemblyInfo, SizedArray assemIdToAssemblyTable) +52 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.__BinaryParser.ReadObjectWithMapTyped(BinaryObjectWithMapTyped record) +190 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.__BinaryParser.ReadObjectWithMapTyped(BinaryHeaderEnum binaryHeaderEnum) +61 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.__BinaryParser.Run() +253 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectReader.Deserialize(HeaderHandler handler, __BinaryParser serParser, Boolean fCheck, Boolean isCrossAppDomain, IMethodCallMessage methodCallMessage) +168 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.BinaryFormatter.Deserialize(Stream serializationStream, HeaderHandler handler, Boolean fCheck, Boolean isCrossAppDomain, IMethodCallMessage methodCallMessage) +203 System.Web.Util.AltSerialization.ReadValueFromStream(BinaryReader reader) +788 System.Web.SessionState.SessionStateItemCollection.ReadValueFromStreamWithAssert() +55 System.Web.SessionState.SessionStateItemCollection.DeserializeItem(String name, Boolean check) +281 System.Web.SessionState.SessionStateItemCollection.get_Item(String name) +19 System.Web.SessionState.HttpSessionStateContainer.get_Item(String name) +13 System.Web.SessionState.HttpSessionState.get_Item(String name) +13 ASPTesting._Default.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) in C:\Documents and Settings\sarsstu\My Documents\Projects\Testing\ASPTesting\ASPTesting\Default.aspx.cs:20 System.Web.Util.CalliHelper.EventArgFunctionCaller(IntPtr fp, Object o, Object t, EventArgs e) +14 System.Web.Util.CalliEventHandlerDelegateProxy.Callback(Object sender, EventArgs e) +35 System.Web.UI.Control.OnLoad(EventArgs e) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +50 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +627 Thanks to everyone in advance.

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  • Correct use of a "for...in" loop in javascript?

    - by jnkrois
    Hello everybody, before I ask my question I wanted to let everybody know that I appreciate the fact that there's always somebody out there willing to help, and on my end I'll try to give back to the community as much as I can. Thanks Now, I would like to get some pointers as to how to properly take advantage of the "for...in" loop in JavaScript, I already did some research and tried a couple things but it is still not clear to me how to properly use it. Let's say I have a random number of "select" tags in an HTML form, and I don't require the user to select an option for all of them, they can leave some untouched if they want. However I need to know if they selected none or at least one. The way I'm trying to find out if the user selected any of them is by using the "for...in" loop. For example: var allSelected = $("select option:selected"); var totalSelected = $("select option:selected").length; The first variable produces an array of all the selected options. The second variable tells me how many selected options I have in the form (select tags could be more than one and it changes every time). Now, in order to see if any has been selected I loop through each element (selected option), and retrieve the "value" attribute. The default "option" tag has a value="0", so if any selected option returns a value greater than 0, I know at least one option has been selected, however it does not have to be in order, this is my loop so far: for(var i = 0; i < totalSelected; i++){ var eachOption = $(allSelected[i]).val(); var defaultValue = 0; if(eachOption == defaultValue){ ...redirect to another page }else if(eachOption > defaultValue){ ... I display an alert } } My problem here is that as soon as the "if" matches a 0 value, it sends the user to the next page without testing the rest of the elements in the array, and the user could have selected the second or third options. What I really want to do is check all the elements in the array and then take the next action, in my mind this is how I could do it, but I'm not getting it right: var randomValue = 25; for(randomValue in allSelected){ var found = true; var notFound = false if(found){ display an alert }else{ redirect to next page } } This loop or the logic I'm using are flawed (I'm pretty sure), what I want to do is test all the elements in the array against a single variable and take the next action accordingly. I hope this makes some sense to you guys, any help would be appreciated. Thanks, JC

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  • AudioTrack lag: obtainBuffer timed out

    - by BTR
    I'm playing WAVs on my Android phone by loading the file and feeding the bytes into AudioTrack.write() via the FileInputStream BufferedInputStream DataInputStream method. The audio plays fine and when it is, I can easily adjust sample rate, volume, etc on the fly with nice performance. However, it's taking about two full seconds for a track to start playing. I know AudioTrack has an inescapable delay, but this is ridiculous. Every time I play a track, I get this: 03-13 14:55:57.100: WARN/AudioTrack(3454): obtainBuffer timed out (is the CPU pegged?) 0x2e9348 user=00000960, server=00000000 03-13 14:55:57.340: WARN/AudioFlinger(72): write blocked for 233 msecs, 9 delayed writes, thread 0xba28 I've noticed that the delayed write count increases by one every time I play a track -- even across multiple sessions -- from the time the phone has been turned on. The block time is always 230 - 240ms, which makes sense considering a minimum buffer size of 9600 on this device (9600 / 44100). I've seen this message in countless searches on the Internet, but it usually seems to be related to not playing audio at all or skipping audio. In my case, it's just a delayed start. I'm running all my code in a high priority thread. Here's a truncated-yet-functional version of what I'm doing. This is the thread callback in my playback class. Again, this works (only playing 16-bit, 44.1kHz, stereo files right now), it just takes forever to start and has that obtainBuffer/delayed write message every time. public void run() { // Load file FileInputStream mFileInputStream; try { // mFile is instance of custom file class -- this is correct, // so don't sweat this line mFileInputStream = new FileInputStream(mFile.path()); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) {} BufferedInputStream mBufferedInputStream = new BufferedInputStream(mFileInputStream, mBufferLength); DataInputStream mDataInputStream = new DataInputStream(mBufferedInputStream); // Skip header try { if (mDataInputStream.available() > 44) mDataInputStream.skipBytes(44); } catch (IOException e) {} // Initialize device mAudioTrack = new AudioTrack(AudioManager.STREAM_MUSIC, ConfigManager.SAMPLE_RATE, AudioFormat.CHANNEL_CONFIGURATION_STEREO, AudioFormat.ENCODING_PCM_16BIT, ConfigManager.AUDIO_BUFFER_LENGTH, AudioTrack.MODE_STREAM); mAudioTrack.play(); // Initialize buffer byte[] mByteArray = new byte[mBufferLength]; int mBytesToWrite = 0; int mBytesWritten = 0; // Loop to keep thread running while (mRun) { // This flag is turned on when the user presses "play" while (mPlaying) { try { // Check if data is available if (mDataInputStream.available() > 0) { // Read data from file and write to audio device mBytesToWrite = mDataInputStream.read(mByteArray, 0, mBufferLength); mBytesWritten += mAudioTrack.write(mByteArray, 0, mBytesToWrite); } } catch (IOException e) { } } } } If I can get past the artificially long lag, I can easily deal with the inherit latency by starting my write at a later, predictable position (ie, skip past the minimum buffer length when I start playing a file).

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  • Creating a multiplatform webapp with HTML5 and Google maps

    - by Bart L.
    I'm struggling how to develop a webapp for Android and iOS. My first app was a simple todo app which was easy to test in my browser and it only used html, javascript and css. However, I have to create an app which uses Google Maps Api to get the location. I created a simple html5 page to test which places a marker on a map. It works fine when testing it on my local server. But when I create an .apk file for Android, the app doesn't work. So I'm wondering, isn't it possible to use it like this? Do I have the use the phonegap libraries to use their geolocation library? And if so, how do you handle the development of a webapp in phonegap for multiple OS? Do you have to install an Android environment and an iOS environment to each include the right phonegap library and to test them properly? Update: I use the following code on my webserver and it works perfectly. When I upload it in a zip-folder to the photogap cloud and install the APK file on my phone, it doesn't work. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <meta charset="utf-8"> <title>Simple Geo test</title> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.8/jquery.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://maps.google.com/maps/api/js?sensor=true"></script> <script> function success(position) { var mapcanvas = document.createElement('div'); mapcanvas.id = 'mapcontainer'; mapcanvas.style.height = '200px'; mapcanvas.style.width = '200px'; document.querySelector('article').appendChild(mapcanvas); var coords = new google.maps.LatLng(position.coords.latitude, position.coords.longitude); var options = { zoom: 15, center: coords, mapTypeControl: false, navigationControlOptions: { style: google.maps.NavigationControlStyle.SMALL }, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("mapcontainer"), options); var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: coords, map: map, title:"You are here!" }); } if (navigator.geolocation) { navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition(success); } else { error('Geo Location is not supported'); } </script> <article></article> </body> </html>

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  • Bitmap brightness issue in c++

    - by Suriyan Suresh
    I have used the following code to adjust the image brightness, i am testing this application in Samsung BADA Platform and its SDK, While i am running this application in bada simulator it never ends runs infinity. Please point out the mistake in the code int BitmapWidth = 0, BitmapHeight = 0; result r = E_SUCCESS; BufferInfo myBuffer; Osp::Media::Image *pImage = null; Osp::Graphics::Canvas *pCanvas = null; Osp::Graphics::Rectangle *pRect = null; String path("/Media/Images/tom1.jpg"); pImage = new Osp::Media::Image(); r = pImage->Construct(); pBitmap2 = pImage->DecodeN(path, BITMAP_PIXEL_FORMAT_ARGB8888,LCD_WIDTH, LCD_HEIGHT); BitmapWidth = pBitmap2->GetWidth(); BitmapHeight = pBitmap2->GetHeight(); pBitmap2->Lock( myBuffer); int nVal = 0; int stride = myBuffer.pitch; byte *p= (byte *)(void *)myBuffer.pPixels; int nWidth = BitmapWidth *3; int nOffset = stride - BitmapWidth*4; for (int y = 0; y < BitmapHeight; ++y) { for (int x = 0; x < nWidth; ++x) { nVal = (int) (p[0] + nBrightness); if (nVal < 0) nVal = 0; if (nVal > 255) nVal = 255; p[0] = (byte) nVal; ++p; } p+= nOffset; } pBitmap2->Unlock(); pCanvas = GetCanvasN(); // Step 3: Create Rectangle pRect = new Osp::Graphics::Rectangle(0, 0, LCD_WIDTH, LCD_HEIGHT); r = pCanvas->DrawBitmap(*pRect, *pBitmap2); pCanvas->Show(); RequestRedraw(true); delete pBitmap2; delete pCanvas; delete pRect;

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  • Can I use the [] operator in C++ to create virtual arrays

    - by Shane MacLaughlin
    I have a large code base, originally C ported to C++ many years ago, that is operating on a number of large arrays of spatial data. These arrays contain structs representing point and triangle entities that represent surface models. I need to refactor the code such that the specific way these entities are stored internally varies for specific scenarios. For example if the points lie on a regular flat grid, I don't need to store the X and Y coordinates, as they can be calculated on the fly, as can the triangles. Similarly, I want to take advantage of out of core tools such as STXXL for storage. The simplest way of doing this is replacing array access with put and get type functions, e.g. point[i].x = XV; becomes Point p = GetPoint(i); p.x = XV; PutPoint(i,p); As you can imagine, this is a very tedious refactor on a large code base, prone to all sorts of errors en route. What I'd like to do is write a class that mimics the array by overloading the [] operator. As the arrays already live on the heap, and move around with reallocs, the code already assumes that references into the array such as point *p = point + i; may not be used. Is this class feasible to write? For example writing the methods below in terms of the [] operator; void MyClass::PutPoint(int Index, Point p) { if (m_StorageStrategy == RegularGrid) { int xoffs,yoffs; ComputeGridFromIndex(Index,xoffs,yoffs); StoreGridPoint(xoffs,yoffs,p.z); } else m_PointArray[Index] = p; } } Point MyClass::GetPoint(int Index) { if (m_StorageStrategy == RegularGrid) { int xoffs,yoffs; ComputeGridFromIndex(Index,xoffs,yoffs); return GetGridPoint(xoffs,yoffs); // GetGridPoint returns Point } else return m_PointArray[Index]; } } My concern is that all the array classes I've seen tend to pass by reference, whereas I think I'll have to pass structs by value. I think it should work put other than performance, can anyone see any major pitfalls with this approach. n.b. the reason I have to pass by value is to get point[a].z = point[b].z + point[c].z to work correctly where the underlying storage type varies.

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  • Should I HttpCombine Google Jquery Hosted File?

    - by chobo2
    Hi I am using something called HttpCombiner: http://code.msdn.microsoft.com/HttpCombiner An HTTP handler that combines multiple CSS, Javascript or URL into one response for faster page load. It can combine, compress and cache response which results in faster page load and better scalability of web application It's a good practice to use many small Javascript and CSS files instead of one large Javascript/CSS file for better code maintainability, but bad in terms of website performance. Although you should write your Javascript code in small files and break large CSS files into small chunks but when browser requests those javascript and css files, it makes one Http request per file. Every Http Request results in a network roundtrip form your browser to the server and the delay in reaching the server and coming back to the browser is called latency. So, if you have four javascripts and three css files loaded by a page, you are wasting time in seven network roundtrips. Within USA, latency is average 70ms. So, you waste 7x70 = 490ms, about half a second of delay. Outside USA, average latency is around 200ms. So, that means 1400ms of waiting. Browser cannot show the page properly until Css and Javascripts are fully loaded. So, the more latency you have, the slower page loads. You can reduce the wait time by using a CDN. Read my previous blog post about using CDN. However, a better solution is to deliver multiple files over one request using an HttpHandler that combines several files and delivers as one output. So, instead of putting many or tag, you just put one and one tag, and point them to the HttpHandler. You tell the handler which files to combine and it delivers those files in one response. This saves browser from making many requests and eliminates the latency. This Http Handler reads the file names defined in a configuration and combines all those files and delivers as one response. It delivers the response as gzip compressed to save bandwidth. Moreover, it generates proper cache header to cache the response in browser cache, so that, browser does not request it again on future visit. Now I am wondering since it can handle adding links should I put in it the jquery file? The reason I am not sure is if it gets combined with my other files I think I might close the advantages of it being hosted on googles servers such as caching(my thinking is if it gets combined it will look different so even if a user has it in it's cache I am not sure if it will use the one for the cahce or not). So should I combine it or only the finals that I am using locally?

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  • Add console.profile statements to JavaScript/jQuery code on the fly.

    - by novogeek
    Hi folks, We have a thick client app using jQuery heavily and want to profile the performance of the code using firebug's console.profile API. The problem is, I don't want to change the code to write the profile statements. Take this example: var search=function(){ this.init=function(){ console.log('init'); } this.ajax=function(){ console.log('ajax'); //make ajax call using $.ajax and do some DOM manipulations here.. } this.cache=function(){ console.log('cache'); } } var instance=new search(); instance.ajax(); I want to profile my instance.ajax method, but I dont want to add profile statements in the code, as that makes it difficult to maintain the code. I'm trying to override the methods using closures, like this: http://www.novogeek.com/post/2010/02/27/Overriding-jQueryJavaScript-functions-using-closures.aspx but am not very sure how I can achieve. Any pointers on this? I think this would help many big projects to profile the code easily without a big change in code. Here is the idea. Just run the below code in firebug console, to know what I'm trying to achieve. var search=function(){ this.init=function(){ console.log('init'); } this.ajax=function(){ console.log('ajax'); //make ajax call using $.ajax and do some DOM manipulations here.. } this.cache=function(){ console.log('cache'); } } var instance=new search(); $.each(instance, function(functionName, functionBody){ (function(){ var dup=functionBody functionBody=function(){ console.log('modifying the old function: ',functionName); console.profile(functionName); dup.apply(this,arguments); console.profileEnd(functionName); } })(); console.log(functionName, '::', functionBody()); }); Now what I need is, if i say instance.ajax(), I want the new ajax() method to be called, along with the console.profile statements. Hope I'm clear with the requirement. Please improvise the above code. Regards, Krishna, http://www.novogeek.com

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  • Rails controller not rendering correct view when form is force-submitted by Javascript

    - by whazzmaster
    I'm using Rails with jQuery, and I'm working on a page for a simple site that prints each record to a table. The only editable field for each record is a checkbox. My goal is that every time a checkbox is changed, an ajax request updates that boolean attribute for the record (i.e., no submit button). My view code: <td> <% form_remote_tag :url => admin_update_path, :html => { :id => "form#{lead.id}" } do %> <%= hidden_field :lead, :id, :value => lead.id %> <%= check_box :lead, :contacted, :id => "checkbox"+lead.id.to_s, :checked => lead.contacted, :onchange => "$('#form#{lead.id}').submit();" %> <% end %> </td> In my routes.rb, admin_update_path is defined by map.admin_update 'update', :controller => "admin", :action => "update", :method => :post I also have an RJS template to render back an update. The contents of this file is currently just for testing (I just wanted to see if it worked, this will not be the ultimate functionality on a successful save)... page << "$('#checkbox#{@lead.id}').hide();" When clicked, the ajax request is successfully sent, with the correct params, and the action on the controller can retrieve the record and update it just fine. The problem is that it doesn't send back the JS; it changes the page in the browser and renders the generated Javascript as plain text rather than executing it in-place. Rails does some behind-the-scenes stuff to figure out if the incoming request is an ajax call, and I can't figure out why it's interpreting the incoming request as a regular web request as opposed to an ajax request. I may be missing something extremely simple here, but I've kind-of burned myself out looking so I thought I'd ask for another pair of eyes. Thanks in advance for any info!

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  • Problems with starting windows service on windows xp SP3

    - by Michiel Peeters
    I'm currently facing a problem which I can not resolve and I really don't know what to do anymore. When I'm trying to start the service I receive the message: "The service is started but again also stopped, this because that some of the services will stop if they have nothing to do, for example the performance logs and the alerts service". I've looked into the Windows Logs but nothing is written there which could describe why my service is all the time stopping. I've also tried to fire the windows service via the command prompt which gives me the message: "The service is not started, but the service didn't return any faults.". I've tried to remove all keys which references to my service, which didn't resolve the issue. I've searched on google (maybe not good enough) to find an answer but I didn't found any. I did found some websites which describes what I could do, but all of these suggestions didn't work. This is kinda ** because I do not know where to look. I do not have any error message, i do not have any id which i can use to search on. I really don't know where to start and I hope you guys can help me on this one. Detailed explanation about the windows service OS: Windows XP SP3 .Net Framework: .Net 4.0 Client Profile Language: C# Development environment: Visual Studio 2010 Professional (but Visual Studio 2012 RC is installed) Communications: WCF (Named Pipes), WCF (BasicHTTPBinding) Named Pipes: I have chosen for this solution because I wanted to communicate from a windows service to a windows form application. It worked now for quite some time but suddenly my windows service shuts it self down and I couldn't restart it anymore. There are two named pipes services implemented: An event service which will send any notification to the windows form application and an management service which gives my windows form application the possibility to maintain my windows service. BasicHTTPBinding: The basic http binding makes the connection to a central server. This connection is then used for streaming information from the client to the server. I do not know which additional information you will need, but if you guys need something then I'll try to give it as detailed as possible. Thank you in advance.

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  • IE sends multiple cookies with same name?

    - by akach
    I have a strange bug that occurs in IE7/XP and IE8/Vista on my website. IE sends two cookies named PHPSESSID. How to reproduce: Clear cookies in IE (not necessary if you never visited unisender.com). Visit unisender.com (exactly without www to reproduce!) and it will redirect to www.unisender.com Login with any valid username and password (I've registered username testmsdn with password testmsdn - feel free to use for testing) Run your favourite capture-the-traffic program (I prefer wireshark) Now click any menu link (e.g. "messages") Look at captured traffic - you will see that IE sends double PHPSESSID cookie (and you are logged out after click because of this). It seems like first PHPSESSID is from unisender.com and second from www.unisender.com. Captured sample: GET /en/letter_list HTTP/1.1 Accept: image/gif, image/jpeg, image/pjpeg, application/x-ms-application, application/vnd.ms-xpsdocument, application/xaml+xml, application/x-ms-xbap, application/x-shockwave-flash, / Referer: http://www.unisender.com/en/intro Accept-Language: ru User-Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.0; Trident/4.0; Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Windows NT 5.1; SV1) ; SLCC1; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.21022; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; FDM; .NET CLR 3.0.30729) Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate Host: www.unisender.com Connection: Keep-Alive Cookie: authchallenge=3a9cfcfc9fe33822e3e21d75c8a3d3e4; PHPSESSID=14ea1cb133632951592397c86eaf037e; us_reg_ref=unknown; us_reg_url=http%3A%2F%2Funisender.com%2F; __utma=1.778517853.1271204400.1271204400.1271204400.1; __utmb=1.3.10.1271204400; __utmc=1; __utmz=1.1271204400.1.1.utmcsr=(direct)|utmccn=(direct)|utmcmd=(none); PHPSESSID=65e110aeb995a66b9dc8da5656c7a3da; last_login_name=testmsdn I've tried to use session and non-session cookies, tried to use .unisender.com instead of unisender.com for cookie - nothing helps. I suppose there should not be cookies with same name. Am I right? Is it a bug in IE? If it's a bug then is there a workaround? Or am I wrong and it's an expected behavior?

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  • Query performs poorly unless a temp table is used

    - by Paul McLoughlin
    The following query takes about 1 minute to run, and has the following IO statistics: SELECT T.RGN, T.CD, T.FUND_CD, T.TRDT, SUM(T2.UNITS) AS TotalUnits FROM dbo.TRANS AS T JOIN dbo.TRANS AS T2 ON T2.RGN=T.RGN AND T2.CD=T.CD AND T2.FUND_CD=T.FUND_CD AND T2.TRDT<=T.TRDT JOIN TASK_REQUESTS AS T3 ON T3.CD=T.CD AND T3.RGN=T.RGN AND T3.TASK = 'UPDATE_MEM_BAL' GROUP BY T.RGN, T.CD, T.FUND_CD, T.TRDT (4447 row(s) affected) Table 'TRANSACTIONS'. Scan count 5977, logical reads 7527408, physical reads 0, read-ahead reads 0, lob logical reads 0, lob physical reads 0, lob read-ahead reads 0. Table 'TASK_REQUESTS'. Scan count 1, logical reads 11, physical reads 0, read-ahead reads 0, lob logical reads 0, lob physical reads 0, lob read-ahead reads 0. SQL Server Execution Times: CPU time = 58157 ms, elapsed time = 61437 ms. If I instead introduce a temporary table then the query returns quickly and performs less logical reads: CREATE TABLE #MyTable(RGN VARCHAR(20) NOT NULL, CD VARCHAR(20) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY([RGN],[CD])); INSERT INTO #MyTable(RGN, CD) SELECT RGN, CD FROM TASK_REQUESTS WHERE TASK='UPDATE_MEM_BAL'; SELECT T.RGN, T.CD, T.FUND_CD, T.TRDT, SUM(T2.UNITS) AS TotalUnits FROM dbo.TRANS AS T JOIN dbo.TRANS AS T2 ON T2.RGN=T.RGN AND T2.CD=T.CD AND T2.FUND_CD=T.FUND_CD AND T2.TRDT<=T.TRDT JOIN #MyTable AS T3 ON T3.CD=T.CD AND T3.RGN=T.RGN GROUP BY T.RGN, T.CD, T.FUND_CD, T.TRDT (4447 row(s) affected) Table 'Worktable'. Scan count 5974, logical reads 382339, physical reads 0, read-ahead reads 0, lob logical reads 0, lob physical reads 0, lob read-ahead reads 0. Table 'TRANSACTIONS'. Scan count 4, logical reads 4547, physical reads 0, read-ahead reads 0, lob logical reads 0, lob physical reads 0, lob read-ahead reads 0. Table '#MyTable________________________________________________________________000000000013'. Scan count 1, logical reads 2, physical reads 0, read-ahead reads 0, lob logical reads 0, lob physical reads 0, lob read-ahead reads 0. SQL Server Execution Times: CPU time = 1420 ms, elapsed time = 1515 ms. The interesting thing for me is that the TASK_REQUEST table is a small table (3 rows at present) and statistics are up to date on the table. Any idea why such different execution plans and execution times would be occuring? And ideally how to change things so that I don't need to use the temp table to get decent performance? The only real difference in the execution plans is that the temp table version introduces an index spool (eager spool) operation.

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  • Hot to get rid of memory allocations/deallocations in swig wrappers?

    - by Dmitriy Matveev
    I want to use swig for generation of read-only wrappers for a complex object. The object which I want to wrap will always be existent while I will read it. And also I will only use my wrappers at the time that object is existent, thus I don't need any memory management from SWIG. For following swig interface: %module test %immutable; %inline %{ struct Foo { int a; }; struct Bar { int b; Foo f; }; %} I will have a wrappers which will have a lot of garbage in generated interfaces and do useless work which will reduce performance in my case. Generated java wrapper for Bar class will be like this: public class Bar { private long swigCPtr; protected boolean swigCMemOwn; protected Bar(long cPtr, boolean cMemoryOwn) { swigCMemOwn = cMemoryOwn; swigCPtr = cPtr; } protected static long getCPtr(Bar obj) { return (obj == null) ? 0 : obj.swigCPtr; } protected void finalize() { delete(); } public synchronized void delete() { if (swigCPtr != 0) { if (swigCMemOwn) { swigCMemOwn = false; testJNI.delete_Bar(swigCPtr); } swigCPtr = 0; } } public int getB() { return testJNI.Bar_b_get(swigCPtr, this); } public Foo getF() { return new Foo(testJNI.Bar_f_get(swigCPtr, this), true); } public Bar() { this(testJNI.new_Bar(), true); } } I don't need 'swigCMemOwn' field in my wrapper since it always will be false. All code related to this field will also be useless. There are also unnecessary logic in native code: SWIGEXPORT jlong JNICALL Java_some_testJNI_Bar_1f_1get(JNIEnv *jenv, jclass jcls, jlong jarg1, jobject jarg1_) { jlong jresult = 0 ; struct Bar *arg1 = (struct Bar *) 0 ; Foo result; (void)jenv; (void)jcls; (void)jarg1_; arg1 = *(struct Bar **)&jarg1; result = ((arg1)->f); { Foo * resultptr = (Foo *) malloc(sizeof(Foo)); memmove(resultptr, &result, sizeof(Foo)); *(Foo **)&jresult = resultptr; } return jresult; } I don't need these calls to malloc and memmove. I want to force swig to resolve both of these problems, but don't know how. Is it possible?

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  • How to reference a particular JSON in a function call.

    - by Jane Wilkie
    Hi guys! I have two javascript routines.. the first one declares some JSON and it contains a function that takes two arguments, the first argument being the json object that needs traversing and the second argument is the tab that the rendering is done in. The second routine merely passes the name of the JSON that needs traversing and tab to render in. The code is below.... <script language="JavaScript1.2" type="text/javascript"> var arr = [ {"id":"10", "class":"child-of-9", "useless":"donotneed"}, {"id":"11", "class":"child-of-10", "useless":"donotneed"}]; var arrtwo = [ {"id":"12", "class":"child-of-12", "useless":"donotneed"}, {"id":"13", "class":"child-of-13", "useless":"donotneed"}]; function render_help(json,tab){ var html=''; for(var i=0;i<json.length;i++){ var obj = json[i]; for(var key in obj){ var attrName = key; var attrValue = obj[key]; if (attrName == "id"){ html = html +'<B>'+attrValue+'</B>'+'<BR><BR>'; }else if (attrName == "class"){ html = html + attrValue + '<BR><BR>'; } } } document.getElementById(tab).innerHTML=(html); } </script> <script language="JavaScript1.2" type="text/javascript"> render_help(arr,"helptab"); </script> Various testing and strategically placed alert boxes indicate that the tab parameter is being passed and interpreted correctly. I know this because when I change .... document.getElementById(tab).innerHTML=(html); to document.getElementById(tab).innerHTML=("Howdy"); and it renders "Howdy" just fine. Putting an alert box (alert(json)) in to check the value of json yields.... [object.Object],[object.Object] The JSON object remains elusive. For the purposes of this scripting I need the JSON "arr" to be iterated over. I feel like the answer is fairly obvious so far no luck. Admittedly I am new with Javascript and I am apparently missing something. Does anyone have a clue as to what I'm overlooking here? Happy New Year to you all! Janie

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  • JPanel's child components paint/layout problem

    - by Tom Brito
    I'm having a problem that when my frame is shown (after a login dialog) the buttons are not on correct position, then in some miliseconds they go to the right position (the center of the panel with border layout). When I make a SSCCE, it works correct, but when I run my whole code I have this fast-miliseconds delay to the buttons to go to the correct place. Unfortunately, I can't post the whole code, but the method that shows the frame is: public void login(JComponent userView) { centerPanel.removeAll(); centerPanel.add(userView); centerPanel.revalidate(); centerPanel.repaint(); frame.setVisible(true); } What would cause this delay to the panel layout? (I'm running everything in the EDT) -- update In my machine, this SSCCE shows the layout problem in 2 of 10 times I run it: import java.awt.BorderLayout; import javax.swing.JButton; import javax.swing.JFrame; import javax.swing.JPanel; import javax.swing.SwingUtilities; public class TEST { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { System.out.println("Debug test..."); JPanel btnPnl = new JPanel(); btnPnl.add(new JButton("TEST")); JFrame f = new JFrame("TEST"); f.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); f.getContentPane().setLayout(new BorderLayout()); f.getContentPane().add(btnPnl); f.pack(); f.setSize(800, 600); f.setVisible(true); System.out.println("End debug test!"); } }); } } The button first appers in the up-left, and then it goes to the center. Please, note that I'm understand, not just correct. Is it a java bug? --update OK, so the SSCCE don't show the problem with you that tried till now. Maybe it's my computer performance problem. But this don't answer the question, I still think Java Swing is creating new threads for make the layout behind the scenes.

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  • C#, cannot understand this error?

    - by 5YrsLaterDBA
    I am using VS2008. I have a project, SystemSoftware project, connect with a database and we are using L2E. I have a RuntimeInfo class which contains some shared information there. It looks like this: public class RuntimeInfo { public const int PWD_ExpireDays = 30; private static RuntimeInfo thisObj = new RuntimeInfo(); public static string AndeDBConnStr = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["AndeDBEntities"].ConnectionString; private RuntimeInfo() { } /// <summary> /// /// </summary> /// <returns>Return this singleton object</returns> public static RuntimeInfo getRuntimeInfo() { return thisObj; } } Now I added a helper project, AndeDataViewer, to the solution which creates a simple UI to display data from the database for testing/verification purpose. I don't want to create another set of Entity Data Model in the helper project. I just added all related files as a link in the new helper project. In the AndeDataViewer project, I get the connection string from above RuntimeInfo class which is a class from my SystemSoftware project as a linked file. The code in AndeDataViewer is like this: public class DbAccess : IDisposable { private String connStr = String.Empty; public DbAccess() { connStr = RuntimeInfo.AndeDBConnStr; } } My SystemSoftware works fine that means the RuntimeInfo class has no problem there. But when I run my AndeDataViewer, the statement inside above constructor, connStr = RuntimeInfo.AndeDBConnStr; , throws an exception. The exception is copied here: System.TypeInitializationException was unhandled Message="The type initializer for 'MyCompany.SystemSoftware.SystemInfo.RuntimeInfo' threw an exception." Source="AndeDataViewer" TypeName="MyCompany.SystemSoftware.SystemInfo.RuntimeInfo" StackTrace: at AndeDataViewer.DbAccess..ctor() in C:\workspace\SystemSoftware\Other\AndeDataViewer\AndeDataViewer\DbAccess.cs:line 17 at AndeDataViewer.Window1.rbRawData_Checked(Object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) in C:\workspace\SystemSoftware\Other\AndeDataViewer\AndeDataViewer\Window1.xaml.cs:line 69 at System.Windows.RoutedEventHandlerInfo.InvokeHandler(Object target, RoutedEventArgs routedEventArgs) .... InnerException: System.NullReferenceException Message="Object reference not set to an instance of an object." Source="AndeDataViewer" StackTrace: at MyCompany.SystemSoftware.SystemInfo.RuntimeInfo..cctor() in C:\workspace\SystemSoftware\SystemSoftware\src\systeminfo\RuntimeInfo.cs:line 24 InnerException: I cannot understand this because it looks fine to me but why there is an exception? we cannot access static variable when a class is a linked class? A linked class should be the same as the local class I think. "Linked" here means when I add file I use "Add As Link".

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  • Browsers (IE and Firefox) freeze when copying large amount of text

    - by Matt
    I have a web application - a Java servlet - that delivers data to users in the form of a text printout in a browser (text marked up with HTML in order to display in the browser as we want it to). The text does display in different colors, though most of it is black. One typical mode of operation is this: 1. User submits a form to request data. 2. Servlet delivers HTML file to browser. 3. User does CTRL+A to select all the text. 4. User does CTRL+C to copy all the text. 5. User goes to a text editor and does CTRL+V to paste the text. In the testing where I'm having this problem, step #2 successfully loads all the data - we wait for that to complete. We can scroll down to the end of what the browser loaded and see the end of the data. However, the browser freezes on step #3 (Firefox) or on step #4 (IE). Because step #2 finishes, I think it is a browser/memory issue, and not an issue with the web application. If I run queries to deliver smaller amounts of data (but after several queries we get the same data we would have above in one query) and copy/paste this text, the file I save it into ends up being about 8 MB. If I save the browser's displayed HTML to a file on my computer via File-Save As from the browser menu, it works fine and the file is about 22 MB. We've tried this on 2 different computers at work (both running Windows XP, with at least 2 GB of RAM and many GB of free disk space), using Firefox and IE. We also tried it on a home computer from a home network outside of work (thinking it might be our IT security software causing the problem), running Windows 7 using IE, and still had the problem. When I've done this, I can see whatever browser I'm using utilizing the CPU at 50%. Firefox's memory usage grows to about 1 GB; IE's stays in the several hundred MBs. We once let this run for half an hour, and it did not complete. I'm most likely going to modify the web app to have an option of delivering a plain text file for download, and I imagine that will get the users what they need. But for the mean time, and because I'm curious - and I don't like my application freezing people's browsers, does anyone have any ideas about the browser freezing? I understand that sometimes you just reach your memory limit, but 22 MB sounds to me like an amount I should be able to copy to the clipboard.

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