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  • Unlimited SMS API/Gateway (Sending and Receiving)

    - by Naif
    I am creating a chat application which requires that users be able to send and receive sms messages through a web interface. It would be somewhat similar to the text messaging service available in yahoo mail or in aol instant messenger. The situation is this: Given the high quantity of messages that would be sent and received, paying on a per message basis is not economically feasible. How is it that sites such as yahoo, aim, and twitter can send and receive unlimited sms messages? Essentially, I am looking for a way to send and receive unlimited sms from my computer. Below is a list of some approaches I've come up with but have run into problems with as well. If just one of the approaches can be utilized effectively, then I am fine. As a note on the nature of my application: I will only be sending messages to users that explicitly sign up for the service and permit the receiving of messages. They can unsubscribe at any time. This is to prevent spam. I am aware of software such as Kannel which allows one to connect to a providers smsc gateway. However, this adds the risk of not being approved by the provider which would be unacceptable. Is there any way to significantly mitigate this risk? Utilizing a gateway provider eliminates this risk, but adds the issue of per message pricing. I am also aware of email to sms. However, I have done some testing with that and it appears that this method results in many messages being undelivered or delivered VERY late. If it weren't for that, this approach would have been ideal. Is there any way to negotiate with carriers to remove me from their filters (considering the nature of my service as stated before)? I could use a gsm modem, but even with an "unilimited" plan on a sim card, there are still limits (around 100,000 messages or so). Furthermore, from my understanding, gsm modems are capable of only sending out around a dozen messages per minute. I need to be able to send out as much as several hundred messages per second. During the first 2 months, around 10 messages per second would suffice. There are ways to send out ads with messages to cover the per message costs. However, this is a deal-breaker since it has a high chance of tarnishing the quality of service. Furthermore, I know it is possible to do it without such ads since yahoo, aim, and twitter do not send ads with their messages.

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  • Trying to integrate CakePHP and jQuery

    - by user198003
    Trying to integrate CakePHP and jQuery, using next example http://bakery.cakephp.org/articles/view/dynamic-select-boxes-with-ajax-jquery What I want is to when user change first option element, to automaticly fill second select option box with proper values. But, nothing happens, if you can help me why. So, there is a Invoice add form (add.ctp), with next code... <?php echo $form->create('Invoice');?> <?php echo $javascript->link('jquery.js'); $category = array('1' => 'First', '4' => 'Fourth', '7' => 'Seventh'); echo $form->input('client_id', array('options' => $category, 'empty' => 'Choose:')); echo $form->select('clientBank_id', array("Choose category first"), null, null, false); ?> <script> $("#InvoiceClientId").change(function () { $.post('/invoices/listTitleByCategory/' + $(this).val(), function(data) { $("#InvoiceClientBankId").empty().append(data); }, 'html'); }) </script> Also, there is controller (invoices_controller.php): <?php var $name = 'Invoices'; var $helpers = array('Html', 'Form', 'Time', 'Number', 'Javascript'); var $paginate = array('order' => array('Invoice.pinned DESC', 'Invoice.invoiceNumber')); var $components = array('RequestHandler'); function beforeRender(){ // prevent useless warnings for Ajax if($this->RequestHandler->isAjax()){ Configure::write('debug', 0); } } // etc... function listTitleByCategory($category = "") { $this->layout = 'ajax'; $this->beforeRender(); $this->autoRender = false; $data = $this->Invoice->Client->find('list'); echo "<option value=0>just for testing...</option>"; foreach($data as $key => $val) { echo "<option value=$key>$val</option>"; } } ?> Please, if you can help me solving this. Thank you in advance!

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  • Using events in threads between processes - C

    - by Jamie Keeling
    Hello all! I have an application consisting of two windows, one communicates to the other and sends it a struct constaining two integers (In this case two rolls of a dice). I will be using events for the following circumstances: Process a sends data to process b, process b displays data Process a closes, in turn closing process b Process b closes a, in turn closing process a I have noticed that if the second process is constantly waiting for the first process to send data then the program will be just sat waiting, which is where the idea of implementing threads on each process occurred and I have started to implement this already. The problem i'm having is that I don't exactly have a lot of experience with threads and events so I'm not sure of the best way to actually implement what I want to do. Following is a small snippet of what I have so far in the producer application; Create thread: case IDM_FILE_ROLLDICE: { hDiceRoll = CreateThread( NULL, // lpThreadAttributes (default) 0, // dwStackSize (default) ThreadFunc(hMainWindow), // lpStartAddress NULL, // lpParameter 0, // dwCreationFlags &hDiceID // lpThreadId (returned by function) ); } break; The data being sent to the other process: DWORD WINAPI ThreadFunc(LPVOID passedHandle) { HANDLE hMainHandle = *((HANDLE*)passedHandle); WCHAR buffer[256]; LPCTSTR pBuf; LPVOID lpMsgBuf; LPVOID lpDisplayBuf; struct diceData storage; HANDLE hMapFile; DWORD dw; //Roll dice and store results in variable storage = RollDice(); hMapFile = CreateFileMapping( (HANDLE)0xFFFFFFFF, // use paging file NULL, // default security PAGE_READWRITE, // read/write access 0, // maximum object size (high-order DWORD) BUF_SIZE, // maximum object size (low-order DWORD) szName); // name of mapping object if (hMapFile == NULL) { dw = GetLastError(); MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Could not create file mapping object",L"Error",MB_OK); return 1; } pBuf = (LPTSTR) MapViewOfFile(hMapFile, // handle to map object FILE_MAP_ALL_ACCESS, // read/write permission 0, 0, BUF_SIZE); if (pBuf == NULL) { MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Could not map view of file",L"Error",MB_OK); CloseHandle(hMapFile); return 1; } CopyMemory((PVOID)pBuf, &storage, (_tcslen(szMsg) * sizeof(TCHAR))); //_getch(); MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Completed!",L"Success",MB_OK); UnmapViewOfFile(pBuf); return 0; } I'm trying to find out how I would integrate an event with the threaded code to signify to the other process that something has happened, I've seen an MSDN article on using events but it's just confused me if anything, I'm coming up on empty whilst searching on the internet too. Thanks for any help Edit: I can only use the Create/Set/Open methods for events, sorry for not mentioning it earlier.

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  • Mocking methods that call other methods Still hit database.Can I avoid it?

    - by devnet247
    Hi, It has been decided to write some unit tests using moq etc..It's lots of legacy code c# (this is beyond my control so cannot answer the whys of this) Now how do you cope with a scenario when you dont want to hit the database but you indirectly still hit the database? This is something I put together it's not the real code but gives you an idea. How would you deal with this sort of scenario? Basically calling a method on a mocked interface still makes a dal call as inside that method there are other methods not part of that interface?Hope it's clear [TestFixture] public class Can_Test_this_legacy_code { [Test] public void Should_be_able_to_mock_login() { var mock = new Mock<ILoginDal>(); User user; var userName = "Jo"; var password = "password"; mock.Setup(x => x.login(It.IsAny<string>(), It.IsAny<string>(),out user)); var bizLogin = new BizLogin(mock.Object); bizLogin.Login(userName, password, out user); } } public class BizLogin { private readonly ILoginDal _login; public BizLogin(ILoginDal login) { _login = login; } public void Login(string userName, string password, out User user) { //Even if I dont want to this will call the DAL!!!!! var bizPermission = new BizPermission(); var permissionList = bizPermission.GetPermissions(userName); //Method I am actually testing _login.login(userName,password,out user); } } public class BizPermission { public List<Permission>GetPermissions(string userName) { var dal=new PermissionDal(); var permissionlist= dal.GetPermissions(userName); return permissionlist; } } public class PermissionDal { public List<Permission> GetPermissions(string userName) { //I SHOULD NOT BE GETTING HERE!!!!!! return new List<Permission>(); } } public interface ILoginDal { void login(string userName, string password,out User user); } public interface IOtherStuffDal { List<Permission> GetPermissions(); } public class Permission { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } Any suggestions? Am I missing the obvious? Is this Untestable code? Very very grateful for any suggestions.

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  • Hide jQuery Accordion while loading

    - by zac
    I am testing a site build with a slow connection and I noticed the jQuery Accordion stays expanded for a long time, until the rest of the site is loaded, and then finally collapses. Not very pretty. I was wondering how I could keep it collapsed through the loading process and only expand when clicked. I am working with the standalone 1.6 version of the accordion plugin. The basic structure : <div class="sidebar"> <ul id="navigation" class="ui-accordion-container"> <li><a class="head" href="#">1</a> <ul class="sub"> <li><a href="#">1a</a></li> <li><a href="#">2a</a></li> </ul> </li> </ul> </div> and the script jQuery().ready(function(){ jQuery('#navigation').accordion({ active: 'false', header: '.head', navigation: true, animated: 'easeslide', collapsible: true }); }); I tried to hide the elements in the CSS to keep them from appearing while loading but all that achieved is in having them always hidden. Maybe the problem is in the CSS I have a background image in each of the sub menus: #navigation{ margin:0px; margin-left: 10px; padding:0px; text-indent:0px; font-size: 1.1em; width:200px; text-transform: uppercase; padding-bottom: 30px; } #navigation ul{ border-width:0px; margin:0px; padding:0px; text-indent:0px; } #navigation li{ list-style:none outside none; } #navigation li ul{ height:185px; overflow:auto; } #navigation li ul.sub{ background:url('../images/sub.jpg') no-repeat; dispaly: block; } #navigation li li a{ color:#000000; display:block; text-indent:20px; text-decoration: none; padding: 6px 0; } #navigation li li a:hover{ background-color:#FFFF99; color:#FF0000; } Thanks in advance for any advice on how to have this thing run a little smoother and having the accordion always collapsed. -edit - I forgot to mention that I am also hoping for a solution that will allow the nav to still be accessible for those without javscript.

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  • How to handle environment-specific application configuration organization-wide?

    - by Stuart Lange
    Problem Your organization has many separate applications, some of which interact with each other (to form "systems"). You need to deploy these applications to separate environments to facilitate staged testing (for example, DEV, QA, UAT, PROD). A given application needs to be configured slightly differently in each environment (each environment has a separate database, for example). You want this re-configuration to be handled by some sort of automated mechanism so that your release managers don't have to manually configure each application every time it is deployed to a different environment. Desired Features I would like to design an organization-wide configuration solution with the following properties (ideally): Supports "one click" deployments (only the environment needs to be specified, and no manual re-configuration during/after deployment should be necessary). There should be a single "system of record" where a shared environment-dependent property is specified (such as a database connection string that is shared by many applications). Supports re-configuration of deployed applications (in the event that an environment-specific property needs to change), ideally without requiring a re-deployment of the application. Allows an application to be run on the same machine, but in different environments (run a PROD instance and a DEV instance simultaneously). Possible Solutions I see two basic directions in which a solution could go: Make all applications "environment aware". You would pass the environment name (DEV, QA, etc) at the command line to the app, and then the app is "smart" enough to figure out the environment-specific configuration values at run-time. The app could fetch the values from flat files deployed along with the app, or from a central configuration service. Applications are not "smart" as they are in #1, and simply fetch configuration by property name from config files deployed with the app. The values of these properties are injected into the config files at deploy-time by the install program/script. That install script takes the environment name and fetches all relevant configuration values from a central configuration service. Question How would/have you achieved a configuration solution that solves these problems and supports these desired features? Am I on target with the two possible solutions? Do you have a preference between those solutions? Also, please feel free to tell me that I'm thinking about the problem all wrong. Any feedback would be greatly appreciated.

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  • .NET AES returns wrong Test Vectors

    - by ralu
    I need to implement some crypto protocol on C# and want to say that this is my first project in C#. After spending some time to get used on C# I found out that I am unable to get compliant AES vectors. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Security.Cryptography; using System.IO; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { public static void Main() { try { //test vectors from "ecb_vk.txt" byte[] key = { 0x80, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00 }; byte[] data = { 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00 }; byte[] encTest = { 0x0e, 0xdd, 0x33, 0xd3, 0xc6, 0x21, 0xe5, 0x46, 0x45, 0x5b, 0xd8, 0xba, 0x14, 0x18, 0xbe, 0xc8 }; AesManaged aesAlg = new AesManaged(); aesAlg.BlockSize = 128; aesAlg.Key = key; aesAlg.Mode = CipherMode.ECB; ICryptoTransform encryptor = aesAlg.CreateEncryptor(); MemoryStream msEncrypt = new MemoryStream(); CryptoStream csEncrypt = new CryptoStream(msEncrypt, encryptor, CryptoStreamMode.Write); StreamWriter swEncrypt = new StreamWriter(csEncrypt); swEncrypt.Write(data); swEncrypt.Close(); csEncrypt.Close(); msEncrypt.Close(); aesAlg.Clear(); byte[] encr; encr = msEncrypt.ToArray(); string datastr = BitConverter.ToString(data); string encrstr = BitConverter.ToString(encr); string encTestStr = BitConverter.ToString(encTest); Console.WriteLine("data: {0}", datastr); Console.WriteLine("encr: {0}", encrstr); Console.WriteLine("should: {0}", encTestStr); Console.ReadKey(); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine("Error: {0}", e.Message); } } } } Output is wrong: data: 00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00 encr: A0-3C-C2-22-A4-32-F7-C9-BA-36-AE-73-66-BD-BB-A3 should: 0E-DD-33-D3-C6-21-E5-46-45-5B-D8-BA-14-18-BE-C8 I am sure that there is a correct AES implementation in .NET, so I need some advice from a .NET wizard to help with this.

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  • Few doubts regarding Bitmaps , Images & `using` blocks

    - by imageWorker
    I caught up in this problem. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2559826/garbage-collector-not-doing-its-job-memory-consumption-1-5gb-outofmemory-exc I feel that there is something wrong in my understanding. Please clarify these things. Destructor & IDisposable.Dispose are two methods for freeing resources that are not not under the control of .NET. Which means, everything except memory. right? using blocks are just better way of calling IDisposable.Dispose() method of an object. This is the main code I'm referring to. class someclass { static someMethod(Bitmap img) { Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(img); //statement1 // some code here and return } } here is class I'm using for testing: class someotherClass { public static voide Main() { foreach (string imagePath in imagePathsArray) { using (Bitmap img1 = new Bitmap(imagePath)) { someclass.someMethod(img1); // does some more processing on `img1` } } } } Is there any memory leak with statement1? Question1: If each image size is say 10MB. Then does this bmp object occupy atleast 10MB? What I mean is, will it make completely new copy of entire image? or just refer to it? Question2:should I or should I not put the statement1 in using block? My Argument: We should not. Because using is not for freeing memory but for freeing the resources (file handle in this case). If I use it in using block. It closes file handle here encapsulated by this bmp object. It means we are also closing filehandle for the caller's img1 object. Which is not correct? As of the memory leak. No there is no scope of memory leak here. Because reference bmp is destroyed when this method is returned. Which leaves memory it refered without any pointer. So, its garbage collected. Am I right? Edit: class someclass { static Bitmap someMethod(Bitmap img) { Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(img); //can I use `using` block on this enclosing `return bmp`; ??? // do some processing on bmp here return bmp; } }

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  • Simple RSA encryption (Java)

    - by jake blue
    This is simply for fun. This will not be used for any actual encryption. I'm only first year comp sci student and love cryptography. This took a long time to get working. At approximately N = 18, it begins breaking down. It won't encrypt messages properly after that point. I'm not sure why. Any insights? I'd also appreciate any links you could provide me to tutorials or interesting reading about Cryptography. import java.math.BigInteger; import java.security.SecureRandom; /** * Cryptography. * * Generates public and private keys used in encryption and * decryption * */ public class RSA { private final static BigInteger one = new BigInteger("1"); private final static SecureRandom random = new SecureRandom(); // prime numbers private BigInteger p; private BigInteger q; // modulus private BigInteger n; // totient private BigInteger t; // public key private BigInteger e; // private key private BigInteger d; private String cipherText; /** * Constructor for objects of class RSA */ public RSA(int N) { p = BigInteger.probablePrime(N/2, random); q = BigInteger.probablePrime(N/2, random); // initialising modulus n = p.multiply(q); // initialising t by euclid's totient function (p-1)(q-1) t = (p.subtract(one)).multiply(q.subtract(one)); // initialising public key ~ 65537 is common public key e = new BigInteger("65537"); } public int generatePrivateKey() { d = e.modInverse(t); return d.intValue(); } public String encrypt(String plainText) { String encrypted = ""; int j = 0; for(int i = 0; i < plainText.length(); i++){ char m = plainText.charAt(i); BigInteger bi1 = BigInteger.valueOf(m); BigInteger bi2 = bi1.modPow(e, n); j = bi2.intValue(); m = (char) j; encrypted += m; } cipherText = encrypted; return encrypted; } public String decrypt() { String decrypted = ""; int j = 0; for(int i = 0; i < cipherText.length(); i++){ char c = cipherText.charAt(i); BigInteger bi1 = BigInteger.valueOf(c); BigInteger bi2 = bi1.modPow(d, n); j = bi2.intValue(); c = (char) j; decrypted += c; } return decrypted; } }

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  • Having trouble wrapping functions in the linux kernel

    - by Corey Henderson
    I've written a LKM that implements Trusted Path Execution (TPE) into your kernel: https://github.com/cormander/tpe-lkm I run into an occasional kernel OOPS (describe at the end of this question) when I define WRAP_SYSCALLS to 1, and am at my wit's end trying to track it down. A little background: Since the LSM framework doesn't export its symbols, I had to get creative with how I insert the TPE checking into the running kernel. I wrote a find_symbol_address() function that gives me the address of any function I need, and it works very well. I can call functions like this: int (*my_printk)(const char *fmt, ...); my_printk = find_symbol_address("printk"); (*my_printk)("Hello, world!\n"); And it works fine. I use this method to locate the security_file_mmap, security_file_mprotect, and security_bprm_check functions. I then overwrite those functions with an asm jump to my function to do the TPE check. The problem is, the currently loaded LSM will no longer execute the code for it's hook to that function, because it's been totally hijacked. Here is an example of what I do: int tpe_security_bprm_check(struct linux_binprm *bprm) { int ret = 0; if (bprm->file) { ret = tpe_allow_file(bprm->file); if (IS_ERR(ret)) goto out; } #if WRAP_SYSCALLS stop_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); ret = cs_security_bprm_check.ptr(bprm); start_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); #endif out: return ret; } Notice the section between the #if WRAP_SYSCALLS section (it's defined as 0 by default). If set to 1, the LSM's hook is called because I write the original code back over the asm jump and call that function, but I run into an occasional kernel OOPS with an "invalid opcode": invalid opcode: 0000 [#1] SMP RIP: 0010:[<ffffffff8117b006>] [<ffffffff8117b006>] security_bprm_check+0x6/0x310 I don't know what the issue is. I've tried several different types of locking methods (see the inside of start/stop_my_code for details) to no avail. To trigger the kernel OOPS, write a simple bash while loop that endlessly starts a backgrounded "ls" command. After a minute or so, it'll happen. I'm testing this on a RHEL6 kernel, also works on Ubuntu 10.04 LTS (2.6.32 x86_64). While this method has been the most successful so far, I have tried another method of simply copying the kernel function to a pointer I created with kmalloc but when I try to execute it, I get: kernel tried to execute NX-protected page - exploit attempt? (uid: 0). If anyone can tell me how to kmalloc space and have it marked as executable, that would also help me solve the above problem. Any help is appreciated!

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  • How should I handle the case in which a username is already in use?

    - by idealmachine
    I'm a JavaScript programmer and new to PHP and MySQL (want to get into server-side coding). Because I'm trying to learn PHP by building a simple online game (more specifically, correspondence chess), I'm starting by implementing a simple user accounts system. Of course, user registration comes first. What are the best practices for: How I should handle the (likely) possibility that when a user tries to register, the username he has chosen is already in use, particularly when it comes to function return values?($result === true is rather ugly, and I'm not sure whether checking the MySQL error code is the best way to do it either) How to cleanly handle varying page titles?($gPageTitle = '...'; require_once 'bgsheader.php'; is also rather ugly) Anything else I'm doing wrong? In some ways, PHP is rather different from JavaScript... Here is a (rather large) excerpt of the code I have written so far. Note that this is a work in progress and is missing security checks that I will add as my next step. function addUser( $username, $password ) { global $gDB, $gPasswordSalt; $stmt = $gDB->prepare( 'INSERT INTO user(user_name, user_password, user_registration) VALUES(?, ?, NOW())' ); $stmt || trigger_error( 'Failed to prepare statement: ' . htmlspecialchars( $gDB->error ) ); $hashedPassword = hash_hmac( 'sha256', $password, $gPasswordSalt, true ); $stmt->bind_param( 'ss', $username, $hashedPassword ); if( $stmt->execute() ) { return true; } elseif( $stmt->errno == 1062) { return 'exists'; } else { trigger_error( 'Failed to execute statement: ' . htmlspecialchars( $stmt->error ) ); } } $username = $_REQUEST['username']; $password = $_REQUEST['password']; $result = addUser( $username, $password ); if( $result === true ) { $gPageTitle = 'Registration successful'; require_once 'bgsheader.php'; echo '<p>You have successfully registered as ' . htmlspecialchars( $username ) . ' on this site.</p>'; } elseif( $result == 'exists' ) { $gPageTitle = 'Username already taken'; require_once 'bgsheader.php'; echo '<p>Someone is already using the username you have chosen. Please try using another one instead.'; } else { trigger_error('This should never happen'); } require_once 'bgsfooter.php';

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  • session management: problem displaying username in the header

    - by aeonsleo
    hi, I am working on a simple login and logout module for my website without any security. I am using wamp on a windows xp machine. I am creating session when a user submits the login informaton it redirects to a process.php file which creates the session variables and starts session. Now if the login is successful user is redirected to the welcome page which includes a header file(which displays the header involving signin logout help options) The problem is the header is not changing the signin link to logout as the user logs successfully. The below code is from process.php which initiates a login. $username = $_POST['username']; $password = $_POST['password']; //echo "{$username}:{$password}"; $connection = mysql_connect("localhost","root",""); if(!$connection) { die("Database Connection Failed".mysql_error()); } $db_select = mysql_select_db("tester",$connection); if(!$db_select) { die("Database Selection Failed".mysql_error()); } $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM user",$connection); if(!$result) { die("Database Selection Failed".mysql_error()); } $q = "SELECT * FROM user " ."WHERE Name='".$username."' AND Password='".$password. "' "; // Run query $r = mysql_query($q); if ( $obj = @mysql_fetch_object($r) ) { session_start(); // Login good, create session variables $_SESSION["valid_id"] = session_id(); $_SESSION["valid_user"] = $_POST["username"]; $_SESSION["valid_time"] = time(); Header('Location: welcome.php'); The following code is from header.php which is included in welcome.php </div> <div id = "userdetail"> <?php if(isset($_SESSION["valid_user"])) { echo($_SESSION["valid_user"]." " ); echo("<a href=logout.php>Logout</a>"); } else { echo("<a href = login.php>Sign In</a>"); } ?> | Help | Search <input type = "text" name = "searchbox" value = "" /> </div> </div>

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  • Backbone.js (model instanceof Model) via Chrome Extension

    - by Leoncelot
    Hey guys, This is my first time ever posting on this site and the problem I'm about to pose is difficult to articulate due to the set of variables required to arrive at it. Let me just quickly explain the framework I'm working with. I'm building a Chrome Extension using jQuery, jQuery-ui, and Backbone The entire JS suite for the extension is written in CoffeeScript and I'm utilizing Rails and the asset pipeline to manage it all. This means that when I want to deploy my extension code I run rake assets:precompile and copy the resulting compressed JS to my extensions Directory. The nice thing about this approach is that I can actually run the extension js from inside my Rails app by including the library. This is basically the same as my extensions background.js file which injects the js as a content script. Anyway, the problem I've recently encountered was when I tried testing my extension on my buddy's site, whiskeynotes.com. What I was noticing is that my backbone models were being mangled upon adding them to their respective collections. So something like this.collection.add(new SomeModel) created some nonsense version of my model. This code eventually runs into Backbone's prepareModel code _prepareModel: function(model, options) { options || (options = {}); if (!(model instanceof Model)) { var attrs = model; options.collection = this; model = new this.model(attrs, options); if (!model._validate(model.attributes, options)) model = false; } else if (!model.collection) { model.collection = this; } return model; }, Now, in most of the sites on which I've tested the extension, the result is normal, however on my buddy's site the !(model instance Model) evaluates to true even though it is actually an instance of the correct class. The consequence is a super messed up version of the model where the model's attributes is a reference to the models collection (strange right?). Needless to say, all kinds of crazy things were happening afterward. Why this is occurring is beyond me. However changing this line (!(model instanceof Model)) to (!(model instanceof Backbone.Model)) seems to fix the problem. I thought maybe it had something to do with the Flot library (jQuery graph library) creating their own version of 'Model' but looking through the source yielded no instances of it. I'm just curious as to why this would happen. And does it make sense to add this little change to the Backbone source? Update: I just realized that the "fix" doesn't actually work. I can also add that my backbone Models are namespaced in a wrapping object so that declaration looks something like class SomeNamespace.SomeModel extends Backbone.Model

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  • WebServices does not interact with App

    - by daemonfire300
    I got a Silverlight App with-in a Web Project Web Silverlight The web contains a service: [WebService(Namespace = "svChat")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] // To allow this Web Service to be called from script, using ASP.NET AJAX, uncomment the following line. //[System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService] public class GetIPService : System.Web.Services.WebService { public GetIPService () { //Uncomment the following line if using designed components //InitializeComponent(); } [WebMethod] public string GetIp() { return HttpContext.Current.Request.ServerVariables["HTTP_X_FORWARDED_FOR"]; } } And I got a class in my Silverlight App using the Service: public class Client { private string ip; private string created; #region Properties public string Ip { get { return ip; } set { ip = value; } } public string Created { get { return created; } set { created = value; } } #endregion public Client() { } public void SetIp() { ServiceReference1.GetIPServiceSoapClient scIpClient = new svChat.ServiceReference1.GetIPServiceSoapClient(); scIpClient.GetIpCompleted += new EventHandler<svChat.ServiceReference1.GetIpCompletedEventArgs>(IpService_Completed); scIpClient.GetIpAsync(); } private void IpService_Completed(object sender, ServiceReference1.GetIpCompletedEventArgs e) { this.ip = e.Result; } } After Client is created, SetIp() is called, and Client.Ip is added to a text box. Nothing happens. Ip = null. Service itselfs works, tested it. Getting Ip by the above code works. Gettings Ip via service through Silverlight App does not work. <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="GetIPServiceSoap" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:2090/svChat.Web/GetIPService.asmx" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="GetIPServiceSoap" contract="ServiceReference1.GetIPServiceSoap" name="GetIPServiceSoap" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> Any ideas? regards,

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  • Mysql select - improve performances

    - by realshadow
    Hey, I am working on an e-shop which sells products only via loans. I display 10 products per page in any category, each product has 3 different price tags - 3 different loan types. Everything went pretty well during testing time, query execution time was perfect, but today when transfered the changes to the production server, the site "collapsed" in about 2 minutes. The query that is used to select loan types sometimes hangs for ~10 seconds and it happens frequently and thus it cant keep up and its hella slow. The table that is used to store the data has approximately 2 milion records and each select looks like this: SELECT * FROM products_loans WHERE KOD IN("X17/Q30-10", "X17/12", "X17/5-24") AND 369.27 BETWEEN CENA_OD AND CENA_DO; 3 loan types and the price that needs to be in range between CENA_OD and CENA_DO, thus 3 rows are returned. But since I need to display 10 products per page, I need to run it trough a modified select using OR, since I didnt find any other solution to this. I have asked about it here, but got no answer. As mentioned in the referencing post, this has to be done separately since there is no column that could be used in a join (except of course price and code, but that ended very, very badly). Here is the show create table, kod and CENA_OD/CENA_DO very indexed via INDEX. CREATE TABLE `products_loans` ( `KOEF_ID` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `KOD` varchar(30) NOT NULL, `AKONTACIA` int(11) NOT NULL, `POCET_SPLATOK` int(11) NOT NULL, `koeficient` decimal(10,2) NOT NULL default '0.00', `CENA_OD` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `CENA_DO` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `PREDAJNA_CENA` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `AKONTACIA_SUMA` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `TYP_VYHODY` varchar(4) default NULL, `stage` smallint(6) NOT NULL default '1', PRIMARY KEY (`KOEF_ID`), KEY `CENA_OD` (`CENA_OD`), KEY `CENA_DO` (`CENA_DO`), KEY `KOD` (`KOD`), KEY `stage` (`stage`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 And also selecting all loan types and later filtering them trough php doesnt work good, since each type has over 50k records and the select takes too much time as well... Any ides about improving the speed are appreciated. Edit: Here is the explain +----+-------------+----------------+-------+---------------------+------+---------+------+--------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+----------------+-------+---------------------+------+---------+------+--------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | products_loans | range | CENA_OD,CENA_DO,KOD | KOD | 92 | NULL | 190158 | Using where | +----+-------------+----------------+-------+---------------------+------+---------+------+--------+-------------+ I have tried the combined index and it improved the performance on the test server from 0.44 sec to 0.06 sec, I cant access the production server from home though, so I will have to try it tomorrow.

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  • Using ImageMagick to create an image from a PDF...efficiently

    - by bigsweater
    I'm using ImageMagick to create a tiny JPG thumbnail image of an already-uploaded PDF. The code works fine. It's a WordPress widget, though this isn't necessarily WordPress specific. I'm unfamiliar with ImageMagick, so I was hoping somebody could tell me if this looks terrible or isn't following some best practices of some sort, or if I'm risking crashing the server. My questions, specifically, are: Is that image cached, or does the server have to re-generate the image every time somebody views the page? If it isn't cached, what's the best way to make sure the server doesn't have to regenerate the thumbnail? I tried to create a separate folder (/thumbs) for ImageMagick to put all the images in, instead of cluttering up the WP upload folders with images of PDFs. It kept throwing a permission error, despite 777 permissions on the folder in my testing environment. Why? Do the source/destination directories have to be the same? Am I doing anything incorrectly/inefficiently here that needs to be improved? The whole widget is on Pastebin: http://pastebin.com/WnSTEDm7 Relevant code: <?php if ( $url ) { $pdf = $url; $info = pathinfo($pdf); $filename = basename($pdf,'.'.$info['extension']); $uploads = wp_upload_dir(); $file_path = str_replace( $uploads['baseurl'], $uploads['basedir'], $url ); $dest_path = str_replace( '.pdf', '.jpg', $file_path ); $dest_url = str_replace( '.pdf', '.jpg', $pdf ); exec("convert \"{$file_path}[0]\" -colorspace RGB -geometry 60 $dest_path"); ?> <div class="entry"> <div class="widgetImg"> <p><a href="<?php echo $url; ?>" title="<?php echo $filename; ?>"><?php echo "<img src='".$dest_url."' alt='".$filename."' class='blueBorder' />"; ?></a></p> </div> <div class="widgetText"> <?php echo wpautop( $desc ); ?> <p><a class="downloadLink" href="<?php echo $url; ?>" title="<?php echo $filename; ?>">Download</a></p> </div> </div> <?php } ?> As you can see, the widget grabs whatever PDF is attached to the current page being viewed, creates an image of the first page of the PDF, stores it, then links to it in HTML. Thanks for any and all help!

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  • jQuery UI dialog + WebKit + HTML response with script

    - by Anthony Koval'
    Once again I am faced with a great problem! :) So, here is the stuff: on the client side, I have a link. By clicking on it, jQuery makes a request to the server, gets response as HTML content, then popups UI dialog with that content. Here is the code of the request-function: function preview(){ $.ajax({ url: "/api/builder/", type: "post", //dataType: "html", data: {"script_tpl": $("#widget_code").text(), "widgets": $.toJSON(mwidgets), "widx": "0"}, success: function(data){ //console.log(data) $("#previewArea").dialog({ bgiframe: true, autoOpen: false, height: 600, width: 600, modal: true, buttons: { "Cancel": function() { $(this).dialog('destroy'); } } }); //console.log(data.toString()); $('#previewArea').attr("innerHTML", data.toString()); $("#previewArea").dialog("open"); }, error: function(){ console.log("shit happens"); } }) } The response (data) is: <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <script type="text/javascript">var smakly_widget_sid = 0 ,widgets = [{"cols": "2","rows": "2","div_id": "smakly_widget","wid": "0","smakly_style": "small_image",}, ] </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/media/js/smak/smakme.js"></script> </head> <body> preview <div id="smakly_widget" style="width:560px;height:550px"> </div> </body> </html> As you see, there is a script to load: smakme.js, somehow it doesn't execute in WebKit-based browsers (I tried in Safari and Chrome), but in Firefox, Internet Explorer and Opera it works as expected! Here is that script: String.prototype.format = function(){ var pattern = /\{\d+\}/g; var args = arguments; return this.replace(pattern, function(capture){ return args[capture.match(/\d+/)]; }); } var turl = "/widget" var widgetCtrl = new(function(){ this.render_widget = function (w, content){ $("#" + w.div_id).append(content); } this.build_widgets = function(){ for (var widx in widgets){ var w = widgets[widx], iurl = '{0}?sid={1}&wid={2}&w={3}&h={4}&referer=http://ya.ru&thrash={5}'.format( turl, smakly_widget_sid, w.wid, w.cols, w.rows, Math.floor(Math.random()*1000).toString()), content = $('<iframe src="{0}" width="100%" height="100%"></iframe>'.format(iurl)); this.render_widget(w, content); } } }) $(document).ready(function(){ widgetCtrl.build_widgets(); }) Is that some security issue, or anything else?

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  • Ideas on implementing threads and cross process communication. - C

    - by Jamie Keeling
    Hello all! I have an application consisting of two windows, one communicates to the other and sends it a struct constaining two integers (In this case two rolls of a dice). I will be using events for the following circumstances: Process a sends data to process b, process b displays data Process a closes, in turn closing process b Process b closes a, in turn closing process a I have noticed that if the second process is constantly waiting for the first process to send data then the program will be just sat waiting, which is where the idea of implementing threads on each process occured. I have already implemented a thread on the first process which currently creates the data to send to the second process and makes it available to the second process. The problem i'm having is that I don't exactly have a lot of experience with threads and events so I'm not sure of the best way to actually implement what I want to do. Following is a small snippet of what I have so far in the producer application; Rolling the dice and sending the data: case IDM_FILE_ROLLDICE: { hDiceRoll = CreateThread( NULL, // lpThreadAttributes (default) 0, // dwStackSize (default) ThreadFunc(hMainWindow), // lpStartAddress NULL, // lpParameter 0, // dwCreationFlags &hDiceID // lpThreadId (returned by function) ); } break; The data being sent to the other process: DWORD WINAPI ThreadFunc(LPVOID passedHandle) { HANDLE hMainHandle = *((HANDLE*)passedHandle); WCHAR buffer[256]; LPCTSTR pBuf; LPVOID lpMsgBuf; LPVOID lpDisplayBuf; struct diceData storage; HANDLE hMapFile; DWORD dw; //Roll dice and store results in variable storage = RollDice(); hMapFile = CreateFileMapping( (HANDLE)0xFFFFFFFF, // use paging file NULL, // default security PAGE_READWRITE, // read/write access 0, // maximum object size (high-order DWORD) BUF_SIZE, // maximum object size (low-order DWORD) szName); // name of mapping object if (hMapFile == NULL) { dw = GetLastError(); MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Could not create file mapping object",L"Error",MB_OK); return 1; } pBuf = (LPTSTR) MapViewOfFile(hMapFile, // handle to map object FILE_MAP_ALL_ACCESS, // read/write permission 0, 0, BUF_SIZE); if (pBuf == NULL) { MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Could not map view of file",L"Error",MB_OK); CloseHandle(hMapFile); return 1; } CopyMemory((PVOID)pBuf, &storage, (_tcslen(szMsg) * sizeof(TCHAR))); //_getch(); MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Completed!",L"Success",MB_OK); UnmapViewOfFile(pBuf); return 0; } I'd like to think I am at least on the right lines, although for some reason when the application finishes creating the thread it hits the return DefWindowProc(hMainWindow, message, wParam, lParam); it crashes saying there's no more source code for the current location. I know there are certain ways to implement things but as I've mentioned I'm not sure if i'm doing this the right way, has anybody else tried to do the same thing? Thanks!

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  • zlib gzgets extremely slow?

    - by monkeyking
    I'm doing stuff related to parsing huge globs of textfiles, and was testing what input method to use. There is not much of a difference using c++ std::ifstreams vs c FILE, According to the documentation of zlib, it supports uncompressed files, and will read the file without decompression. I'm seeing a difference from 12 seconds using non zlib to more than 4 minutes using zlib.h This I've tested doing multiple runs, so its not a disk cache issue. Am I using zlib in some wrong way? thanks #include <zlib.h> #include <cstdio> #include <cstdlib> #include <fstream> #define LENS 1000000 size_t fg(const char *fname){ fprintf(stderr,"\t-> using fgets\n"); FILE *fp =fopen(fname,"r"); size_t nLines =0; char *buffer = new char[LENS]; while(NULL!=fgets(buffer,LENS,fp)) nLines++; fprintf(stderr,"%lu\n",nLines); return nLines; } size_t is(const char *fname){ fprintf(stderr,"\t-> using ifstream\n"); std::ifstream is(fname,std::ios::in); size_t nLines =0; char *buffer = new char[LENS]; while(is. getline(buffer,LENS)) nLines++; fprintf(stderr,"%lu\n",nLines); return nLines; } size_t iz(const char *fname){ fprintf(stderr,"\t-> using zlib\n"); gzFile fp =gzopen(fname,"r"); size_t nLines =0; char *buffer = new char[LENS]; while(0!=gzgets(fp,buffer,LENS)) nLines++; fprintf(stderr,"%lu\n",nLines); return nLines; } int main(int argc,char**argv){ if(atoi(argv[2])==0) fg(argv[1]); if(atoi(argv[2])==1) is(argv[1]); if(atoi(argv[2])==2) iz(argv[1]); }

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  • JSON datetime to SQL Server database via WCF

    - by moikey
    I have noticed a problem over the past couple of days where my dates submitted to an sql server database are wrong. I have a webpage, where users can book facilities. This webpage takes a name, a date, a start time and an end time(BookingID is required for transactions but generated by database), which I format as a JSON string as follows: {"BookingEnd":"\/Date(2012-26-03 09:00:00.000)\/","BookingID":1,"BookingName":"client test 1","BookingStart":"\/Date(2012-26-03 10:00:00.000)\/","RoomID":4} This is then passed to a WCF service, which handles the database insert as follows: [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, UriTemplate = "createbooking")] void CreateBooking(Booking booking); [DataContract] public class Booking { [DataMember] public int BookingID { get; set; } [DataMember] public string BookingName { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime BookingStart { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime BookingEnd { get; set; } [DataMember] public int RoomID { get; set; } } Booking.svc public void CreateBooking(Booking booking) { BookingEntity bookingEntity = new BookingEntity() { BookingName = booking.BookingName, BookingStart = booking.BookingStart, BookingEnd = booking.BookingEnd, RoomID = booking.RoomID }; BookingsModel model = new BookingsModel(); model.CreateBooking(bookingEntity); } Booking Model: public void CreateBooking(BookingEntity booking) { using (var conn = new SqlConnection("Data Source=cpm;Initial Catalog=BookingDB;Integrated Security=True")) using (var cmd = conn.CreateCommand()) { conn.Open(); cmd.CommandText = @"IF NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM Bookings WHERE BookingStart = @BookingStart AND BookingEnd = @BookingEnd AND RoomID= @RoomID ) INSERT INTO Bookings ( BookingName, BookingStart, BookingEnd, RoomID ) VALUES ( @BookingName, @BookingStart, @BookingEnd, @RoomID )"; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingName", booking.BookingName); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingStart", booking.BookingStart); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingEnd", booking.BookingEnd); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@RoomID", booking.RoomID); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); conn.Close(); } } This updates the database but the time ends up "1970-01-01 00:00:02.013" each time I submit the date in the above json format. However, when I do a query in SQL server management studio with the above date format ("YYYY-MM-DD HH:MM:SS.mmm"), it inserts the correct values. Also, if I submit a millisecond datetime to the wcf, the correct date is being inserted. The problem seems to be with the format I am submitting. I am a little lost with this problem. I don't really see why it is doing this. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • FB Connect going in an infinite loop with google chrome

    - by Mitesh
    Hi, I am having the following php code which i am trying for testing FB Connect <?php define('FACEBOOK_APP_ID', 'YOUR_APP_ID'); define('FACEBOOK_SECRET', 'YOUR_APP_SECRET'); function get_facebook_cookie($app_id, $application_secret) { enter code here $args = array(); parse_str(trim($COOKIE['fbs' . $app_id], '\"'), $args); ksort($args); $payload = ''; foreach ($args as $key = $value) { if ($key != 'sig') { $payload .= $key . '=' . $value; } } if (md5($payload . $application_secret) != $args['sig']) { return null; } return $args; } $cookie = get_facebook_cookie(FACEBOOK_APP_ID, FACEBOOK_SECRET); ? <!DOCTYPE html <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:fb="http://www.facebook.com/2008/fbml" <body <?php if ($cookie) { ? Your user ID is <?= $cookie['uid'] ? <br / Your Acess Token is <br / <?php $user = json_decode(file_get_contents( 'https://graph.facebook.com/me?access_token=' . $cookie['access_token'])); if($user) { echo "<br /Display Name = " . $user-name; echo "<br /First Name = " . $user-first_name; echo "<br /Last Name = " . $user-last_name; echo "<br /Birthday = " . $user-birthday; echo "<br /Home Town = " . $user-hometown-name; echo "<br /Location = " . $user-location-name; echo "<br /Email = " . $user-email . "<br /"; } ? <?php } else { ? <fb:login-button perms="email,user_birthday,publish_stream"</fb:login-button <?php } ? <div id="fb-root">&lt;/div> <script src="http://connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js"></script> <script> FB.init({appId: '<?= FACEBOOK_APP_ID ?>', status: true, cookie: true, xfbml: true}); FB.Event.subscribe('auth.login', function(response) { window.location.reload(); }); </script> </body </html The problem faced by me is it works fine with IE and Firefox, however when done the same with google chrome I am running into an infinite loop when I click on reload/refresh button of chrome after logging in. Any hints as to why is it happening with chrome? Also how can it be avoided. Thanks, Mitesh

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  • SQL Invalid Object Name 'AddressType'

    - by salvationishere
    I am getting the above error in my VS 2008 C# method when I try to invoke the SQL getColumnNames stored procedure from VS. This SP accepts one input parameter, the table name, and works successfully from SSMS. Currently I am selecting the AdventureWorks AddressType table for it to pull the column names from this table. I can see teh AdventureWorks table available in VS from my Server Explorer / Data Connection. And I see both the AddressType table and getColumnNames SP showing in Server Explorer. But I am still getting this error listed above. Here is the C# code snippet I use to execute this: public static DataTable DisplayTableColumns(string tt) { SqlDataReader dr = null; string TableName = tt; string connString = "Data Source=.;AttachDbFilename=\"C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL10.MSSQLSERVER\MSSQL\DATA\AdventureWorks_Data.mdf\";Initial Catalog=AdventureWorks;Integrated Security=True;Connect Timeout=30;User Instance=False"; string errorMsg; SqlConnection conn2 = new SqlConnection(connString); SqlCommand cmd = conn2.CreateCommand(); try { cmd.CommandText = "dbo.getColumnNames"; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.Connection = conn2; SqlParameter parm = new SqlParameter("@TableName", SqlDbType.VarChar); parm.Value = TableName; parm.Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; cmd.Parameters.Add(parm); conn2.Open(); dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); } catch (Exception ex) { errorMsg = ex.Message; } And when I examine the errorMsg it says the following: " at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Run(RunBehavior runBehavior, SqlCommand cmdHandler, SqlDataReader dataStream, BulkCopySimpleResultSet bulkCopyHandler, TdsParserStateObject stateObj)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.ConsumeMetaData()\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.get_MetaData()\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.FinishExecuteReader(SqlDataReader ds, RunBehavior runBehavior, String resetOptionsString)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReaderTds(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, Boolean async)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method, DbAsyncResult result)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior behavior, String method)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteReader()\r\n at ADONET_namespace.ADONET_methods.DisplayTableColumns(String tt) in C:\Documents and Settings\Admin\My Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\AddFileToSQL\AddFileToSQL\ADONET methods.cs:line 35" Where line 35 is dr = cmd.ExecuteReader();

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  • error in encryption program

    - by Raja
    #include<iostream> #include<math.h> #include<string> using namespace std; int gcd(int n,int m) { if(m<=n && n%m ==0) return m; if(n<m) return gcd(m,n); else return gcd(m,n%m); } int REncryptText(char m) { int p = 11, q = 3; int e = 3; int n = p * q; int phi = (p - 1) * (q - 1); int check1 = gcd(e, p - 1); int check2 = gcd(e, q - 1); int check3 = gcd(e, phi); // // Compute d such that ed = 1 (mod phi) //i.e. compute d = e-1 mod phi = 3-1 mod 20 //i.e. find a value for d such that phi divides (ed-1) //i.e. find d such that 20 divides 3d-1. //Simple testing (d = 1, 2, ...) gives d = 7 // double d = Math.Pow(e, -1) % phi; int d = 7; // public key = (n,e) // (33,3) //private key = (n,d) //(33 ,7) double g = pow(m,e); int ciphertext = g %n; // Now say we want to encrypt the message m = 7, c = me mod n = 73 mod 33 = 343 mod 33 = 13. Hence the ciphertext c = 13. //double decrypt = Math.Pow(ciphertext, d) % n; return ciphertext; } int main() { char plaintext[80],str[80]; cout<<" enter the text you want to encrpt"; cin.get(plaintext,79); int l =strlen(plaintext); for ( int i =0 ; i<l ; i++) { char s = plaintext[i]; str[i]=REncryptText(s); } for ( int i =0 ; i<l ; i++) { cout<<"the encryption of string"<<endl; cout<<str[i]; } return 0; }

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  • Combining FileStream and MemoryStream to avoid disk accesses/paging while receiving gigabytes of data?

    - by w128
    I'm receiving a file as a stream of byte[] data packets (total size isn't known in advance) that I need to store somewhere before processing it immediately after it's been received (I can't do the processing on the fly). Total received file size can vary from as small as 10 KB to over 4 GB. One option for storing the received data is to use a MemoryStream, i.e. a sequence of MemoryStream.Write(bufferReceived, 0, count) calls to store the received packets. This is very simple, but obviously will result in out of memory exception for large files. An alternative option is to use a FileStream, i.e. FileStream.Write(bufferReceived, 0, count). This way, no out of memory exceptions will occur, but what I'm unsure about is bad performance due to disk writes (which I don't want to occur as long as plenty of memory is still available) - I'd like to avoid disk access as much as possible, but I don't know of a way to control this. I did some testing and most of the time, there seems to be little performance difference between say 10 000 consecutive calls of MemoryStream.Write() vs FileStream.Write(), but a lot seems to depend on buffer size and the total amount of data in question (i.e the number of writes). Obviously, MemoryStream size reallocation is also a factor. Does it make sense to use a combination of MemoryStream and FileStream, i.e. write to memory stream by default, but once the total amount of data received is over e.g. 500 MB, write it to FileStream; then, read in chunks from both streams for processing the received data (first process 500 MB from the MemoryStream, dispose it, then read from FileStream)? Another solution is to use a custom memory stream implementation that doesn't require continuous address space for internal array allocation (i.e. a linked list of memory streams); this way, at least on 64-bit environments, out of memory exceptions should no longer be an issue. Con: extra work, more room for mistakes. So how do FileStream vs MemoryStream read/writes behave in terms of disk access and memory caching, i.e. data size/performance balance. I would expect that as long as enough RAM is available, FileStream would internally read/write from memory (cache) anyway, and virtual memory would take care of the rest. But I don't know how often FileStream will explicitly access a disk when being written to. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Maximum nametable char count exceeded

    - by doc
    I'm having issues with the maximum nametable char count quota, I followed a couple of answers here and it solved the problem for a while, but now I'm having the same issue. My Server side config is as follows: <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="GenericBinding" maxBufferPoolSize="2147483647" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="2147483647" maxStringContentLength="2147483647" maxArrayLength="2147483647" maxBytesPerRead="2147483647" maxNameTableCharCount="2147483647" /> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="false" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> <dataContractSerializer maxItemsInObjectGraph="1000000" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <services> <service name="REMWCF.RemWCFSvc"> <endpoint address="" binding="netTcpBinding" contract="REMWCF.IRemWCFSvc" bindingConfiguration="GenericBinding" /> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexTcpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost:9081/RemWCFSvc" /> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> I also have the same tcp binding on the devenv configuration. Have I reached the limit of contracts supported? Is there a way to turn off that quota? EDIT Error Message: Error: Cannot obtain Metadata from net.tcp://localhost:9081/RemWCFSvc/mex If this is a Windows (R) Communication Foundation service to which you have access, please check that you have enabled metadata publishing at the specified address. For help enabling metadata publishing, please refer to the MSDN documentation at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=65455.WS-Metadata Exchange Error URI: net.tcp://localhost:9081/RemWCFSvc/mex Metadata contains a reference that cannot be resolved: 'net.tcp://localhost:9081/RemWCFSvc/mex'. There is an error in the XML document. The maximum nametable character count quota (16384) has been exceeded while reading XML data. The nametable is a data structure used to store strings encountered during XML processing - long XML documents with non-repeating element names, attribute names and attribute values may trigger this quota. This quota may be increased by changing the MaxNameTableCharCount property on the XmlDictionaryReaderQuotas object used when creating the XML reader. I'm getting that error when trying to run the WCF (which is hosted in a windows service app).

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