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• Publishing content to multiple (unknown) domains using Open Graph?

  - by Beau Lebens

  I'm working on an application that publishes content ('articles') on a variety of URLs, which are all controlled by the same WordPress installation (mapped domains, all powered by the same set of code/part of a network). All of the publishing is done through one central Facebook App. I have no idea what the domains for these URLS are going to be, since they are controlled by our users who register domains and then configure them within their account on our service. When I attempt to use Open Graph to publish content on one of these sites (that has a customized domain), they are rejected with the following error (error code 1611028): Object at URL * * * * of type 'article' is invalid because the domain '* * * ' is not allowed for the specified application id ' * * *'. You can verify your configured 'App Domain' at.... Since I can't enter all of the domains into Facebook, and since they are not derived from my App URL anyway, is there any way that I can have this work? Some sort of magic OG tag I can put in the pages or something? Or is it just not possible to do what I'm trying to do?

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• java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: View not attached to window manager

  - by alex2k8

  I have an activity that starts AsyncTask and shows progress dialog for the duration of operation. The activity is declared NOT be recreated by rotation or keyboard slide. <activity android:name=".MyActivity" android:label="@string/app_name" android:configChanges="keyboardHidden|orientation" > <intent-filter> </intent-filter> </activity> Once task completed, I dissmiss dialog, but on some phones (framework: 1.5, 1.6) such error is thrown: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: View not attached to window manager at android.view.WindowManagerImpl.findViewLocked(WindowManagerImpl.java:356) at android.view.WindowManagerImpl.removeView(WindowManagerImpl.java:201) at android.view.Window$LocalWindowManager.removeView(Window.java:400) at android.app.Dialog.dismissDialog(Dialog.java:268) at android.app.Dialog.access$000(Dialog.java:69) at android.app.Dialog$1.run(Dialog.java:103) at android.app.Dialog.dismiss(Dialog.java:252) at xxx.onPostExecute(xxx$1.java:xxx) My code is: final Dialog dialog = new AlertDialog.Builder(context) .setTitle("Processing...") .setCancelable(true) .create(); final AsyncTask<MyParams, Object, MyResult> task = new AsyncTask<MyParams, Object, MyResult>() { @Override protected MyResult doInBackground(MyParams... params) { // Long operation goes here } @Override protected void onPostExecute(MyResult result) { dialog.dismiss(); onCompletion(result); } }; task.execute(...); dialog.setOnCancelListener(new OnCancelListener() { @Override public void onCancel(DialogInterface arg0) { task.cancel(false); } }); dialog.show(); From what I have read (http://bend-ing.blogspot.com/2008/11/properly-handle-progress-dialog-in.html) and seen in Android sources, it looks like the only possible situation to get that exception is when activity was destroyed. But as I have mentioned, I forbid activity recreation for basic events. So any suggestions are very appreciated.

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• jQuery: If, Else with buttons error

  - by Wipqozn

  I'm running into an odd error. I'm working in Django 1.2, and have implemented the commenting framework. I'm trying to attach a hide/show button to each comment field, but whenever click on a hide/show button, it behaves as if each hide/show button beneath it on the page was clicked. Here's the jQuery code: <input type="Button" id="hideShow" name="hide/show" value="Hide"></input> <script> $("#hideShow").click(function() { if($(this).val() == "Hide") { $("textarea").hide("fast"); $(this).val("Show"); } else { $("textarea").show("fast"); $(this).val( "Hide"); } }); </script> So, when I click the Hide/show button, it will perform the action for each button beneath the clicked button + once for the button itself. So If I click a button, and there are two buttons beneath it, and value=hide it will first hide the 'textarea', than show the text area, than finally hide it again. I'm new to jQuery (although I do have experience in other languages), and I have an -idea- why it's not working: that whenever an action is performed jQuery jumps to the first one, than continues down the page looking for any other actions performed, and responds to each one. So it comes to my first button, sets it as being clicked, and so when jQuery comes across the other buttons it views them all as being 'clicked' and performs actions accordingly. I've thought of a semi-solution to my problem, putting in a variable which tracks how many times it has gone through, and than acting based on -that- action. But I would rather not do that, since it's not really a solution to the problem at hand but a work around. Any input is appreciated.

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• How to provide a temporary URL for custom domain in Wordpress multisite install?

  - by Milan Babuškov

  I have a website with Wordpress 3.0.4 installation, set up as multisite install. Some users register their blogs as something.mydomain.com and that works automatically. However, some users prefer to use their own domain names like something.com. This also works fine once they set up the CNAME record to point to my server. However, it takes 24-48 hours for that change to take effect. I'd like to be able to offer the user a temporary URL that would work out-of-the-box until the DNS changes are propagated, but I have not idea how to do it? For example: something.com should also be accessible as: something.tempdomain.com I have control over "tempdomain" DNS setup. I thought about replacing $_SERVER variables in index.php or .htaccess file when temporary domain is accessed, and this works for the first page load. However, all the links in generated page point to original domain which is not yet ready. UPDATE: I managed to get it working for the site itself by manipulating $_SERVER variables so Wordpress thinks it's creating a page for different site. I did this in index.php, so before any WP code is run I'm using ob_start and ob_get_contents later to get the page generated by Wordpress and then str_replace the links back to temporary domain. The problem I still have is the admin page. Even though the link says: http://site1.tempdomain.com/wp-admin when opened in browser it redirects to maindomain.com/wp-signup.php?new=site1.tempdomain I don't understand how WP detects that I supplied "fake" domain when $_SERVER vars are changed?

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• Updating UI objects in windows forms

  - by P a u l

  Pre .net I was using MFC, ON_UPDATE_COMMAND_UI, and the CCmdUI class to update the state of my windows UI. From the older MFC/Win32 reference: Typically, menu items and toolbar buttons have more than one state. For example, a menu item is grayed (dimmed) if it is unavailable in the present context. Menu items can also be checked or unchecked. A toolbar button can also be disabled if unavailable, or it can be checked. Who updates the state of these items as program conditions change? Logically, if a menu item generates a command that is handled by, say, a document, it makes sense to have the document update the menu item. The document probably contains the information on which the update is based. If a command has multiple user-interface objects (perhaps a menu item and a toolbar button), both are routed to the same handler function. This encapsulates your user-interface update code for all of the equivalent user-interface objects in a single place. The framework provides a convenient interface for automatically updating user-interface objects. You can choose to do the updating in some other way, but the interface provided is efficient and easy to use. What is the guidance for .net Windows Forms? I am using an Application.Idle handler in the main form but am not sure this is the best way to do this. About the time I put all my UI updates in the Idle event handler my app started to show some performance problems, and I don't have the metrics to track this down yet. Not sure if it's related.

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• Help dealing with data dependency between two registration forms

  - by franko75

  I have a tricky issue here with a registration of both a user and his/her pet. Both the user and the pet are treated as separate entities and both require separate registration forms. However, the user's pet has to be linked to the user via a foreign key in the database. The process is basically that when a new user joins the site, firstly they register their pet, then they register themselves. The reason for this order is to check their pet's eligibility for the site (there are some criteria to be met) first, instead of getting the user to sign up only to then find out their pet is ineligible. It is this ordering of the form submissions which is causing me a bit of a headache, as follows... The site is being developed with an MVC framework, and the User registration process is managed via a method in a User_form controller, while the pet registration process is managed via a method in the Pet_form controller. The pet registration form happens first, and the pet data can be saved without the owner_id at this stage, with the user id possibly being added (e.g by retrieving pet's id from session) following user registration. However, doing it this way could potentially result in redundant data, where pet records would be created in the database, but if the user doesn't actually register themselves too, then the pets will be ownerless records in the DB. Other option is to serialize the new pet's data at the pet registration stage, don't save it to the DB until the user fills out their registration form. Once the user is created, i can pass serialised data AND the owner_id to a method in the Pet Model which can update the DB. However, I also need to set the newly created $pet to $this-pet which I then access for a sequence of other related forms. Should I just set the session variable in the model method? Then in the Pet controller constructor, do a check for pet stored in session, if yes, assign to $this-pet... If this makes any sense to anybody and you have some advice, i'd be grateful to hear it!

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• How to debug memory allocation issues?

  - by amitabh

  Hi I am writing an iPhone app that that is trying to create a second a view when the user clicks on an element in UITableView. The code looks like ReplyToViewController *reply = [[ReplyToViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ReplyTo" bundle:nil]; reply.delegate = self; Message *message = [resultData objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; int dbid = [message.bizid intValue]; NSLog(@"dbid=%d",dbid); reply.currentMessage = message; reply.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:reply animated:YES]; The reply object gets created properly and the view is proper. Last line in above code segment calls some framework code which eventually calls the viewDidLoad method of the ReplyToViewController. Address of the reply object in the above code and the address of the object in viewDidLoad is not same. Any idea where this new object is coming from? How do I debug? I also added init method the following method in ReplyToViewController hoping that it will get called and I can find who is creating this new object. But it does not stop in this method. Any help will be greatly appreciated. - (id) init { /* first initialize the base class */ self = [super init]; return self; } // Following gets called from the 1st code segment. - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { if (self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil]) { // Custom initialization } return self; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSLog(currentMessage.text]; // THIS returns nil and the program fails later in the code. }

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• Need some advice before starting coding my next iPhone app...

  - by Tom

  Hi! I need some advice about how should I start coding something. So here is the context: I've just finished building a CMS that manage a SQLite database. My application will be picking this database and use its content as the application's content. So far it's pretty simple. The application will have a navigation that will browse through various workflows, and once at the end workflow, it'll show contents from the database. A consultation kind a thing, example: Liquids - Juice - Orange Juice - Informations about Orange Juice. For my SQLite transactions, so far I believe I'll be using fmdb. It looks like a great wrapper. Here's a simple schema from one of the database: Workflow: id: { type: integer(3), primary: true, autoincrement: true } workflow_id: { type: integer(1) } name: { type: string(255) } That table's rows will be my navigations. Do you believe I should use a navigation controller? If so, then how could I generate the navigation tree from it? I have a good working knowledge of Objective-C and Foundation framework, but never went too far with it so that is why I'm asking before starting in the wrong direction :) Thanks a lot.

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• What's a good way to parameterize "static" content (e.g. CSS) in a Tomcat webapp?

  - by Steven Huwig

  Some of our CSS files contain parameters that can vary based on the deployment location (dev, QA, prod). For example: background: url(#DOJO_PATH#/dijit/themes...) to avoid hardcoding a path to a particular CDN or locally-hosted Dojo installation. These values are textually substituted with the real values by a deployment script, when it copies the contents of the webapp into the Tomcat webapps directory. That way the same deployment archive file (WAR + TAR file containing other configuration) can be deployed to dev, QA, and prod, with the varying parameters provided by environment-specific configuration files. However, I'd like to make the contents of the WAR (including the templatized CSS files) independent of this in-house deployment script. Since we don't really have control over the deployment script, all I can think to do is configure Tomcat with #DOJO_PATH# etc. as environment variables in the application's context.xml, and use Tomcat to insert those parameters into the CSS at runtime. I could make the CSS files into generated JSPs, but it seems a little ugly to me. Moreover, the substitution only needs to be done once per application deployment, so repeatedly dynamically generating the stylesheets using JSP will be rather wasteful. Does anyone have any alternative ideas or tools to use for this? We're committed to Tomcat and to substituting these parameters at deployment or at runtime (that is, not at build time).

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• How to pass data to a C++0x lambda function that will run in a different thread?

  - by Dimitri C.

  In our company we've written a library function to call a function asynchronously in a separate thread. It works using a combination of inheritance and template magic. The client code looks as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, &DemoThread::SomeFunction, stringToPassByValue); Since the introduction of lambda functions I'd like to use it in combination with lambda functions. I'd like to write the following client code: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=]() { const std::string someCopy = stringToPassByValue; }); Now, with the Visual C++ 2010 this code doesn't work. What happens is that the stringToPassByValue is not copied. Instead the "capture by value" feature passes the data by reference. The result is that if the function is executed after stringToPassByValue has gone out of scope, the application crashes as its destructor is called already. So I wonder: is it possible to pass data to a lambda function as a copy? Note: One possible solution would be to modify our framework to pass the data in the lambda parameter declaration list, as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=](const std::string stringPassedByValue) { const std::string someCopy = stringPassedByValue; } , stringToPassByValue); However, this solution is so verbose that our original function pointer solution is both shorter and easier to read. Update: The full implementation of AsyncCall is too big to post here. In short, what happens is that the AsyncCall template function instantiates a template class holding the lambda function. This class is derived from a base class that contains a virtual Execute() function, and upon an AsyncCall() call, the function call class is put on a call queue. A different thread then executes the queued calls by calling the virtual Execute() function, which is polymorphically dispatched to the template class which then executes the lambda function.

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• Creating a process in ASP.NET MVC controller

  - by GRKamath

  I have a requirement to run an application through my MVC controller. To get the installation path I used following link (I used answer provided by Fredrik Mörk). It worked and I could able to run the exe through a process. The problem occurred when I deployed this solution on IIS where it did not create the process as it was creating in local dev environment. Can anybody tell me how to create a windows process through a solution which is hosted on IIS ? private string GetPathForExe(string fileName) { private const string keyBase = @"SOFTWARE\Wow6432Node\MyApplication"; RegistryKey localMachine = Registry.LocalMachine; RegistryKey fileKey = localMachine.OpenSubKey(string.Format(@"{0}\{1}", keyBase, fileName)); object result = null; if (fileKey != null) { result = fileKey.GetValue("InstallPath"); } fileKey.Close(); return (string)result; } public void StartMyApplication() { Process[] pname = Process.GetProcessesByName("MyApplication"); if (pname.Length == 0) { string appDirectory = GetPathForExe("MyApplication"); Directory.SetCurrentDirectory(appDirectory); ProcessStartInfo procStartInfo = new ProcessStartInfo("MyApplication.exe"); procStartInfo.WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Hidden; Process proc = new Process(); proc.StartInfo = procStartInfo; proc.Start(); } }

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• Entity Filter child without include

  - by Lic

  i'm a C# developer and i have a trouble with Entity Framework 5. I have mapped my database with Entity using the default code generation strategy. In particolar there are three classes: menus, submenus and submenuitems. The relationships about three classes are: one menu - to many submenus one submenu - to many submenuitems. All classes have a boolean attribute called "Active". Now, i want to filter all the Menus with the SubMenus active, and the SubMenus with the SubMenuItems active. To get this i've tried this: var tmp = _model.Menus.Where(m => m.Active) .Select => new { Menu = x, SubMenu = x.SubMenus.Where(sb => sb.Active) .Select(y => new { SubMenu = y, SubMenuItem = y.SubMenuItems.Where(sbi => sbi.Active) }) }) .Select(x => x.Menu).ToList(); But didn't work. Someone can help me? Thank you for your help!

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• Best way to associate data files with particular tests in RSpec / Ruby

  - by Bill T

  For my RSpec tests I would to automatically associate data files with each test. To clarify, if my tests each require an xml file as input data and then some xpath statements to validate the responses they get back I would like to externalize the xml and xpath as files and have the testing framework easily associate them with the particular test being run by using the unique ID of the test as the file(s) name. I tried to get this behavior but the solution isn't very clean. I wrote a helper method that takes the value of "description" and combines it with FILE to create a unique identifier which is set into a global variable that other utilities can access. The unique identifier is used to associate the data files I need. I have to call this helper method as the first line of every test, which is ugly. If I have an RSpec example that looks like this: describe "Basic functions of this server I'm testing" do it "should give me back a response" do # Sets a global var to: "my_tests_spec.rb_should_give_me_back_a_response" TestHelper::who_am_i __FILE__, description ... end end Is there some better/cleaner/slicker way I can get an unique ID for each test that I could use to associate data files with? Perhaps something build into RSpec I'm unaware of? Thank you, -Bill

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• Error while reading custom configuration file(app.config)

  - by Newbie

  I am making a custom configuration in my winform application. (It will represent a country-corrency list) First the CountryList class namespace UtilityMethods { public class CountryList : ConfigurationSection { public CountryList() { // // TODO: Add constructor logic here // } [ConfigurationProperty("CountryCurrency", IsRequired = true)] public Hashtable CountryCurrencies { get { return CountryCurrency.GetCountryCurrency(); } } } } The GetCountryCurrency() method is defined in CountryCurrency class as under namespace UtilityMethods { public static class CountryCurrency { public static Hashtable GetCountryCurrency() { Hashtable ht = new Hashtable(); ht.Add("India", "Rupees"); ht.Add("USA", "Dollar"); return ht; } } } The app.config file looks like <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name ="CountryList1" type ="UtilityMethods.CountryList,CountryList,Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral"/> </configSections> <appSettings /> </configuration> And I am calling this from a button_click's event as try { CountryList cList = ConfigurationManager.GetSection("CountryList") as CountryList; Hashtable ht = cList.CountryCurrencies; } catch (Exception ex) { string h = ex.Message; } Upon running the application and clicking on the button I am getting this error Could not load type 'UtilityMethods.CountryList' from assembly 'System.Configuration, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a' Please help (dotnet framework : 3.5 Language: C#)

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• Why does PEAR get installed to my user directory?

  - by webworm

  I am new to Linux and I am attempting to install the PHP PEAR library on a virtual server which is running Ubuntu. I am following a tutorial that covers installing PEAR but have run up against an area where I am confused. When running the PEAR installation program I am prompted as to what I want the INSTALL_PREFIX to be. Evidently the INSTALL_PREFIX, among other things, determines where PEAR will be installed. The tutorial suggest the value of INSTALL_PREFIX be the following path ... "/home/MY_USER_NAME/pear" where MY_USER_NAME = my user account Having come from a Windows world, applications are installed on the system where everyone can use them. If I install PEAR underneath my user directory will other developers on the system be able to make use of PEAR in their PHP scripts? I want to make PEAR available to all users and not just myself. Could someone explain to me the difference between installing for all users and installing just for myself? Does the install location matter? Should I be installing PEAR in a different location? Thanks for any suggestions. P.S. The tutorial I am following is located at the following URL ... http://articles.sitepoint.com/article/getting-started-with-pear/2

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• Should I be using Expression Blend to design really dynamic UIs?

  - by Robert Rossney

  My company's product is, at its core, a framework for developing metadata-driven UIs. I don't know how to characterize it less succinctly than that, and hope I won't need to for purposes of this question, but we'll see. I've been trying to come up to speed on WPF, and have been building UI prototypes here and there, and recently I decided to see if I could use Expression Blend to help with the design of these UIs. And I'm pretty mystified at this point. It appears to me as though Expresssion Blend is designed with the expectation that you already know all of the objects that are going to be present in the UI at design time. But our program generates these object dynamically at runtime. For instance, a data row might be presented in a horizontal StackPanel containing alternating TextBlocks (for captions) and TextBoxes (for data fields). The number of these objects depends on metadata about the number of columns in the data row. I can, pretty readily, write code that runs through a metadata record and populates a StackPanel dynamically, setting up the binding of all of the controls to properties in either the data or metadata. (A TextBox's Width might be bound to metadata, while its Text is bound to data.) But I can't even begin to figure out how to do something like this in Expression Blend. I can manually create all these controls, so that I have a set of controls that I can apply styles to and work out the visual design of the app, but it's really a pain to do this. I can write code that goes through my data model and emits XAML for all these controls, I suppose, and then copy and paste it. But I'm going to feel really stupid if it turns out there a way to do this sort of thing in Expression Blend and I've dropped back and punted because I'm too dim to figure out the right way to think of it. Is this enough information for someone to try formulating an answer?

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• Where should global Application Settings be stored on Windows 7?

  - by Kerido

  Hi everybody, I'm working hard on making my product work seamlessly on Windows 7. The problem is that there is a small set of global (not user-specific) application settings that all users should be able to change. On previous versions I used HKLM\Software\__Company__\__Product__ for that purpose. This allowed Power Users and Administrators to modify the Registry Key and everything worked correctly. Now that Windows Vista and Windows 7 have this UAC feature, by default, even an Administrator cannot access the Key for writing without elevation. A stupid solution would, of course, mean adding requireAdministrator option into the application manifest. But this is really unprofessional since the product itself is extremely far from administration-related tasks. So I need to stay with asInvoker. Another solution could mean programmatic elevation during moments when write access to the Registry Key is required. Let alone the fact that I don't know how to implement that, it's pretty awkward also. It interferes with normal user experience so much that I would hardly consider it an option. What I know should be relatively easy to accomplish is adding write access to the specified Registry Key during installation. I created a separate question for that. This also very similar to accessing a shared file for storing the settings. My feeling is that there must be a way to accomplish what I need, in a way that is secure, straightforward and compatible with all OS'es. Any ideas?

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• Can I create an application using SlimDX relying on the DirectX DLLs already bundled with Vista/Win7

  - by norheim.se

  I'm working on a .NET application that requires the use of accelerated graphics, currently DirectX 9.0c. The software is quite graphics intensive and must, in addition, be launchable from a CD or by ClickOnce without the user requiring administrator's permissions. I currently use SlimDX, which works great featurewise, but the users are getting rather annoyed by having to install the DirectX redistributable. Especially since this does require elevated permissions. It is rather hard to explain to them why the version of DirectX already bundled with their OS is not sufficient. After all - DirectX 9.0c has been around since 2004, and I'm not using any new fancy features. The ability to deliver an application that "just works" in Vista or Windows 7, without any particular additional prerequisites would be a huge advantage. Therefore: Is there any way I can build an application using DirectX 9.0c based on SlimDX, that relies only on the libraries provided in the standard Windows Vista/Win7 installation? That is - without requiring the additional DirectX redistributable to be installed? If not - is there any other managed (and preferably not abandoned) DirectX wrapper that can serve this purpose? Thanks in advance!

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• What about parallelism across network using multiple PCs?

  - by MainMa

  Parallel computing is used more and more, and new framework features and shortcuts make it easier to use (for example Parallel extensions which are directly available in .NET 4). Now what about the parallelism across network? I mean, an abstraction of everything related to communications, creation of processes on remote machines, etc. Something like, in C#: NetworkParallel.ForEach(myEnumerable, () => { // Computing and/or access to web ressource or local network database here }); I understand that it is very different from the multi-core parallelism. The two most obvious differences would probably be: The fact that such parallel task will be limited to computing, without being able for example to use files stored locally (but why not a database?), or even to use local variables, because it would be rather two distinct applications than two threads of the same application, The very specific implementation, requiring not just a separate thread (which is quite easy), but spanning a process on different machines, then communicating with them over local network. Despite those differences, such parallelism is quite possible, even without speaking about distributed architecture. Do you think it will be implemented in a few years? Do you agree that it enables developers to easily develop extremely powerfull stuff with much less pain? Example: Think about a business application which extracts data from the database, transforms it, and displays statistics. Let's say this application takes ten seconds to load data, twenty seconds to transform data and ten seconds to build charts on a single machine in a company, using all the CPU, whereas ten other machines are used at 5% of CPU most of the time. In a such case, every action may be done in parallel, resulting in probably six to ten seconds for overall process instead of forty.

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• Java Client interoperating with WSE 3.0 Web Service

  - by Dee

  I have a Interoperable Security Token Service (STS) that authenticates the User and then issues a SAML token. I also have transaction services that expects the SAML token in the incoming SOAP request header. For a client to make a call to transaction service, it first needs to authenticate with the STS, get the SAML token and then make a call to the transaction services. The STS is an interoperable service and can be invoked from a Java client. The Transaction services are build using WSE 3.0 framework, but the WSDL that it generates is not good enough for a Java client to understand it. I want my Java client to explicitly call the STS and then using the received SAML token make a call to Transaction Services. I tried with Netbeans and Metro WSIT toolkit. I was able to call the Transaction Services if it were implemented using WCF. With WCF Transaction Service the WSDL generated has complete information using which the Java client can figure out how to call to STS and then call the WCF Transaction service. How can my Java client explicitly call the STS and then in turn call the WSE 3.0 transaction services?

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• Is there a way to access Joomla 1.5 user variables (like user id) from a Flex 4 application using a PHP Data Service?

  - by Zachary G. Schroeder

  I have written a script (in two files) that correctly displays a Joomla user id, like this: //this is testy.php define( '_JEXEC', 1 ); define('JPATH_BASE', dirname(FILE)); define( 'DS', DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR ); require_once ( JPATH_BASE .DS.'includes'.DS.'defines.php' ); require_once ( JPATH_BASE .DS.'includes'.DS.'framework.php' ); $mainframe =& JFactory::getApplication('site'); $id = JFactory::getUser()-id; The above file is located in the Joomla root folder. The other file is in a different directory and is as follows: //this is testid.php include '../../joomla/testy.php'; echo $id; However, and here is the rub, when I change the "echo" to a "return" and put the second code snippet inside my Flex 4 Data Service script file, like this... function getUserId() { include '../../joomla/testy.php'; return $id; } ...I get a Flex error that says this: Fatal error: Class 'JRequest' not found in /var/www/html/joomla/libraries/joomla/import.php on line 33 I am extremely confused by this error and would appreciate any suggestions that the stackoverflow community may have. Thanks so much! Zach

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• Apache and linux file permissions can't browse file or directories

  - by dardub

  I just copied my magento site over to a local server running CentOS 5.4. The browser said it can't locate the location of the stylesheets. The stylesheets are within /skin/frontend/my_new_interface/design2/css. I tried to view in the browser and I can't view any of the files within the css directory. I verified a million times that I'm typing in the correct location. I can view files within /skin/frontend/my_new_interface/design2. Can't browse directories within browser however. I typed in ls -l css and get: -rwxr-xr-x 1 apache apache listed for all the files I tried chmod -R 755 and the directories I changed the apache conf Options Indexes But still when I browse the directories I get Forbidden. However, in another fresh installation of magento in the same www dir, I am able to browse directories. As far as I can tell both installations have same ownership and permissions. I also tried find . -type f -exec chmod 644 {} \; find . -type d -exec chmod 755 {} \; which was recommended in the magento wiki I've just run out of ideas.

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• StreamReader returning another char

  - by Fernando

  I'm trying to read the content of a file with a StreamReader, that receives a FileStream. The file has some spaces inside (char 32) and the StreamReader is reading them as 0 (char 48). The screenshot shows the FileStream buffer and the StreamReader buffer. Both have the value 32, but when I call Read(), it returns 48. Am I missing something here? By the way, the code is running under .NET Compact Framework. The code that reads the data: public void Read() { using (StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(InputStream, Encoding.ASCII)) { foreach (var property in DataObject.EnumerateProperties()) { OffsetInfo offset = property.GetTextOffset(); reader.BaseStream.Position = offset.Start - 1; StringBuilder builder = new StringBuilder(offset.Size); int count = 0; while (reader.Peek() >= 0 && count < offset.Size) { char c = (char)reader.Read(); if ((int)c != 32 && c != '\r' && c != '\n') { builder.Append(c); count++; } else { reader.BaseStream.Position++; } } property.SetValue(DataObject, Convert.ChangeType(builder.ToString(), property.PropertyType, CultureInfo.CurrentCulture), null ); } } }

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• Do I have to implement Add/Delete methods in my NHibernate entities ?

  - by Lisa

  This is a sample from the Fluent NHibernate website: Compared to the Entitiy Framework I have ADD methods in my POCO in this code sample using NHibernate. With the EF I did context.Add or context.AddObject etc... the context had the methods to put one entity into the others entity collection! Do I really have to implement Add/Delete/Update methods (I do not mean the real database CRUD operations!) in a NHibernate entity ? public class Store { public virtual int Id { get; private set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual IList<Product> Products { get; set; } public virtual IList<Employee> Staff { get; set; } public Store() { Products = new List<Product>(); Staff = new List<Employee>(); } public virtual void AddProduct(Product product) { product.StoresStockedIn.Add(this); Products.Add(product); } public virtual void AddEmployee(Employee employee) { employee.Store = this; Staff.Add(employee); } }

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• TFS2010 API - Which server event fires when checkin notes are changed?

  - by user3708981

  I've written a TFS plugin that impliments the ISubscribe interface, and creates an external ticket base off of the contents of a check-in note. What I would like to do, if when I go back through older TFS check-ins in VS and edit a check-in note, the plugin would process that event and create an external ticket retroactively. What event / SubscribedType do I need to subscribe to in order for ProcessEvents to fire? My stubbed out code - using Microsoft.TeamFoundation.Client; using Microsoft.TeamFoundation.Common; using Microsoft.TeamFoundation.VersionControl.Client; // From C:\Program Files\Microsoft Team Foundation Server 2010\Tools\ using Microsoft.TeamFoundation.Framework.Server; using Microsoft.TeamFoundation.VersionControl.Server; using Changeset = Microsoft.TeamFoundation.VersionControl.Server.Changeset; public class EmbeddedWorkItemEventHandler : ISubscriber { const string EVENT_NAME = "TicketEvent"; const string APP_LOG = "Application"; public Type[] SubscribedTypes() { return new Type[1] { typeof(CheckinNotification) }; // What else do I need here? } public string Name { get { return EVENT_NAME; } } public SubscriberPriority Priority { get { return SubscriberPriority.Normal; } } public EventNotificationStatus ProcessEvent(TeamFoundationRequestContext requestContext, NotificationType notificationType, object notificationEventArgs, out int statusCode, out string statusMessage, out ExceptionPropertyCollection properties) { // Create the event source, if it doesn't exist if (!System.Diagnostics.EventLog.SourceExists(EVENT_NAME)) { System.Diagnostics.EventLog.CreateEventSource(EVENT_NAME, APP_LOG); } statusCode = 0; properties = null; statusMessage = String.Empty; string ErrorLine = ""; try { // Here we'll validate the Ticket name if (notificationType == NotificationType.DecisionPoint && notificationEventArgs is CheckinNotification) { //Check-in blocking logic here. } else if (notificationType == NotificationType.Notification && notificationEventArgs is CheckinNotification) { // Tickets on check-in here. } } Catch { // Error checking } return EventNotificationStatus.ActionPermitted; }

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