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• Pass object from JSON into MVC Controller - its always null ?

  - by SteveCl

  Hi I have seen a few questions on here related to the a similar issue, I have read them, followed them, but still i have the same problem. I am basically creating an object in javascript and trying to call a method on the controller that will return a string of html. Not JSON. I've been playing around with dataType and contentType but still no joy. So apologies if the code snippets are a bit messy. Build the object in JS. function GetCardModel() { var card = {}; card.CardTitle = $("#CardTitle").val(); card.TopicTitle = $("#TopicTitle").val(); card.TopicBody = $("#TopicBody").data("tEditor").value(); card.CardClose = $("#CardClose").val(); card.CardFromName = $("#CardFromName").val(); return card; } Take a look at the object - all looks good and as it should in JSON. var model = GetCardModel(); alert(JSON.stringify(GetCardModel())); Make the call... $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/Postcard/Create/Preview/", dataType: "json", //contentType: "application/json", date: GetCardModel(), processData: true, success: function (data) { alert("im back"); alert(data); }, error: function (xhr, ajaxOptions, error) { alert(xhr.status); alert("Error: " + xhr.responseText); //alert(error); } }); Always when I step into the controller, the object is ALWAYS there, but with null values for all the properties.

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• mysql_affected_rows() returns 0 for UPDATE statement even when an update actually happens

  - by Alex Moore

  I am trying to get the number of rows affected in a simple mysql update query. However, when I run this code below, PHP's mysql_affected_rows() always equals 0. No matter if foo=1 already (in which case the function should correctly return 0, since no rows were changed), or if foo currently equals some other integer (in which case the function should return 1). $updateQuery = "UPDATE myTable SET foo=1 WHERE bar=2"; mysql_query($updateQuery); if (mysql_affected_rows() > 0) { echo "affected!"; } else { echo "not affected"; // always prints not affected } The UPDATE statement itself works. The INT gets changed in my database. I have also double-checked that the database connection isn't being closed beforehand or anything funky. Keep in mind, mysql_affected_rows doesn't necessarily require you to pass a connection link identifier, though I've tried that too. Details on the function: mysql_affected_rows Any ideas? SOLUTION The part I didn't mention turned out to be the cause of my woes here. This PHP file was being called ten times consecutively in an AJAX call, though I was only looking at the value returned on the last call, ie. a big fat 0. My apologies!

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• Insertion sort invariant assertion fails

  - by user1661211

  In the following code at the end of the for loop I use the assert function in order to test that a[i+1] is greater than or equal to a[i] but I get the following error (after the code below). Also in c++ the assert with the following seems to work just fine but in python (the following code) it does not seem to work...anyone know why? import random class Sorting: #Precondition: An array a with values. #Postcondition: Array a[1...n] is sorted. def insertion_sort(self,a): #First loop invariant: Array a[1...i] is sorted. for j in range(1,len(a)): key = a[j] i = j-1 #Second loop invariant: a[i] is the greatest value from a[i...j-1] while i >= 0 and a[i] > key: a[i+1] = a[i] i = i-1 a[i+1] = key assert a[i+1] >= a[i] return a def random_array(self,size): b = [] for i in range(0,size): b.append(random.randint(0,1000)) return b sort = Sorting() print sort.insertion_sort(sort.random_array(10)) The Error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Users\Albaraa\Desktop\CS253\Programming 1\Insertion_Sort.py", line 27, in <module> print sort.insertion_sort(sort.random_array(10)) File "C:\Users\Albaraa\Desktop\CS253\Programming 1\Insertion_Sort.py", line 16, in insertion_sort assert a[i+1] >= a[i] AssertionError

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• Does breaking chained Select()s in LINQ to objects hurt performance?

  - by Justin

  Take the following pseudo C# code: using System; using System.Data; using System.Linq; using System.Collections.Generic; public IEnumerable<IDataRecord> GetRecords(string sql) { // DB logic goes here } public IEnumerable<IEmployer> Employers() { string sql = "select EmployerID from employer"; var ids = GetRecords(sql).Select(record => (record["EmployerID"] as int?) ?? 0); return ids.Select(employerID => new Employer(employerID) as IEmployer); } Would it be faster if the two Select() calls were combined? Is there an extra iteration in the code above? Is the following code faster? public IEnumerable<IEmployer> Employers() { string sql = "select EmployerID from employer"; return Query.Records(sql).Select(record => new Employer((record["EmployerID"] as int?) ?? 0) as IEmployer); } I think the first example is more readable if there is no difference in performance.

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• Adding and sorting a linked list in C

  - by user1202963

  In my assignment, I have to write a function that takes as arguments a pointer to a "LNode" structure and an integer argument. Then, I have to not only add that integer into the linked list, but also put place it so that the list is in proper ascending order. I've tried several various attempts at this, and this is my code as of posting. LNode* AddItem(LNode *headPtr, int newItem) { auto LNode *ptr = headPtr; ptr = malloc(sizeof(LNode)); if (headPtr == NULL) { ptr->value = newItem; ptr->next = headPtr; return ptr; } else { while (headPtr->value > newItem || ptr->next != NULL) { printf("While\n"); // This is simply to let me know how many times the loop runs headPtr = headPtr->next; } ptr->value = newItem; ptr->next = headPtr; return ptr; } } // end of "AddItem" When I run it, and try to insert say a 5 and then a 3, the 5 gets inserted, but then the while loop runs once and I get a segmentation fault. Also I cannot change the arguments as it's part of a skeletal code for this project. Thanks to anyone who can help. If it helps this is what the structure looks like typedef struct LNode { int value; struct LNode *next; } LNode;

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• class modifier issues in C# with "private" classes

  - by devoured elysium

  I had a class that had lots of methods: public class MyClass { public bool checkConditions() { return checkCondition1() && checkCondition2() && checkCondition3(); } ...conditions methods public void DoProcess() { FirstPartOfProcess(); SecondPartOfProcess(); ThirdPartOfProcess(); } ...process methods } I identified two "vital" work areas, and decided to extract those methods to classes of its own: public class MyClass { private readonly MyClassConditions _conditions = new ...; private readonly MyClassProcessExecution = new ...; public bool checkConditions() { return _conditions.checkConditions(); } public void DoProcess() { _process.DoProcess(); } } In Java, I'd define MyClassConditions and MyClassProcessExecution as package protected, but I can't do that in C#. How would you go about doing this in C#? Setting both classes as inner classes of MyClass? I have 2 options: I either define them inside MyClass, having everything in the same file, which looks confusing and ugly, or I can define MyClass as a partial class, having one file for MyClass, other for MyClassConditions and other for MyClassProcessExecution. Defining them as internal? I don't really like that much of the internal modifier, as I don't find these classes add any value at all for the rest of my program/assembly, and I'd like to hide them if possible. It's not like they're gonna be useful/reusable in any other part of the program. Keep them as public? I can't see why, but I've let this option here. Any other? Name it! Thanks

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• what is the best practice approach for n-tier application development with entity framework?

  - by samsur

  I am building an application using entity framework. I am using the T4 template to generate self tracking entities. Currently, I am thinking of creating the entity framework code in a separate project. In this same project, I would have partial classes with additional methods for the entities. I am thinking of creating a separate project for a service layer (WCF) with methods for the upper/presentation tier. The WCF layer will reference the entity framework project. The methods in the WCF layer will return the entities or accept the entities as the parameters. I am thinkg of creating a third project for the presentation layer (ASP.net), this will make calls to the WCF service but will also need to reference the entities as the WCF methods take these types as the parameters/return types. In short, i want to use the STE entities generated by the T4 template as a DTO to be used in all layers. I was originally thinking of creating a business logic layer that maps to each entities. Example: If i have a customer class, the Business Layer would have a CustomerBLL class and then methods in the customerBLL will be used by the service layer. I was also trying to create a DTO in this business layer. I however found that this approach is very time consuming and i do not see a major benefit as it would create more maintenance work. What is the best practice for n-tier application development using entity framework 4?

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• Django | passing form values

  - by MMRUser

  I want to create a user sign up process that requires two different forms with the same data one (1st form) is for filling out the data and other one (2nd form) is for displaying the filled data as a summery (before actually saving the data) so then user can view what he/she has filled up... my problem is that how do I pass 1st form's data in to the 2nd one .. I have used the basic Django form manipulation mechanism and passed the form field values to the next form using Django template tags.. if request.method == 'POST': form = Users(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): cd = form.cleaned_data try: name = cd['fullName'] email = cd['emailAdd'] password1 = cd['password'] password2 = cd['password2'] phoneNumber = cd['phoneNumber'] return render_to_response('signup2.html', {'name': name, 'email': email, 'password1': password1, 'password2': password2, 'phone': phone, 'pt': phoneType}) except Exception, ex: return HttpResponse("Error %s" % str(ex)) and from the second from I just displayed those field values using tags and also used hidden fields in order to submit the form with values, like this: <label for="">Email:</label> {{ email }} <input type="hidden" id="" name="email" class="width250" value="{{ email }}" readonly /> It works nicely from the out look, but the real problem is that if someone view the source of the html he can simply get the password even hackers can get through this easily. So how do I avoid this issue.. and I don't want to use Django session since this is just a simple sign up process and no other interactions involved. Thanks.

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• How do I authenticate an ADO.NET Data Service?

  - by lsb

  Hi! I've created an ADO.Net Data Service hosted in a Azure worker role. I want to pass credentials from a simple console client to the service then validate them using a QueryInterceptor. Unfortunately, the credentials don't seem to be making it over the wire. The following is a simplified version of the code I'm using, starting with the DataService on the server: using System; using System.Data.Services; using System.Linq.Expressions; using System.ServiceModel; using System.Web; namespace Oslo.Worker { [ServiceBehavior(AddressFilterMode = AddressFilterMode.Any)] public class AdminService : DataService<OsloEntities> { public static void InitializeService( IDataServiceConfiguration config) { config.SetEntitySetAccessRule("*", EntitySetRights.All); config.SetServiceOperationAccessRule("*", ServiceOperationRights.All); } [QueryInterceptor("Pairs")] public Expression<Func<Pair, bool>> OnQueryPairs() { // This doesn't work!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! if (HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name != "ADMIN") throw new Exception("Ooops!"); return p => true; } } } Here's the AdminService I'm using to instantiate the AdminService in my Azure worker role: using System; using System.Data.Services; namespace Oslo.Worker { public class AdminHost : DataServiceHost { public AdminHost(Uri baseAddress) : base(typeof(AdminService), new Uri[] { baseAddress }) { } } } And finally, here's the client code. using System; using System.Data.Services.Client; using System.Net; using Oslo.Shared; namespace Oslo.ClientTest { public class AdminContext : DataServiceContext { public AdminContext(Uri serviceRoot, string userName, string password) : base(serviceRoot) { Credentials = new NetworkCredential(userName, password); } public DataServiceQuery<Order> Orders { get { return base.CreateQuery<Pair>("Orders"); } } } } I should mention that the code works great with the signal exception that the credentials are not being passed over the wire. Any help in this regard would be greatly appreciated! Thanks....

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• The best way to write a jQuery plugin - If there is such a way?

  - by Nick Lowman

  There are quite a few ways to write plugins i.e. here's a nice example and what I've seen quite a lot of lately is the following code pattern and it's used by Doug Neiner here; (function($){ $.formatLink = function(el, options){ var base = this; base.$el = $(el); base.el = el; base.$el.data("formatLink", base); base.init = function(){ base.options = $.extend({}, $.formatLink.defaultOptions, options); //code here } base.init(); }; $.formatLink.defaultOptions = { }; $.fn.formatLink = function(options){ return this.each(function(){ (new $.formatLink(this, options)); }); }; })(jQuery); So, can anyone tell me the benefits of using the pattern above rather than the one below. I can't see the point in calling the $.extend function for every element in the jQuery stack (above), where the example below only does this once and then works on the stack. To test it I created two plugins, using both patterns, which applied styles to about 5000 li elements and the code below took about 1 second whereas the pattern above took about 1.3 seconds. (function($){ $.fn.formatLink = function(options){ var options = $.extend({}, $.fn.formatLink.defaultOptions, options || {}); return this.each(function(){ //code here }); }); $.fn.formatLink.defaultOptions ={} })(jQuery);

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• Where should my "filtering" logic reside with Linq-2-SQL and ASP.NET-MVC in View or Controller?

  - by Nate Bross

  I have a main Table, with several "child" tables. TableA and TableAChild1 and TableAChild2. I have a view which shows the information in TableA, and then has two columns of all items in TableAChild1 and TableAChild2 respectivly, they are rendered with Partial views. Both child tables have a bit field for VisibleToAll, and depending on user role, I'd like to either display all related rows, or related rows where VisibleToAll = true. This code, feels like it should be in the controller, but I'm not sure how it would look, because as it stands, the controller (limmited version) looks like this: return View("TableADetailView", repos.GetTableA(id)); Would something like this be even work, and would it be bad what if my DataContext gets submitted, would that delete all the rows that have VisibleToAll == false? var tblA = repos.GetTableA(id); tblA.TableAChild1 = tblA.TableAChild1.Where(tmp => tmp.VisibleToAll == true); tblA.TableAChild2 = tblA.TableAChild2.Where(tmp => tmp.VisibleToAll == true); return View("TableADetailView", tblA); It would also be simple to add that logic to the RendarPartial call from the main view: <% Html.RenderPartial("TableAChild1", Model.TableAChild1.Where(tmp => tmp.VisibleToAll == true); %>

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• Problems with Unity BuildUp Method

  - by Voice

  Hi everybody) I'm using Unity App Block for my project (version 1.2.0.0). I have a problem with Unity Container BuildUp method which I'm using for my ascx controls. Here is some code (that's pretty simple) public class BaseUserControl<T>:UserControl where T:class { protected override void OnInit(EventArgs e) { InjectDependencies(); base.OnInit(e); } protected virtual void InjectDependencies() { var context = HttpContext.Current; if (context == null) { return; } var accessor = context.ApplicationInstance as IContainerAccessor; if (accessor == null) { return; } var container = accessor.Container; if (container == null) { throw new InvalidOperationException("No Unity container found"); } container.BuildUp<T>(this as T); } } This method is called in base control for ascx controls in my solution. And here the property that should be injected in child control: [Dependency] private IStock Stock { get; set; } So after buildup Stock property is still empty. Resolve method works fine for IStock with the same container and configuration. I've tried buildup with simple test class with only one property IStock and got the same result. So what can be wrong with buildup?

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• Predicate usually used for array/list how about here?

  - by amit kohan

  In following code (Josh Smith's article on MVVM), can somebody give me some insight about return _canExecute == null ? true : _canExecute(parameter); ? it is a normal if/else statement but I'm not getting the last part of it. public class RelayCommand : ICommand { #region Fields readonly Action<object> _execute; readonly Predicate<object> _canExecute; #endregion // Fields #region Constructors public RelayCommand(Action<object> execute) : this(execute, null) { } public RelayCommand(Action<object> execute, Predicate<object> canExecute) { if (execute == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("execute"); _execute = execute; _canExecute = canExecute; } #endregion // Constructors #region ICommand Members [DebuggerStepThrough] public bool CanExecute(object parameter) { return _canExecute == null ? true : _canExecute(parameter); } public event EventHandler CanExecuteChanged { add { CommandManager.RequerySuggested += value; } remove { CommandManager.RequerySuggested -= value; } } public void Execute(object parameter) { _execute(parameter); } #endregion // ICommand Members } Thanks.

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• Object inside of array -- works in one scope but not in another?

  - by Earlz

  Ok I've been learning some of the more advanced aspects of Javascript and now trying to use this I'm stuck. Here is my code: function Data(){} function init(state){ var item; item=new Data(); item.fieldrid=17; item.description='foo'; state.push(item); }; function findInState(state,fieldrid) { for (var item in state) { alert(item.fieldrid); //prints undefined if (item.fieldrid == fieldrid) { return item; } } return null; } var s=[]; init(s); alert(s[0].fieldrid); //prints 17 (expected) alert(findInState(s,17).fieldrid); //exception here. function returns null. A running example is here at jsbin Why does this not work? I would expect the alert in findInState to yield 17 but instead it yields undefined. What am I doing wrong?

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• Using Linq-To-SQL I'm getting some weird behavior doing text searches with the .Contains method. Loo

  - by Nate Bross

  I have a table, where I need to do a case insensitive search on a text field. If I run this query in LinqPad directly on my database, it works as expected Table.Where(tbl => tbl.Title.Contains("StringWithAnyCase")) // also, adding in the same constraints I'm using in my repository works in LinqPad // Table.Where(tbl => tbl.Title.Contains("StringWithAnyCase") && tbl.IsActive == true) In my application, I've got a repository which exposes IQueryable objects which does some initial filtering and it looks like this var dc = new MyDataContext(); public IQueryable<Table> GetAllTables() { var ret = dc.Tables.Where(t => t.IsActive == true); return ret; } In the controller (its an MVC app) I use code like this in an attempt to mimic the LinqPad query: var rpo = new RepositoryOfTable(); var tables = rpo.GetAllTables(); // for some reason, this does a CASE SENSITIVE search which is NOT what I want. tables = tables.Where(tbl => tbl.Title.Contains("StringWithAnyCase"); return View(tables); The column is defiend as an nvarchar(50) in SQL Server 2008. Any help or guidance is greatly appreciated!

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• ruby on rails implement search with auto complete

  - by user429400

  I've implemented a search box that searches the "Illnesses" table and the "symptoms" table in my DB. Now I want to add auto-complete to the search box. I've created a new controller called "auto_complete_controller" which returns the auto complete data. I'm just not sure how to combine the search functionality and the auto complete functionality: I want the "index" action in my search controller to return the search results, and the "index" action in my auto_complete controller to return the auto_complete data. Please guide me how to fix my html syntax and what to write in the js.coffee file. I'm using rails 3.x with the jquery UI for auto-complete, I prefer a server side solution, and this is my current code: main_page/index.html.erb: <p> <b>Syptoms / Illnesses</b> <%= form_tag search_path, :method => 'get' do %> <p> <%= text_field_tag :search, params[:search] %> <br/> <%= submit_tag "Search", :name => nil %> </p> <% end %> </p> auto_complete_controller.rb: class AutoCompleteController < ApplicationController def index @results = Illness.order(:name).where("name like ?", "%#{params[:term]}%") + Symptom.order(:name).where("name like ?", "%#{params[:term]}%") render json: @results.map(&:name) end end search_controller.rb: class SearchController < ApplicationController def index @results = Illness.search(params[:search]) + Symptom.search(params[:search]) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render json: @results } end end end Thanks, Li

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• How to change image on locale base in magento?

  - by Nil

  I want to change search image in magento. On search in magento the image name is btn_search.gif. Right now it take image from skin/frontend/default/default/images. And the file is /app/design/frontend/default/default/template/catalogsearch/form.mini.phtml where mention this tag as <input id="search-button" type="image" src="<?php echo $this->getSkinUrl('images/btn_search.gif') ?>" alt="<?php echo $this->__('Search') ?>" /> I check the code and i found that we can pass locale as _type in this as <input id="search-button" type="image" src="<?php echo $this->getSkinUrl('images/btn_search.gif', array('_type'=>'local')) ?>" alt="<?php echo $this->__('Search') ?>" /> But when i check the code this will just check in locale directory that this file exist in that locale or not. If this exist then it will take skin image. I want to use that locale image instead of that skin image. So when i click on french store i get the image which is i set in /app/design/frontend/default/default/locale/fr_FR/images/btn_search.gif I check the code for getSkinUrl in /app/code/core/Mage/Core/Model/Design/Package.php. And i found that he check locale for file but it return skin url. Is there any method which return locale url ?

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• Task Parallel Library exception handling

  - by user1680766

  When handling exceptions in TPL tasks I have come across two ways to handle exceptions. The first catches the exception within the task and returns it within the result like so: var task = Task<Exception>.Factory.StartNew( () => { try { // Do Something return null; } catch (System.Exception e) { return e; } }); task.ContinueWith( r => { if (r.Result != null) { // Handle Exception } }); The second is the one shown within the documentation and I guess the proper way to do things: var task = Task.Factory.StartNew( () => { // Do Something }); task.ContinueWith( r => { if (r.Exception != null) { // Handle Aggregate Exception r.Exception.Handle(y => true); } }); I am wondering if there is anything wrong with the first approach? I have received 'unhandled aggregate exception' exceptions every now and again using this technique and was wondering how this can happen?

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• Disable specific dates in jquery

  - by rvdb86

  I am using the jquery date picker found here: http://www.kelvinluck.com/assets/jquery/datePicker/v2/demo/datePickerStartEnd.html that allows the user to pick a start and end date. However I want to be able to disable specific dates. I tried to implement the code found here: stackoverflow.com/questions/501943/can-the-jquery-ui-datepicker-be-made-to-disable-saturdays-and-sundays-and-holida that discusses disabling national holidays. Here is my complete code: $(function() { $('.date-pick').datePicker({ beforeShowDay: nationalDays}) // $(".selector").datepicker({ beforeShowDay: nationalDays}) var natDays = [ [1, 26, 'au'], [2, 6, 'nz'], [3, 17, 'ie'], [4, 27, 'za'], [5, 25, 'ar'], [6, 6, 'se'], [7, 4, 'us'], [8, 17, 'id'], [9, 7, 'br'], [10, 1, 'cn'], [11, 22, 'lb'], [12, 12, 'ke'] ]; function nationalDays(date) { for (i = 0; i < natDays.length; i++) { if (date.getMonth() == natDays[i][0] - 1 && date.getDate() == natDays[i][1]) { return [false, natDays[i][2] + '_day']; } } return [true, '']; } $('#start-date').bind( 'dpClosed', function(e, selectedDates) { var d = selectedDates[0]; if (d) { d = new Date(d); $('#end-date').dpSetStartDate(d.addDays(1).asString()); } } ); $('#end-date').bind( 'dpClosed', function(e, selectedDates) { var d = selectedDates[0]; if (d) { d = new Date(d); $('#start-date').dpSetEndDate(d.addDays(-1).asString()); } } ); }); But this does not seem to work. I would really appreciate any assistance with solving this!

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• Visual Studio: Collapse Methods, but not Comments (Summary etc.)

  - by Alex

  Hello, is there a way (settings? "macro"? extension?) that I can simply toggle outlining so that only the using section and my methods collapse to their signature line, but my comments (summary and double slash comments) and classes stay expanded? Examples: 1) Uncollapsed using System; using MachineGun; namespace Animals { /// <summary> /// Angry animal /// Pretty Fast, too /// </summary> public partial class Lion { // // Dead or Alive public Boolean Alive; /// <summary> /// Bad bite /// </summary> public PieceOfAnimal Bite(Animal animalToBite) { return animalToBite.Shoulder; } /// <summary> /// Fatal bite /// </summary> public PieceOfAnimal Kill(Animal animalToKill) { return animalToKill.Head; } } } 2) Collapsed (the following is my desired result): using[...] namespace Animals { /// <summary> /// Angry animal /// Pretty Fast, too /// </summary> public partial class Lion { // // Dead or Alive public Boolean Alive; /// <summary> /// Bad bite /// </summary> public PieceOfAnimal Bite(Animal animalToBite)[...] /// <summary> /// Fatal bite /// </summary> public PieceOfAnimal Kill(Animal animalToKill)[...] } } This is how I prefer seeing my class files (the collapsed form). I've been doing the collapsing by hand a million times by now and I think there should be a way to automate/customize/extend VS to do it the way I want? Every time I debug/hit a breakpoint, it uncollapses and messes up things. If I collapse via the context menu's collapse to outline etc. it also collapses my comments which isn't desired. Appreciate your help!

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• Jquery animate negative top and back to 0 - starts messing up after 3rd click

  - by Daniel Takyi

  The site in question is this one: http://www.pickmixmagazine.com/wordpress/ When you click on one of the posts (any of the boxes) an iframe will slide down from the top with the content in it. Once the "Home" button in the top left hand corner of the iframe is clicked, the iframe slides back up. This works perfectly the first 2 times, on the 3rd click on of a post, the content will slide down, but when the home button is clicked, the content slides back up normally but once it has slid all the way up to the position it should be in, the iframe drops straight back down to where it was before the home button was clicked, I click it again and then it works. Here is the code I've used for both sliding up and sliding down functions: /* slide down function */ var $div = $('iframe.primary'); var height = $div.height(); var width = parseInt($div.width()); $div.css({ height : height }); $div.css('top', -($div.width())); $('.post').click(function () { $('iframe.primary').load(function(){ $div.animate({ top: 0 }, { duration: 1000 }); }) return false; }); /* slide Up function */ var elm = parent.document.getElementsByTagName('iframe')[0]; var jelm = $(elm);//convert to jQuery Element var htmlElm = jelm[0];//convert to HTML Element $('.homebtn').click(function(){ $(elm).animate({ top: -height }, { duration: 1000 }); return false; })

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• Get type of the parameter from list of objects, templates, C++

  - by CrocodileDundee

  This question follows to my previous question Get type of the parameter, templates, C++ There is the following data structure: Object1.h template <class T> class Object1 { private: T a1; T a2; public: T getA1() {return a1;} typedef T type; }; Object2.h template <class T> class Object2: public Object1 <T> { private: T b1; T b2; public: T getB1() {return b1;} } List.h template <typename Item> struct TList { typedef std::vector <Item> Type; }; template <typename Item> class List { private: typename TList <Item>::Type items; }; Is there any way how to get type T of an object from the list of objects (i.e. Object is not a direct parameter of the function but a template parameter)? template <class Object> void process (List <Object> *objects) { typename Object::type a1 = objects[0].getA1(); // g++ error: 'Object1<double>*' is not a class, struct, or union type } But his construction works (i.e. Object represents a parameter of the function) template <class Object> void process (Object *o1) { typename Object::type a1 = o1.getA1(); // OK }

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• Getting the full-name of the current user, returns an empty string (C#/C++)

  - by Nir

  I try to get the full-name of the current log-in user (Fullname, not username). The following code C#, C++ works fine but on XP computers not connected to the Net, I get empty string as result if I run it ~20 minutes after login (It runs OK whithin the first ~20 minutes after login) A Win32 API (GetUserNameEx) is used rather that PrincipalContext since it PrincipalContext may takes up to 15 seconds when working offline. Any Help why am I getting an empty string as result though a user full name is specified??? - C# Code public static string CurrentUserFullName { get { const int EXTENDED_NAME_FORMAT_NAME_DISPLAY = 3; StringBuilder userName = new StringBuilder(256); uint length = (uint) userName.Capacity; string ret; if (GetUserNameEx(EXTENDED_NAME_FORMAT_NAME_DISPLAY, userName, ref length)) { ret = userName.ToString(); } else { int errorCode = Marshal.GetLastWin32Error(); throw new Win32Exception("GetUserNameEx Failed. Error code - " + errorCode); } return ret; } } [DllImport("Secur32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = true)] private static extern bool GetUserNameEx(int nameFormat, StringBuilder lpNameBuffer, ref uint lpnSize); - Code in C++ #include "stdafx.h" #include <windows.h> #define SECURITY_WIN32 #include <Security.h> #pragma comment( lib, "Secur32.lib" ) int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { char szName[100]; ULONG nChars = sizeof( szName ); if ( GetUserNameEx( NameDisplay, szName, &nChars ) ) { printf( "Name: %s\n", szName); } else { printf( "Failed to GetUserNameEx\n" ); printf( "%d\n", GetLastError() ); } return 0; }

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• Issue with the Entity Manager and phpunit in Symfony 2

  - by rgazelot

  I have an issue with my Entity Manager in phpunit. This is my test : public function testValidChangeEmail() { $client = self::createAuthClient('user','password'); $crawler = $client->request('GET', '/user/edit/30'); $crawler = $client->submit($crawler->selectButton('submit')->form(array( 'form[email]' => '[email protected]', ))); /* * With this em, this work perfectly * $em = $client->getContainer()->get('doctrine.orm.entity_manager'); */ $user = self::$em->getRepository('MyBundle:User')->findUser('[email protected]'); die(var_dump($user->getEmail())); } and this is my WebTestCase which extends original WebTestCase : class WebTestCase extends BaseWebTestCase { static protected $container; static protected $em; static protected function createClient(array $options = array(), array $server = array()) { $client = parent::createClient($options, $server); self::$em = $client->getContainer()->get('doctrine.orm.entity_manager'); self::$container = $client->getContainer(); return $client; } protected function createAuthClient($user, $pass) { return self::createClient(array(), array( 'PHP_AUTH_USER' => $user, 'PHP_AUTH_PW' => $pass, )); } As you can see, I replace the self::$em when I created my client. My issue : In my test, the die() give me the old email and not the new email ([email protected]) which has registered in the test. However in my database, I have the [email protected] correctly saved. When I retrieve my user in the database, I use sefl::$em. If I use the $em in comments, I retrieve the right new email. I don't understand why in my WebTestCase, I can access to the new Entity Manager...

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• Automatically converting an A* into a B*

  - by Xavier Nodet

  Hi, Suppose I'm given a class A. I would like to wrap pointers to it into a small class B, some kind of smart pointer, with the constraint that a B* is automatically converted to an A* so that I don't need to rewrite the code that already uses A*. I would therefore want to modify B so that the following compiles... struct A { void foo() {} }; template <class K> struct B { B(K* k) : _k(k) {} //operator K*() {return _k;} //K* operator->() {return _k;} private: K* _k; }; void doSomething(A*) {} void test() { A a; A* pointer_to_a (&a); B<A> b (pointer_to_a); //b->foo(); // I don't need those two... //doSomething(b); B<A>* pointer_to_b (&b); pointer_to_b->foo(); // 'foo' : is not a member of 'B<K>' doSomething(pointer_to_b); // 'doSomething' : cannot convert parameter 1 from 'B<K> *' to 'A *' } Note that B inheriting from A is not an option (instances of A are created in factories out of my control)... Is it possible? Thanks.

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