Search Results

Search found 25391 results on 1016 pages for 'update notification'.

Page 844/1016 | < Previous Page | 840 841 842 843 844 845 846 847 848 849 850 851  | Next Page >

  • LinqToSQL Double Insert issue

    - by Vaccano
    I have a WCF service with an object structure similar to this: public class MyClass { public List<MySubItem> SubItems { get; set; } } public class MySubItem { public List<MySubSubItem> SubSubItems { get; set; } } public class MySubSubItem { public string DataValue { get; set; } } public class MyClassDAL { public void InsertMyClass(MyClass myClass) { ctx.MyClasses.InsertOnSubmit(myClass); ctx.SubmitChanges(); } } Sometimes my client will call in with a MyClass that submits only half of the values that it has in the list SubSubItems. Later it calls the insert with the rest of the list. The problem is that when it does this I get a Primary Key violation. The reason is that it is trying to insert the MySubItem again (because there are more items in the SubSubItems owned by the same MySubItem object). How do I deal with this? Do I just call an Update? Do I have to try to separate them out (updates from inserts)? SQL Server 2008 has a really cool Merge functionally. Is there some way to access that from LinqToSQL?

    Read the article

  • How Do I make a simple .htaccess internal redirect Catch All script while forwarding POST data?

    - by RB
    I just want to catch all requests and forward them internally to my catchall page with all POST data intact Catch all page: http://www.mydomain.com/addons/redirect/catch-all.php I've tried so many combinations, but my server doesn't want to redirect internally if I specify more than catch-all.php # Internally redirect all pages to "Catch" page Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteRule (.*) /addons/redirect/catch-all.php [L] Also, do I need [L] or is it useless for internal redirects? Then, what php code would I use to grab the POST data, use it, and finally PHP redirect the page to the originally requested page Would it be done just as normal by using $_POST['variable_name']; or something different? Then, how would I go about calling the originally requested page, so I can tell PHP to header location direct them to that page? Thanks! UPDATE: Ha sick, nevermind. The condition DOES work. Here's my code: # Internally redirect all pages to "Catch" page Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/robots.txt$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !\.(gif¦jpe?g¦png¦css¦js¦pdf¦doc¦xml)$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/addons/redirect/catch-all\.php$ RewriteRule (.*)$ /addons/redirect/catch-all.php?q=$1 [L] Thanks guys for the inspiration! Now time to get that PHP to work...

    Read the article

  • How to use a viewstate'd object as a datasource for controls on a user control

    - by user557325
    I've got a listview on a control. Each row comprises a checkbox and another listview. The outer listview is bound to a property on the control (via a method call, can't set a property as a SelectMethod on an ObjectDataSource it would appear) which is lazy loaded suchly: Public ReadOnly Property ProductLineChargeDetails() As List(Of WebServiceProductLineChargeDetail) Get If ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails") Is Nothing Then ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails") = GetWebServiceProductLineChargeDetails() End If Return DirectCast(ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails"), Global.System.Collections.Generic.List(Of Global.MI.Open.WebServiceProductLineChargeDetail)) End Get End Property The shape of the object referenced by the data source is something like this: (psuedocode) Product { bool Licenced; List<Charge> charges; } Charge { int property1; string property2; bool property3 . . . } The reason for the use of viewstate is this: When an one of the checkboxes on one of the outer list view rows is checked or unchecked I want to modify the object that the ODS represents (for example I'll add a couple of Charge objects to the relevant Product object) and then rebind. The problem I'm getting is that after every postback (specifically after checking or unchecking one of the rows' checkbox) my viewstate is empty. Thiss means that any changes I make to my viewstate'd object is lost. Now, I've worked out (after much googling and reading, amongst many others, Scott Mitchel's excellent bit on ViewState) that during initial databinding IsTrackingViewState is set to false. That means, I think, that assigning the return from GetWebServiceProductLineChargeDetails() to the ViewState item in my Property Get during the initial databind won't work. Mind you, even when the IsTrackingViewState is true and I call the Property Get, come the next postback, the viewstate is empty. So do you chaps have any ideas on how I keep the object referenced by the ObjectDataSource in ViewState between postbacks and update it and get those changes to stay in ViewState? This has been going on for a couple of days now and I'm getting fed up! Cheers in advance Steve

    Read the article

  • Should I store generated code in source control

    - by Ron Harlev
    This is a debate I'm taking a part in. I would like to get more opinions and points of view. We have some classes that are generated in build time to handle DB operations (in This specific case, with SubSonic, but I don't think it is very important for the question). The generation is set as a pre-build step in Visual Studio. So every time a developer (or the official build process) runs a build, these classes are generated, and then compiled into the project. Now some people are claiming, that having these classes saved in source control could cause confusion, in case the code you get, doesn't match what would have been generated in your own environment. I would like to have a way to trace back the history of the code, even if it is usually treated as a black box. Any arguments or counter arguments? UPDATE: I asked this question since I really believed there is one definitive answer. Looking at all the responses, I could say with high level of certainty, that there is no such answer. The decision should be made based on more than one parameter. Reading the answers below could provide a very good guideline to the types of questions you should be asking yourself when having to decide on this issue. I won't select an accepted answer at this point for the reasons mentioned above.

    Read the article

  • Linq to SQL Problem System.Data.Linq.IdentityManager.StandardIdentityManager.MultiKeyManager

    - by luckyluke
    I have a really tricky thing going up here. My project has around 100 tables and they are all mapped by LINQ. Everything works fine in a dev and test environment. These enviroments are MS Win 2008 r2 servers with SQL 2008 sp1 databases. IIS and SQL are on a different machines. Now on production enviroment which is MS Win 2003 x64 web farm + geoclustered SQL 2008 IT DOES not work. All I get is the exception System.IndexOutOfRangeException: Index was outside the bounds of the array. at System.Data.Linq.IdentityManager.StandardIdentityManager.MultiKeyManager3.TryCreateKeyFr>om Values(Object[] values, MultiKey& k) at System.Data.Linq.IdentityManager.StandardIdentityManager.IdentityCache2.Find(Object[] keyValues) at System.Data.Linq.ChangeProcessor.GetOtherItem(MetaAssociation assoc, Object instance) at System.Data.Linq.ChangeProcessor.BuildEdgeMaps() at System.Data.Linq.ChangeProcessor.SubmitChanges(ConflictMode failureMode) at System.Data.Linq.DataContext.SubmitChanges(ConflictMode failureMode) at ERS.IIMP.Services.ExposuresSrv.Update(Int32 ExpID, Int32 AssID) Services\ExposuresSrv.cs` My question is What the hell. They have precisely the same DBML, the DB has exactly THE SAME structure (when I get the DB from prod to TEST and mount it eveything works just great), the binaries on the WEB Server are the same. I seriously do not know what to do.... Did anyone found that Linq works on one env and does not on the second?? I mam really lost here. I really hope You can help me:)

    Read the article

  • Banning by IP with php/mysql

    - by incrediman
    I want to be able to ban users by IP. My idea is to keep a list of IP's as rows in an BannedIPs table (the IP column would be an index). To check users' IP's against the table, I will keep a session variable called $_SESSION['IP'] for each session. If on any request, $_SESSION['IP'] doesn't match $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR'], I will update $_SESSION['IP'] and check the BannedIPs table to see if the IP is banned. (A flag will also be saved as a session variable specifying whether or not the user is banned) Here are the things I'm wondering: Does that sound like a good strategy with regards to speed and security (would someone be able to get around the IP ban somehow, other than changing IP's)? What's the best way to structure a mysql query that checks to see if a row exists? That is, what's the best way to query the db to see if a row with a certain IP exists (to check if it's banned)? Should I save the IP's as integers or strings? Note that... I estimate there will be between 1,000-10,000 banned IP's stored in the database. $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR'] is the IP from which the current request was sent.

    Read the article

  • PHP IF condition advise needed

    - by Jose David Garcia Llanos
    I'm using emails as username to login into a site being developed, now if a user updates their email from the profile page, how can i make sure that my email checking statement doesnt catch the user's email as already registered in the database. the page /* Now we will store the values submitted by form in variable */ $fullname=$_POST['fullname']; $dob=$_POST['dob']; $address=$_POST['address']; $myusername=$_POST['myusername']; $telephone=$_POST['telephone']; $queryuser=mysql_query("SELECT * FROM customer WHERE email='$myusername' "); $checkuser=mysql_num_rows($queryuser); if($checkuser != 0) { $Merr[]='&raquo; Sorry this email is already registered!'; } else {$insert_user=mysql_query("UPDATE CUSTOMER SET SYNTAX HERE"); Now these are the fields in question; (name, dob, address, email, telephone) VALUES ('$fullname', '$dob', '$address', '$myusername', '$telephone') As you can see if the user changes the login email then the syntax checks for the email being submitted against the database, however if the user leaves the email unchanged he will get the error because it is found in the database. I was thinking of something like; if($checkuser != 0) { if($myusername == $_POST['myusername']) (...dont show error.) but my php skills are limited. can anyone advise please, thanks

    Read the article

  • Choosing an installer product that is free and will download/install the .NET Framework

    - by Coder7862396
    I'm currently using the Visual Studio Installer (Setup Project) in Visual Studio 2010 as the installer for MyProgram. It has some quirky bugs and is not very customizable so I would like to switch to another installer product. Here are my requirements: Must be free (and licensed for commercial use) Must install the Windows Installer 3.1 and .NET Framework 4.0 if the client doesn't have them The installer will download them if they are not available The code for detecting the .NET Framework and downloading it must be written by Microsoft (I do not want to have to update hard-coded URLs and registry keys in the future). I know that the Windows SDK includes a setup bootstrap that does this (C:\Program Files\Microsoft SDKs\Windows\v7.0A\Bootstrapper) In the future, when .NET Framework 5 is released and MyProgram uses it, no installer code will need to be changed, the updated installer product should see that MyProgram now uses the .NET Framework version 5 and will install that Here are my current choices: Visual Studio Installer: Automatically detects/downloads/installs Windows Installer and .NET Framework using a bootstrapper Setup.exe (Good!) Limited/buggy functionality (Uninstall shortcuts in the Start Menu cause empty folders to be left behind during uninstall, asking the user if they want a desktop shortcut requires a lot of work, etc.) NSIS: Doesn't natively support the .NET Framework so adding it as a prerequisite requires excessive coding, hardcoded URLS, etc. Inno Setup: Doesn't natively support the .NET Framework so adding it as a prerequisite requires excessive coding, hardcoded URLs, etc. WiX: Steep learning curve... not sure if I want to spend weeks learning it only to find out that it has the same uninstall problem as the Visual Studio Installer (because they both use MSI files) InstallShield LE 2010: Downloading it requires me to setup a fake email account to register just to download it. Then once it is installed it has to contact the company's servers and transmit some private information to them before I'm even allowed to try the free version. This is the most insidious form of DRM that there is and I will not accept it.

    Read the article

  • How can I store HTML in a Doctrine YML fixture

    - by argibson
    I am working with a CMS-type site in Symfony 1.4 (Doctrine 1.2) and one of the things that is frustrating me is not being able to store HTML pages in YML fixtures. Instead I have to create SQL backups of the data if I want to drop and rebuild which is a bit of a pest when Symfony/Doctrine has a fantastic mechanism for doing exactly this. I could write a mechanism that reads in a set of HTML files for each page and fills the data in that way (or even write it as a task). But before I go down that road I am wondering if there is any way for HTML to be stored in a YML fixture so that Doctrine can simply import it into the database. Update: I have tried using symfony doctrine:data-dump and symfony doctrine:data-load however despite the dump correctly creating the fixture with the HTML, the load task appears to 'skip' the value of the column with the HTML and enters everything else into the row. In the database the field doesn't show up as 'NULL' but rather empty so I believe Doctrine is adding the value of the column as ''. Below is a sample of the YML fixture that symfony doctrine:data-dump created. I have tried running symfony doctrine:data-load against various forms of this including removing all the escaped characters (new lines and quotes leaving only angle brackets) but it still doesn't work. Product_69: name: 'My Product' Developer: Developer_30 tagline: 'Text that briefly describes the product' version: '2008' first_published: '' price_code: A79 summary: '' box_image: '' description: "<div id=\"featureSlider\">\n <ul class=\"slider\">\n <li class=\"sliderItem\" title=\"Summary\">\n <div class=\"feature\">\n Some text goes in here</div>\n </li>\n </ul>\n </div>\n" is_visible: true

    Read the article

  • AsyncPostBackTrigger disables buttons...

    - by afsharm
    I've a simple UpdatePanel and a button outside of it. I've introduced the button as an AsyncPostBackTrigger in the UpdatePanel. UpdatePanel itself works fine but the button does not. Whenever the button is clicked, its click handler does not run just like the button is not clicked at all! Why the button is not working and how can it be fixed? UPDATE: here is the markup: <asp:UpdatePanel ID="upGridView" runat="server" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:GridView ID="grdList" SkinID="SimpleGridView" DataKeyNames="Key" runat="server" AllowPaging="True" PageSize="15" AutoGenerateColumns="False" Caption="<%$ Resources: CommonResources, grdListCaption %>" EmptyDataText="<%$ Resources: CommonResources, grdListEmptyDataText %>" OnRowEditing="grdList_RowEditing" OnPageIndexChanging="grdList_PageIndexChanging" OnRowCreated="grdList_RowCreated"> <Columns> </Columns> </asp:GridView> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="btnDelete" EventName="Click" /> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="btnNew" EventName="Click" /> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="btnForward" EventName="Click" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> <asp:Button ID="btnDelete" runat="server" SkinID="Button" Text="<%$ Resources: CommonResources, btnDelete %>" OnClick="btnDelete_Click" /> <asp:Button ID="btnNew" runat="server" SkinID="Button" Text="<%$ Resources: CommonResources, btnNew %>" OnClick="btnNew_Click" /> <asp:Button ID="btnForward" runat="server" SkinID="Button" meta:resourcekey="btnForward" OnClick="btnForward_Click" />

    Read the article

  • Mode specific key bindings

    - by rejeep
    Hey, I have a minor mode that also comes with a global mode. The mode have some key bindings and I want the user to have the posibility to specify what bindings should work for each mode. (my-minor-mode-bindings-for-mode 'some-mode '(key1 key2 ...)) (my-minor-mode-bindings-for-mode 'some-other-mode '(key3 key4 ...)) So I need some kind of mode/buffer-local key map. Buffer local is a bit problematic since the user can change the major mode. I have tried some solutions of which neither works any good. Bind all possible keys always and when the user types the key, check if the key should be active in that mode. Execute action if true, otherwise fall back. Like the previous case only that no keys are bound. Instead I use a pre command hook and check if the key pressed should do anything. For each buffer update (whatever that means), run a function that first clears the key map and then updates it with the bindings for that particular mode. I have tried these approaches and I found problems with all of them. Do you know of any good way to solve this? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Java Error beeping

    - by user1281385
    Im working on a Chat client that i didnt write the bulk of the code for. It works fine however when someone sends a message it beeps (system error beep) when using Java 7. Java 6 and below doesn't have this beep. I cant seem to find whats causing the beep is there any way to find it ? I dont think its calling beep as i have public class nobeep extends sun.awt.windows.WToolkit { @Override public void beep() { System.out.println("tried to beep"); new Exception().printStackTrace(); } } and then called System.setProperty("awt.toolkit", "nobeep"); in the main method. Using the method to send a beep doesnt make it beep. Its only when sent normally. Is there a quick way to track down the cause of the beep ? Edit: After looking in the bugs database - its confirmed. http://bugs.sun.com/bugdatabase/view_bug.do?bug_id=7194469 I know it says no work around but is there one (java not c++) or just wait until update 8 ?

    Read the article

  • Delphi - OnKeyPress occurs before TStringGrid updates cell with new character

    - by JMTyler
    Coding in Delphi, attaching an OnKeyPress event handler to a TStringGrid: The OnKeyPress event fires before the grid cell that the user is typing into has actually updated its value with the key that has been pressed. This is obviously a problem, when I want to know what the contents of that cell are at this moment, as in, as the user modifies it. The "hacked" solution is simple, if you're not considering every detail: just grab the value from the cell and, since the OnKeyPress event comes along with a Key parameter, append that value to the end - now you have the current value of the cell! False. What if the user has selected all the text in the cell (ie: "foo") and they are now typing 'b'. Since they selected the text, it will be erased and replaced with the letter 'b'. However, the value of the cell will still display as "foo" in OnKeyPress, and the value of Key will be 'b', so the above logic would lead the application to conclude that the cell now contains "foob", which we know is not true. So. Does anybody know how to get around this problem? Is there a way to make OnKeyPress react after the grid's contents have been updated, or perhaps a way to force an update at the start of the handler? I am desperately avoiding the use of the OnKeyUp event here, so any suggestions aside from that would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Vim with Powershell

    - by Kevin Berridge
    I'm using gvim on Windows. In my _vimrc I've added: set shell=powershell.exe set shellcmdflag=-c set shellpipe=> set shellredir=> function! Test() echo system("dir -name") endfunction command! -nargs=0 Test :call Test() If I execute this function (:Test) I see nonsense characters (non number/letter ASCII characters). If I use cmd as the shell, it works (without the -name), so the problem seems to be with getting output from powershell into vim. Interestingly, this works great: :!dir -name As does this: :r !dir -name UPDATE: confirming behavior mentioned by David If you execute the set commands mentioned above in the _vimrc, :Test outputs nonsense. However, if you execute them directly in vim instead of in the _vimrc, :Test works as expected. Also, I've tried using iconv in case it was an encoding problem: :echo iconv( system("dir -name"), "unicode", &enc ) But this didn't make any difference. I could be using the wrong encoding types though. Anyone know how to make this work?

    Read the article

  • PLKs and Web Service Software Factory

    - by Nix
    We found a bug in Web Service Software Factory a description can be found here. There has been no updates on it so we decided to download the code and fix it ourself. Very simple bug and we patched it with maybe 3 lines of code. However* we have now tried to repackage it and use it and are finding that this is seemingly an impossible process. Can someone please explain to me the process of PLKs? I have read all about them but still don't understand what is really required to distribute a VS package. I was able to get it to load and run using a PLK obtained from here, but i am assuming that you have to be a partner to get a functional PLK that will be recognized on other peoples systems? Every time i try and install this on a different computer I get a "Package Load Failure". Is the reason I am getting errors because I am not using a partner key? Is there any other way around this? For instance is there any way we can have an "internal" VS package that we can distribute? Edit Files I had to change to get it to work. First run devenv PostInstall.proj Generate your plks and replace ##Package PLK## (.resx files) --Just note that package version is not the class name but is "Web Service Software Factory: Modeling Edition" -- And you need to remove the new lines from the key ProductDefinitionRegistryFragment.wxi line 1252(update version to whatever version you used in plk) Uncomment all // [VSShell::ProvideLoadKey("Standard", Constant in .tt files.

    Read the article

  • Overriding deep functions in javascript

    - by PintSizedCat
    I'm quite new to javascript but have undertaken a task to get better aquainted with it. However, I am running into some problems with jQuery. The following javascript is the code that is in a third party jQuery plugin and I would love to be able to override the funFunction() function here to do my own implementation. Is this possible, if so, how can I do it? I've been doing a fair amount of searching and have tried a number of methods for overriding the function using things like: jQuery.blah.funFunction = funtion() { alert("like this"); }; Main code: (function($) { $.extend( { blah: new function() { this.construct = = function(settings) { //Construct... stuff }; function funFunction() { //Function I want to override } } }); })(jQuery); For those further interested I am trying to override tablesorter so that the only way a user can sort a column is in ascending order only. Edit: There is a wordpress installation that uses WP-Table-Reloaded which in turn uses this plugin. I don't want to change the core code for this plugin because if there was ever an update I would then have to make sure that my predecessor knew exactly what I had done. I've been programming for a long time and feel like I should easily be able to pick up javascript whilst also looking at jQuery. I know exactly what I need to do for this, just not how I can override this function.

    Read the article

  • How to migrate project from RCS to git? (SOLVED)

    - by Norman Ramsey
    I have a 20-year-old project that I would like to migrate from RCS to git, without losing the history. All web pages suggest that the One True Path is through CVS. But after an hour of Googling and trying different scripts, I have yet to find anything that successfully converts my RCS project tree to CVS. I'm hoping the good people at Stackoverflow will know what actually works, as opposed to what is claimed to work and doesn't. (I searched Stackoverflow using both the native SO search and a Google search, but if there's a helpful answer in the database, I missed it.) UPDATE: The rcs-fast-export tool at http://git.oblomov.eu/rcs-fast-export was repaired on 14 April 2009, and this version seems to work for me. This tool converts straight to git with no intermediate CVS. Thanks Giuseppe and Jakub!!! Things that did not work that I still remember: The rcs-to-cvs script that ships in the contrib directory of the CVS sources The rcs-fast-export tool at http://git.oblomov.eu/rcs-fast-export in versions before 13 April 2010 The rcs2cvs script found in a document called "CVS-RCS- HOW-TO Document for Linux"

    Read the article

  • Database INSERT does not take place

    - by reggie
    My code is as follows: <?php include("config.php"); $ip=$_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']; if($_POST['id']) { $id=$_POST['id']; $id = mysql_escape_String($id); $ip_sql=mysql_query("select ip_add from Voting_IP where mes_id_fk='$id' and ip_add='$ip'"); $count=mysql_num_rows($ip_sql); if($count==0) { $sql = "update Messages set up=up+1 where mes_id='$id'"; mysql_query($sql); $sql_in = "insert into Voting_IP (mes_id_fk,ip_add) values ('$id','$ip')"; mysql_query($sql_in) or die(mysql_error()); echo "<script>alert('Thanks for the vote');</script>"; } else { echo "<script>alert('You have already voted');</script>"; } $result=mysql_query("select up from Messages where mes_id='$id'"); $row=mysql_fetch_array($result); $up_value=$row['up']; echo "<img src='button.png' width='110' height='90'>"; echo $up_value; } ?> My problem is that the insert process does not take place at all. The script tags echos an alert box. Even the img tag is echoed to the web page. But the insert process does not take place. The config file is fine. Note: This code works on my local machine which has PHP 5.3 but it does not work on the server which has PHP 5.2. Any advice?

    Read the article

  • New Perl user: using a hash of arrays

    - by Zach H
    I'm doing a little datamining project where a perl script grabs info from a SQL database and parses it. The data consists of several timestamps. I want to find how many of a particular type of timestamp exist on any particular day. Unfortunately, this is my first perl script, and the nature of perl when it comes to hashes and arrays is confusing me quite a bit. Code segment: my %values=();#A hash of the total values of each type of data of each day. #The key is the day, and each key stores an array of each of the values I need. my @proposal; #[drafted timestamp(0), submitted timestamp(1), attny approved timestamp(2),Organiziation approved timestamp(3), Other approval timestamp(4), Approved Timestamp(5)] while(@proposal=$sqlresults->fetchrow_array()){ #TODO: check to make sure proposal is valid #Increment the number of timestamps of each type on each particular date my $i; for($i=0;$i<=5;$i++) $values{$proposal[$i]}[$i]++; #Update rolling average of daily #TODO: To check total load, increment total load on all dates between attourney approve date and accepted date for($i=$proposal[1];$i<=$proposal[2];$i++) $values{$i}[6]++; } I keep getting syntax errors inside the for loops incrementing values. Also, considering that I'm using strict and warnings, will Perl auto-create arrays of the right values when I'm accessing them inside the hash, or will I get out-of bounds errors everywhere? Thanks for any help, Zach

    Read the article

  • SQL Server - Multi-Column substring matching

    - by hamlin11
    One of my clients is hooked on multi-column substring matching. I understand that Contains and FreeText search for words (and at least in the case of Contains, word prefixes). However, based upon my understanding of this MSDN book, neither of these nor their variants are capable of searching substrings. I have used LIKE rather extensively (Select * from A where A.B Like '%substr%') Sample table A: ID | Col1 | Col2 | Col3 | ------------------------------------- 1 | oklahoma | colorado | Utah | 2 | arkansas | colorado | oklahoma | 3 | florida | michigan | florida | ------------------------------------- The following code will give us row 1 and row 2: select * from A where Col1 like '%klah%' or Col2 like '%klah%' or Col3 like '%klah%' This is rather ugly, probably slow, and I just don't like it very much. Probably because the implementations that I'm dealing with have 10+ columns that need searched. The following may be a slight improvement as code readability goes, but as far as performance, we're still in the same ball park. select * from A where (Col1 + ' ' + Col2 + ' ' + Col3) like '%klah%' I have thought about simply adding insert, update, and delete triggers that simply add the concatenated version of the above columns into a separate table that shadows this table. Sample Shadow_Table: ID | searchtext | --------------------------------- 1 | oklahoma colorado Utah | 2 | arkansas colorado oklahoma | 3 | florida michigan florida | --------------------------------- This would allow us to perform the following query to search for '%klah%' select * from Shadow_Table where searchtext like '%klah%' I really don't like having to remember that this shadow table exists and that I'm supposed to use it when I am performing multi-column substring matching, but it probably yields pretty quick reads at the expense of write and storage space. My gut feeling tells me there there is an existing solution built into SQL Server 2008. However, I don't seem to be able to find anything other than research papers on the subject. Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Starting one BlackBerry screen from another.

    - by DanG
    I've recently run into a snag while putting on the finishing touches for my BlackBerry app. I'm building a login screen which, if the user is successful in logging in, goes to a data loading screen, and then to a home screen. From the home screen, you can use the app. Everything works great but one thing, I can't seamlessly move from the login screen to the loading screen, to the home screen. I can move from the login screen to the loading screen ok, because I'm doing that via a button click which is on the GUI thread, but then I have the login screen at the bottom of the stack and can't get it out using the dismiss method. Once in the loading screen, I can't push the home screen because I'm not doing it via the gui method, though I'm able to update the GUI via the following piece of code: private void checkData(){ Timer loadingTimer = new Timer(); TimerTask loadingTask = new TimerTask() { public void run() { // set the progress bar progressGaugeField.setValue(DataManager.getDataLoaded()); // for repainting the screen invalidate(); } }; loadingTimer.scheduleAtFixedRate(loadingTask, 500, 500); } Does anyone know how to solve my problem of moving seamlessly from the login screen to the loading screen to the home screen? Note: once I'm at the home screen I'd like to have it be the only screen on the stack. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Question about mixing MEF and Unity

    - by Dave
    I'm finally diving into Unity head first, and have run into my first real problem. I've been gradually changing some things in my app from being MEF-resolved to Unity-resolved. Everything went fine on the application side, but then I realized that my plugins were not being loaded. I started to look into this issue, and I believe it's a case where MEF and Unity don't mix. Plugins are loaded by MEF, but each plugin needs to get access to the shared libraries in my application, like app preferences, logging, etc. Initially, my plugin constructor had the ImportingConstructor attribute. I then replaced it with InjectionConstructor so that Unity could resolve its shared library dependencies. But because I did that, MEF no longer loaded it! Then I used both attributes, which compiled, but then I got a composition error (MEF). I figured that this was because the constructor takes a parameter that was once resolved by a MEF Import, so I removed all parameters. As expected, now MEF was able to load my plugin, but because the constructor needs to call into the interface that was once passed in, construction fails. So now I'm at a point where I can get MEF to start to load my plugin, but can't do anything with it because the plugin relies on shared libraries that are registered with Unity. For those of you that have successfully mixed MEF and Unity, how do you go about resolving the references to the shared libraries with Unity? It seems like a catch-22, where in order to have Unity work with the plugin, I'd have to create the plugin via Resolve, but then it's impossible to use MEF. UPDATE I can work around this problem by using an ImportingConstructor for the plugin that takes an IUnityContainer, and then call Resolve for each interface that I need, but although it works, it is incredibly lame to do it this way, as this would require all plugin authors to remember to save a reference to the passed in IUnityContainer...

    Read the article

  • Lua task scheduling

    - by Martin
    I've been writing some scripts for a game, the scripts are written in Lua. One of the requirements the game has is that the Update method in your lua script (which is called every frame) may take no longer than about 2-3 milliseconds to run, if it does the game just hangs. I solved this problem with coroutines, all I have to do is call Multitasking.RunTask(SomeFunction) and then the task runs as a coroutine, I then have to scatter Multitasking.Yield() throughout my code, which checks how long the task has been running for, and if it's over 2 ms it pauses the task and resumes it next frame. This is ok, except that I have to scatter Multitasking.Yield() everywhere throughout my code, and it's a real mess. Ideally, my code would automatically yield when it's been running too long. So, Is it possible to take a Lua function as an argument, and then execute it line by line (maybe interpreting Lua inside Lua, which I know is possible, but I doubt it's possible if all you have is a function pointer)? In this way I could automatically check the runtime and yield if necessary between every single line.

    Read the article

  • Locking issues with replacing files on a website

    - by Moe Sisko
    I want to replace existing files on an IIS website with updated versions. Say these files are large pdf documents, which can be accessed via hyperlinks. The site is up 24x7, so I'm concerned about locking issues when a file is being updated at exactly the same time that someone is trying to read the file. The files are updated using C# code run on the server. I can think of two options for opening the file for writing. Option 1) Open the file for writing, using FileShare.Read : using (FileStream stream = new FileStream(path, FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write, FileShare.Read)) While this file is open, and a user requests the same file for reading in a web browser via a hyperlink, the document opens up as a blank page. Option 2) Open the file for writing using FileShare.None : using (FileStream stream = new FileStream(path, FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write, FileShare.None)) While this file is open, and a user requests the same file for reading in a web browser via a hyperlink, the browser shows an error. In IE 8, you get HTTP 500, "The website cannot display the page", and in Firefox 3.5, you get : "The process cannot access the file because it is being used by another process." The browser behaviour kind of makes sense, and seem reasonable. I guess its highly unlikely that a user will attempt to read a file at exactly the same time you are updating it. It would be nice if somehow, the file update was atomic, like updating a database with SQL wrapped around a transaction. I'm wondering if you guys worry about this sort of thing, and prefer either of the above options, or even have other options of your own for updating files.

    Read the article

  • Exporting/Importing events to Outlook 2007 calendar - problem

    - by iandisme
    I work on a web app that involves scheduling. A user can view his schedule, and then download a meeting request file for a particular event. In Outlook 2003, simply opening this event would cause a meeting request to pop up and the user could accept, which would either add or update the event in their calendar. However, in Outlook 2007, the meeting request Accept function is disabled, and the reason given is that the user is the organizer and can't accept his own event request. The ICS file clearly shows that this is not the case. Has anyone experienced this same problem? Does anyone know how to work around it? (Using Outlook's import function is scarcely an option because it causes duplicate events to be created; the import function doesn't seem to care that the events have the same UID) Here is the ICS file: BEGIN:VCALENDAR PRODID:#{my app} VERSION:2.0 CALSCALE:GREGORIAN METHOD:REQUEST BEGIN:VEVENT DTSTAMP:20100324T150236Z UID:eeb639a1-f8e5-4eab-ab3c-232ad91364c6 SEQUENCE:2 ORGANIZER:#{myApp}.#{myDomain}.com DESCRIPTION: DTSTART;TZID=Europe/London:20110620T120010 DTEND;TZID=Europe/London:20110620T133010 SUMMARY:BREAK:Breakfast LOCATION:Room 101 END:VEVENT BEGIN:VTIMEZONE //Timezone info edited for brevity END:VTIMEZONE END:VCALENDAR

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 840 841 842 843 844 845 846 847 848 849 850 851  | Next Page >