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  • Hotfixing Code running inside Web Container with Groovy

    - by raoulsson
    I have a webapp running that has a bug. I know how to fix it in the sources. However I cannot redeploy the app as I would have to take it offline to do so. (At least not right now). I now want to fix the code "at runtime". Surgery on the living object, so to speak. The app is implemented in Java and is build on top of Seam. I have added a Groovy Console to the app previous to the last release. (A way to run arbitrary code at runtime) The normal way of adding behaviour to a class with Groovy would be similar to this: String.metaClass.foo= { x -> x * x } println "anything".foo(3) This code added the method foo to java.lang.String and prints 9. I can do the same thing with classes running inside my webapp container. New instances will thereafter show the same behaviour: com.my.package.SomeService.metaClass.foo= { x -> x * x } def someService = new com.my.package.SomeService() println someService.foo(3) Works as excpected. All good so far. My problem is now that the container, the web framework, Seam in this case, has already instantiated and cached the classes that I would like to manipulate (that is change their behaviour to reflect my bug fix). Ideally this code would work: com.my.package.SomeService.metaClass.foo= { x -> x * x } def x = org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(com.my.package.SomeService) println x.foo(3) However the instantiation of SomeService has already happened and there is no effect. Thus I need a way to make my changes "sticky". Has the groovy magic gone after my script has been run? Well, after logging out and in again, I can run this piece of code and get the expected result: def someService = new com.my.package.SomeService() println someService.foo(3) So the foo method is still around and it looks like my change has been permanent... So I guess the question that remains is how to force Seam to re-instantiate all its components and/or how to permanently make the change on all living instances...?

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  • php MySQL snytax error

    - by Jacksta
    my scrip is supposed to look up contacts in a table and present thm on the screen to then be edited. however this is not this case. I am getting the error Parse error: syntax error, unexpected $end in /home/admin/domains/domain.com.au/public_html/pick_modcontact.php on line 50 NOTE: this is the last line in this script. <? session_start(); if ($_SESSION[valid] != "yes") { header( "Location: contact_menu.php"); exit; } $db_name = "testDB"; $table_name = "my_contacts"; $connection = @mysql_connect("localhost", "user", "pass") or die(mysql_error()); $db = @mysql_select_db($db_name, $connection) or die(mysql_error()); $sql = "SELECT id, f_name, l_name FROM $table_name ORDER BY f_name"; $result = @mysql_query($sql, $connection) or die(mysql_error()); $num = @mysql_num_rows($result); if ($num < 1) { $display_block = "<p><em>Sorry No Results!</em></p>"; } else { while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $id = $row['id']; $f_name = $row['f_name']; $l_name = $row['l_name']; $option_block .= "<option value\"$id\">$l_name, $f_name</option>"; } $display_block = "<form method=\"POST\" action=\"show_modcontact.php\"> <p><strong>Contact:</strong> <select name=\"id\">$option_block</select> <input type=\"submit\" name=\"submit\" value=\"Select This Contact\"></p> </form>"; ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Modify A Contact</title> </head> <body> <h1>My Contact Management System</h1> <h2><em>Modify a Contact</em></h2> <p>Select a contact from the list below, to modify the contact's record.</p> <? echo "$display_block"; ?> <br> <p><a href="contact_menu.php">Return to Main Menu</a></p> </body> </html>

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  • XSL transformation and special XML entities escaping

    - by Tomas R
    I have an XML file which is transformed with XSL. Some elements have to be changed, some have to be left as is - specifically, text with entities &quot;, &amp;, &apos;, &lt;, &gt; should be left as is, and in my case &quot; and &apos; are changed to " and ' accordingly. Test XML: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <root> <element> &quot; &amp; &apos; &lt; &gt; </element> </root> transformation file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" version="1.0"> <xsl:output method="xml" encoding="UTF-8" omit-xml-declaration="no" indent="no" /> <xsl:template match="element"> <xsl:copy> <xsl:value-of disable-output-escaping="no" select="." /> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> result: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <element> " &amp; ' &lt; &gt; </element> desired result: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <element> &quot; &amp; &apos; &lt; &gt; </element> I have 2 questions: why does some of those entities are transformed and other not? how can I get a desired result?

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  • Is there anyway to exclude artifacts inherited from a parent POM?

    - by Miguel
    Artifacts from dependencies can be excluded by declaring an <exclusions> element inside a <dependency> But in this case it's needed to exclude an artifact inherited from a parent project. An excerpt of the POM under discussion follows: <project> <modelVersion>4.0.0</modelVersion> <groupId>test</groupId> <artifactId>jruby</artifactId> <version>0.0.1-SNAPSHOT</version> <parent> <artifactId>base</artifactId> <groupId>es.uniovi.innova</groupId> <version>1.0.0</version> </parent> <dependencies> <dependency> <groupId>com.liferay.portal</groupId> <artifactId>ALL-DEPS</artifactId> <version>1.0</version> <scope>provided</scope> <type>pom</type> </dependency> </dependencies> </project> base artifact, depends on javax.mail:mail-1.4.jar, and ALL-DEPS depends on another version of the same library. Due to the fact that mail.jar from ALL-DEPS exist on the execution environment, although not exported, collides with the mail.jar that exists on the parent, which is scoped as compile. A solution could be to rid off mail.jar from the parent POM, but most of the projects that inherit base, need it (as is a transtive dependency for log4j). So What I would like to do is to simply exclude parent's library from the child project, as it could be done if base was a dependency and not the parent pom: ... <dependency> <artifactId>base</artifactId> <groupId>es.uniovi.innova</groupId> <version>1.0.0</version> <type>pom<type> <exclusions> <exclusion> <groupId>javax.mail</groupId> <artifactId>mail</artifactId> </exclusion> </exclusions> </dependency> ...

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  • How to configure Jetty to reload a WebAppContext when classes are changed

    - by Guss
    I'm developing a web application and I run Jetty as the development and testing environment when I develop under Eclipse. When I make changes to Java classes, Eclipse automatically compiles them to the build directory, but Jetty won't see the changes until I stop and start the server. I know that Jetty supports "hot deployment" using ContextDeployer that will refresh updated application contexts, but it relies on a context file in a context directory being updated - which is not very useful in my case. Is there a way to set up Jetty so that it will reload the web app when any of the classes it uses is updated? My current jetty.xml looks something like this: <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE Configure PUBLIC "-//Jetty//Configure//EN" "http://www.eclipse.org/jetty/configure.dtd"> <Configure id="Server" class="org.eclipse.jetty.server.Server"> <Set name="ThreadPool"><!-- bla bla --></Set> <Call name="addConnector"><!-- bla bla --></Call> <Set name="handler"> <New id="Handlers" class="org.eclipse.jetty.server.handler.HandlerCollection"> <Set name="handlers"> <Array type="org.eclipse.jetty.server.Handler"> <Item> <New id="webapp" class="org.eclipse.jetty.webapp.WebAppContext"> <Set name="displayName">My Web App</Set> <Set name="resourceBase">src/main/webapp</Set> <Set name="descriptor">src/main/webapp/WEB-INF/web.xml</Set> <Set name="contextPath">/mywebapp</Set> </New> </Item> <Item> <New id="DefaultHandler" class="org.eclipse.jetty.server.handler.DefaultHandler"/> </Item> </Array> </Set> </New> </Set> </Configure>

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  • Windows splash screen using GDI+

    - by Luther
    The eventual aim of this is to have a splash screen in windows that uses transparency but that's not what I'm stuck on at the moment. In order to create a transparent window, I'm first trying to composite the splash screen and text on an off screen buffer using GDI+. At the moment I'm just trying to composite the buffer and display it in response to a 'WM_PAINT' message. This isn't working out at the moment; all I see is a black window. I imagine I've misunderstood something with regards to setting up render targets in GDI+ and then rendering them (I'm trying to render the screen using straight forward GDI blit) Anyway, here's the code so far: //my window initialisation code void MyWindow::create_hwnd(HINSTANCE instance, const SIZE &dim) { DWORD ex_style = WS_EX_LAYERED ; //eventually I'll be making use of this layerd flag m_hwnd = CreateWindowEx( ex_style, szFloatingWindowClass , L"", WS_POPUP , 0, 0, dim.cx, dim.cy, null, null, instance, null); SetWindowLongPtr(m_hwnd ,0, (__int3264)(LONG_PTR)this); m_display_dc = GetDC(NULL); //This was sanity check test code - just loading a standard HBITMAP and displaying it in WM_PAINT. It worked fine //HANDLE handle= LoadImage(NULL , L"c:\\test_image2.bmp", IMAGE_BITMAP, 0, 0, LR_LOADFROMFILE); m_gdip_offscreen_bm = new Gdiplus::Bitmap(dim.cx, dim.cy); m_gdi_dc = Gdiplus::Graphics::FromImage(m_gdip_offscreen_bm);//new Gdiplus::Graphics(m_splash_dc );//window_dc ;m_splash_dc //this draws the conents of my splash screen - this works if I create a GDI+ context for the window, rather than for an offscreen bitmap. //For all I know, it might actually be working but when I try to display the contents on screen, it shows a black image draw_all(); //this is just to show that drawing something simple on the offscreen bit map seems to have no effect Gdiplus::Pen pen(Gdiplus::Color(255, 0, 0, 255)); m_gdi_dc->DrawLine(&pen, 0,0,100,100); DWORD last_error = GetLastError(); //returns '0' at this stage } And here's the snipit that handles the WM_PAINT message: ---8<----------------------- //Paint message snippit case WM_PAINT: { BITMAP bm; PAINTSTRUCT ps; HDC hdc = BeginPaint(vg->m_hwnd, &ps); //get the HWNDs DC HDC hdcMem = vg->m_gdi_dc->GetHDC(); //get the HDC from our offscreen GDI+ object unsigned int width = vg->m_gdip_offscreen_bm->GetWidth(); //width and height seem fine at this point unsigned int height = vg->m_gdip_offscreen_bm->GetHeight(); BitBlt(hdc, 0, 0, width, height, hdcMem, 0, 0, SRCCOPY); //this blits a black rectangle DWORD last_error = GetLastError(); //this was '0' vg->m_gdi_dc->ReleaseHDC(hdcMem); EndPaint(vg->m_hwnd, &ps); //end paint return 1; } ---8<----------------------- My apologies for the long post. Does anybody know what I'm not quite understanding regarding how you write to an offscreen buffer using GDI+ (or GDI for that matter)and then display this on screen? Thank you for reading.

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  • Is there a path of least resistance that a newcomer to graphics-technology-adoption can take at this point in the .NET graphics world?

    - by Rao
    For the past 5 months or so, I've spent time learning C# using Andrew Troelsen's book and getting familiar with stuff in the .NET 4 stack... bits of ADO.NET, EF4 and a pinch of WCF to taste. I'm really interested in graphics development (not for games though), which is why I chose to go the .NET route when I decided choose from either Java or .NET to learn... since I heard about WPF and saw some sexy screenshots and all. I'm even almost done with the 4 WPF chapters in Troelsen's book. Now, all of a sudden I saw some post on a forum about how "WPF was dead" in the face of something called Silverlight. I searched more and saw all the confusion going on at present... even stuff like "Silverlight is dead too!" wrt HTML5. From what I gather, we are in a delicate period of time that will eventually decide which technology will stabilize, right? Even so, as someone new moving into UI & graphics development via .NET, I wish I could get some guidance from people more experienced people. Maybe I'm reading too much? Maybe I have missed some pieces of information? Maybe a path exists that minimizes tears of blood? In any case, here is a sample vomiting of my thoughts on which I'd appreciate some clarification or assurance or spanking: My present interest lies in desktop development. But on graduating from college, I wish to market myself as a .NET developer. The industry seems to be drooling for web stuff. Can Silverlight do both equally well? (I see on searches that SL works "out of browser"). I have two fair-sized hobby projects planned that will have hawt UIs with lots of drag n drop, sliding animations etc. These are intended to be desktop apps that will use reflection, database stuff using EF4, networking over LAN, reading-writing of files... does this affect which graphics technology can be used? At some laaaater point, if I become interested in doing a bit of 3D stuff in .NET, will that affect which technologies can be used? Or what if I look up to the heavens, stick out my middle finger, and do something crazy like go learn HTML5 even though my knowledge of it can be encapsulated in 2 sentences? Sorry I seem confused so much, I just want to know if there's a path of least resistance that a newcomer to graphics-technology-adoption can take at this point in the graphics world.

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  • Symfony2 Entity to array

    - by Adriano Pedro
    I'm trying to migrate my flat php project to Symfony2, but its coming to be very hard. For instance, I have a table of Products specification that have several specifications and are distinguishables by its "cat" attribute in that Extraspecs DB table. Therefore I've created a Entity for that table and want to make an array of just the specifications with "cat" = 0... I supose the code is this one.. right? $typeavailable = $this->getDoctrine() ->getRepository('LabsCatalogBundle:ProductExtraspecsSpecs') ->findBy(array('cat' => '0')); Now how can i put this in an array to work with a form like this?: form = $this ->createFormBuilder($product) ->add('specs', 'choice', array('choices' => $typeavailableArray), 'multiple' => true) Thank you in advance :) # Thank you all.. But now I've came across with another problem.. In fact i'm building a form from an existing object: $form = $this ->createFormBuilder($product) ->add('name', 'text') ->add('genspec', 'choice', array('choices' => array('0' => 'None', '1' => 'General', '2' => 'Specific'))) ->add('isReg', 'choice', array('choices' => array('0' => 'Material', '1' => 'Reagent', '2' => 'Antibody', '3' => 'Growth Factors', '4' => 'Rodents', '5' => 'Lagomorphs'))) So.. in that case my current value is named "extraspecs", so i've added this like: ->add('extraspecs', 'entity', array( 'label' => 'desc', 'empty_value' => ' --- ', 'class' => 'LabsCatalogBundle:ProductExtraspecsSpecs', 'property' => 'specsid', 'query_builder' => function(EntityRepository $er) { return $er ->createQueryBuilder('e'); But "extraspecs" come from a relationship of oneToMany where every product has several extraspecs... Here is the ORM: Labs\CatalogBundle\Entity\Product: type: entity table: orders__regmat id: id: type: integer generator: { strategy: AUTO } fields: name: type: string length: 100 catnumber: type: string scale: 100 brand: type: integer scale: 10 company: type: integer scale: 10 size: type: decimal scale: 10 units: type: integer scale: 10 price: type: decimal scale: 10 reqcert: type: integer scale: 1 isReg: type: integer scale: 1 genspec: type: integer scale: 1 oneToMany: extraspecs: targetEntity: ProductExtraspecs mappedBy: product Labs\CatalogBundle\Entity\ProductExtraspecs: type: entity table: orders__regmat__extraspecs fields: extraspecid: id: true type: integer unsigned: false nullable: false generator: strategy: IDENTITY regmatid: type: integer scale: 11 spec: type: integer scale: 11 attrib: type: string length: 20 value: type: string length: 200 lifecycleCallbacks: { } manyToOne: product: targetEntity: Product inversedBy: extraspecs joinColumn: name: regmatid referencedColumnName: id HOw should I do this? Thank you!!!

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  • ASP.NET- forcing child/container events to fire before parent onload?

    - by Hans Gruber
    I'm working on a questionnaire type application in which questions are stored in a database. Therefore, I create my controls dynamically on every Page.OnLoad. This works like a charm and ViewState is persisted between postbacks because I ensure that my dynamic controls always have the same generated Control.ID. In addition to the user control that dynamically populates the questions, my questionnaire page also contains a 'Status' section (also encapsulated by a user control) which represents the status of the questionnaire (choices are 'Complete', 'Started' or 'In Progress'). If the user changes the status of questionnaire (i.e. from 'In Progress' to 'Complete'), I need to postback to the server because the contents of the dynamic portion of the questionnaire depend on the selected status. Some questions are always present regardless of status, and yet others may not be present at all for the selected status. The point is, when the status changes, I have to postback to the page and render the right set of questions. Additionally, I need to preserve any user entered values for those questions which are 'always available'. However, due to the page life cycle in ASP.NET, the 'Status' user control's OnLoad, which contains the correct status needed to load the right questions from the DB, doesn't get executed until after the 'dynamic questions' user control has already been populated (with the wrong/stale values). To get around this, I raise an event from my 'Status' user control to the main page to indicate that the Status has changed. The main page then raises an event on the 'dynamic questions' user control. Since by the time this event bubbles up, the 'dynamic questions' user control has already loaded the 'wrong' questions from the DB, it first calls Controls.Clear. It then happily uses the new status to query the database for the 'correct' questions and does a Control.Add() on each. FYI, Control.IDs are consistent across postbacks. This solution works...sorta. The correct set of questions for the selected status do get rendered; however ViewState is getting lost for those 'always available' questions. I'm guessing this is because the 'dynamic questions' user control calls Controls.Clear when responding to the status changed event. This must somehow kill the association between ViewState and my dynamic controls, even though the Control.ID are consistent. This seems like such a common requirement, I'm virtually certain there is a better, cleaner and less error prone approach to accomplish this. In case its not plain obvious, I haven't been able to grok the ASP.NET page life-cycle despite working with it for the last year. Any help is much appreciated!

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  • JavaCC: How can one exclude a string from a token? (A.k.a. understanding token ambiguity.)

    - by java.is.for.desktop
    Hello, everyone! I had already many problems with understanding, how ambiguous tokens can be handled elegantly (or somehow at all) in JavaCC. Let's take this example: I want to parse XML processing instruction. The format is: "<?" <target> <data> "?>": target is an XML name, data can be anything except ?>, because it's the closing tag. So, lets define this in JavaCC: (I use lexical states, in this case DEFAULT and PROC_INST) TOKEN : <#NAME : (very-long-definition-from-xml-1.1-goes-here) > TOKEN : <WSS : (" " | "\t")+ > // WSS = whitespaces <DEFAULT> TOKEN : {<PI_START : "<?" > : PROC_INST} <PROC_INST> TOKEN : {<PI_TARGET : <NAME> >} <PROC_INST> TOKEN : {<PI_DATA : ~[] >} // accept everything <PROC_INST> TOKEN : {<PI_END : "?>" > : DEFAULT} Now the part which recognizes processing instructions: void PROC_INSTR() : {} { ( <PI_START> (t=<PI_TARGET>){System.out.println("target: " + t.image);} <WSS> (t=<PI_DATA>){System.out.println("data: " + t.image);} <PI_END> ) {} } Let's test it with <?mytarget here-goes-some-data?>: The target is recognized: "target: mytarget". But now I get my favorite JavaCC parsing error: !! procinstparser.ParseException: Encountered "" at line 1, column 15. !! Was expecting one of: !! Encountered nothing? Was expecting nothing? Or what? Thank you, JavaCC! I know, that I could use the MORE keyword of JavaCC, but this would give me the whole processing instruction as one token, so I'd had to parse/tokenize it further by myself. Why should I do that? Am I writing a parser that does not parse? The problem is (i guess): hence <PI_DATA> recognizes "everything", my definition is wrong. I should tell JavaCC to recognize "everything except ?>" as processing instruction data. But how can it be done? NOTE: I can only exclude single characters using ~["a"|"b"|"c"], I can't exclude strings such as ~["abc"] or ~["?>"]. Another great anti-feature of JavaCC. Thank you.

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  • IQueryable and lazy loading

    - by Nelson
    I'm having a hard time determining the best way to handle this... With Entity Framework (and L2S), LINQ queries return IQueryable. I have read various opinions on whether the DAL/BLL should return IQueryable, IEnumerable or IList. Assuming we go with IList, then the query is run immediately and that control is not passed on to the next layer. This makes it easier to unit test, etc. You lose the ability to refine the query at higher levels, but you could simply create another method that allows you to refine the query and still return IList. And there are many more pros/cons. So far so good. Now comes Entity Framework and lazy loading. I am using POCO objects with proxies in .NET 4/VS 2010. In the presentation layer I do: foreach (Order order in bll.GetOrders()) { foreach (OrderLine orderLine in order.OrderLines) { // Do something } } In this case, GetOrders() returns IList so it executes immediately before returning to the PL. But in the next foreach, you have lazy loading which executes multiple SQL queries as it gets all the OrderLines. So basically, the PL is running SQL queries "on demand" in the wrong layer. Is there any sensible way to avoid this? I could turn lazy loading off, but then what's the point of having this "feature" that everyone was complaining EF1 didn't have? And I'll admit it is very useful in many scenarios. So I see several options: Somehow remove all associations in the entities and add methods to return them. This goes against the default EF behavior/code generation and makes it harder to do some composite (multiple entity) LINQ queries. It seems like a step backwards. I vote no. If we have lazy loading anyway which makes it hard to unit test, then go all the way and return IQueryable. You'll have more control farther up the layers. I still don't think this is a good option because IQueryable ties you to L2S, L2E, or your own full implementation of IQueryable. Lazy loading may run queries "on demand", but doesn't tie you to any specific interface. I vote no. Turn off lazy loading. You'll have to handle your associations manually. This could be with eager loading's .Include(). I vote yes in some specific cases. Keep IList and lazy loading. I vote yes in many cases, only due to the troubles with the others. Any other options or suggestions? I haven't found an option that really convinces me.

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  • Returning mySQL error with jQuery & AJAX

    - by kel
    I've got a form inserting data into mySQL. It works but I'm trying to add error handling in case something happens. If I break the Insert statements mySQL dies but I'm still getting a success message on the front end. What am I doing wrong? AJAX function postData(){ var employeeName = jQuery('#employeeName').val(); var hireDate = jQuery('#hireDate').val(); var position = jQuery('#position').val(); var location = jQuery('#location').val(); var interveiwer = jQuery('#interviewersID').val(); var q01 = jQuery('#q01').val(); var q02 = jQuery('#q02').val(); var q03 = jQuery('#q03').val(); var q04 = jQuery('#q04').val(); var q05 = jQuery('#q05').val(); var summary = jQuery('#summary').val(); jQuery.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'queryDay.php', data: 'employeeName='+ employeeName +'&hireDate='+ hireDate +'&position='+ position +'&location='+ location +'&interveiwer='+ interveiwer +'&q01='+ q01 +'&q02='+ q02 +'&q03='+ q03 +'&q04='+ q04 +'&q05='+ q05 +'&summary='+ summary, success: function(){ jQuery('#formSubmitted').show(); }, error: function(jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown){ jQuery('#returnError').html(errorThrown); jQuery('#formError').show(); } }); }; PHP require_once 'config.php'; $employeeName = $_POST['employeeName']; $hireDate = $_POST['hireDate']; $position = $_POST['position']; $location = $_POST['location']; $interviewerID = $_POST['interveiwer']; $q01 = $_POST['q01']; $q02 = $_POST['q02']; $q03 = $_POST['q03']; $q04 = $_POST['q04']; $q05 = $_POST['q05']; $summary = $_POST['summary']; mysql_query("INSERT INTO employee (name, hiredate, position, location) VALUES ('$employeeName', '$hireDate', '$position', '$location')") or die (mysql_error()); $employeeID = mysql_insert_id(); mysql_query("INSERT INTO day (employee, interviewer, datetaken, q01, q02, q03, q04, q05, summary) VALUES ('$employeeID', '$interviewerID', NOW(), '$q01', '$q02', '$q03', '$q04', '$q05', '$summary')") or die (mysql_error());

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  • ASP.Net 4.0 - Response required in SiteMap building?

    - by Nick Craver
    I'm running into an issue upgrading a project to .Net 4.0...and having trouble finding any reason for the issue (or at least, the change causing it). Given the freshness of 4.0, not a lot of blogs out there for issues yet, so I'm hoping someone here has an idea. Preface: this is a Web Forms application, coming from 3.5 SP1 to 4.0. In the Application_Start event we're iterating through the SiteMap and constructing routes based off data there (prettifying URLs mostly with some utility added), that part isn't failing though...or at least isn't not getting that far. It seems that calling the SiteMap.RootNode (inside application_start) causes 4.0 to eat it, since the XmlSiteMapProvider.GetNodeFromXmlNode method has been changed, looking in reflector you can see it's hitting HttpResponse.ApplyAppPathModifier here: str2 = HttpContext.Current.Response.ApplyAppPathModifier(str2); HttpResponse wasn't used at all in this method in the 2.0 CLR, so what we had worked fine, in 4.0 though, that method is called as a result of this stack: [HttpException (0x80004005): Response is not available in this context.] System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.GetNodeFromXmlNode(XmlNode xmlNode, Queue queue) System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.ConvertFromXmlNode(Queue queue) System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.BuildSiteMap() System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.get_RootNode() System.Web.SiteMap.get_RootNode() Since Response isn't available here in 4.0, we get an error. To reproduce this, you can narrow the test case down to this in global: protected void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { var s = SiteMap.RootNode; //Kaboom! //or just var r = Context.Response; //or var r = HttpContext.Current.Response; //all result in the same "not available" error } Question: Am I missing something obvious here? Or, is there another event added in 4.0 that's recommended for anything related to SiteMap on startup? For anyone curious/willing to help, I've created a very minimal project (a default VS 2010 ASP.Net 4.0 site, all the bells & whistles removed and only a blank sitemap and the Application_Start code added). It's a small 10kb zip available here: http://www.ncraver.com/Test/SiteMapTest.zip Update: Not a great solution, but the current work-around is to do the work in Application_BeginRequest, like this: private static bool routesRegistered = false; protected void Application_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!routesRegistered) { Application.Lock(); if (!routesRegistered) RouteManager.RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); routesRegistered = true; Application.UnLock(); } } I don't like this particularly, feels like an abuse of the event to bypass the issue. Does anyone have at least a better work-around, since the .Net 4 behavior with SiteMap is not likely to change?

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  • How do I classify using SVM Classifier?

    - by Gomathi
    I'm doing a project in liver tumor classification. Actually I initially used Region Growing method for liver segmentation and from that I segmented tumor using FCM. I,then, obtained the texture features using Gray Level Co-occurence Matrix. My output for that was stats = autoc: [1.857855266614132e+000 1.857955341199538e+000] contr: [5.103143332457753e-002 5.030548650257343e-002] corrm: [9.512661919561399e-001 9.519459060378332e-001] corrp: [9.512661919561385e-001 9.519459060378338e-001] cprom: [7.885631654779597e+001 7.905268525471267e+001] Now how should I give this as an input to the SVM program. function [itr] = multisvm( T,C,tst ) %MULTISVM(2.0) classifies the class of given training vector according to the % given group and gives us result that which class it belongs. % We have also to input the testing matrix %Inputs: T=Training Matrix, C=Group, tst=Testing matrix %Outputs: itr=Resultant class(Group,USE ROW VECTOR MATRIX) to which tst set belongs %----------------------------------------------------------------------% % IMPORTANT: DON'T USE THIS PROGRAM FOR CLASS LESS THAN 3, % % OTHERWISE USE svmtrain,svmclassify DIRECTLY or % % add an else condition also for that case in this program. % % Modify required data to use Kernel Functions and Plot also% %----------------------------------------------------------------------% % Date:11-08-2011(DD-MM-YYYY) % % This function for multiclass Support Vector Machine is written by % ANAND MISHRA (Machine Vision Lab. CEERI, Pilani, India) % and this is free to use. email: [email protected] % Updated version 2.0 Date:14-10-2011(DD-MM-YYYY) u=unique(C); N=length(u); c4=[]; c3=[]; j=1; k=1; if(N>2) itr=1; classes=0; cond=max(C)-min(C); while((classes~=1)&&(itr<=length(u))&& size(C,2)>1 && cond>0) %This while loop is the multiclass SVM Trick c1=(C==u(itr)); newClass=c1; svmStruct = svmtrain(T,newClass); classes = svmclassify(svmStruct,tst); % This is the loop for Reduction of Training Set for i=1:size(newClass,2) if newClass(1,i)==0; c3(k,:)=T(i,:); k=k+1; end end T=c3; c3=[]; k=1; % This is the loop for reduction of group for i=1:size(newClass,2) if newClass(1,i)==0; c4(1,j)=C(1,i); j=j+1; end end C=c4; c4=[]; j=1; cond=max(C)-min(C); % Condition for avoiding group %to contain similar type of values %and the reduce them to process % This condition can select the particular value of iteration % base on classes if classes~=1 itr=itr+1; end end end end Kindly guide me. Images:

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  • VBA Excel - Workbook_SheetChange

    - by user2947014
    Hopefully this question hasn't already been asked, I tried searching for an answer and couldn't find anything. This is probably a simple question, but I am writing my first macro in excel and am having a problem that I can't find out a solution to. I wrote a couple of macros that basically sum up columns dynamically (so that the number of rows can change and the formula moves down automatically) based on a value in another column of the same row, and I call those macros from the event Workbook_SheetChange. The problem I'm having is, I change a cell's value from my macro to display the result of the sum, and this then calls Workbook_SheetChange again, which I do not want. Right now it works, but I can trace it and see that Workbook_SheetChange is being called multiple times. This is preventing me from adding other cell changes to the macros, because then it results in an infinite loop. I want the macros to run every time a change is made to the sheet, but I don't see any way around allowing the macros to change a cell's value, so I don't know what to do. I will paste my code below, in case it is helpful. Private Sub Workbook_SheetChange(ByVal Sh As Object, ByVal Target As Range) Dim Row As Long Dim Col As Long Row = Target.Row Col = Target.Column If Col <> 7 Then Range("G" & Row).Select Selection.Formula = "=IF(F" & Row & "=""Win"",E" & Row & ",IF(F" & Row & "=""Loss"",-D" & Row & ",0))" Target.Select End If Call SumRiskColumn End Sub Private Sub Workbook_SheetCalculate(ByVal Sh As Object) Call SumOutcomeColumn End Sub Sub SumOutcomeColumn() Dim N As Long N = Cells(Rows.Count, "A").End(xlUp).Row Cells(N + 1, "G").Formula = "=SUM(G2:G" & N & ")" End Sub Sub SumRiskColumn() Dim N As Long N = Cells(Rows.Count, "A").End(xlUp).Row Dim CurrTotalRisk As Long CurrTotalRisk = 0 For i = 2 To N If IsEmpty(ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 6)) And Not IsEmpty(ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 1)) And Not IsEmpty(ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 2)) And Not IsEmpty(ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 3)) Then CurrTotalRisk = CurrTotalRisk + ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 4).Value End If Next i Cells(N + 1, "D").Value = CurrTotalRisk End Sub Thank you for any help you can give me! I really appreciate it.

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  • Checking if an int is prime more efficiently

    - by SipSop
    I recently was part of a small java programming competition at my school. My partner and I have just finished our first pure oop class and most of the questions were out of our league so we settled on this one (and I am paraphrasing somewhat): "given an input integer n return the next int that is prime and its reverse is also prime for example if n = 18 your program should print 31" because 31 and 13 are both prime. Your .class file would then have a test case of all the possible numbers from 1-2,000,000,000 passed to it and it had to return the correct answer within 10 seconds to be considered valid. We found a solution but with larger test cases it would take longer than 10 seconds. I am fairly certain there is a way to move the range of looping from n,..2,000,000,000 down as the likely hood of needing to loop that far when n is a low number is small, but either way we broke the loop when a number is prime under both conditions is found. At first we were looping from 2,..n no matter how large it was then i remembered the rule about only looping to the square root of n. Any suggestions on how to make my program more efficient? I have had no classes dealing with complexity analysis of algorithms. Here is our attempt. public class P3 { public static void main(String[] args){ long loop = 2000000000; long n = Integer.parseInt(args[0]); for(long i = n; i<loop; i++) { String s = i +""; String r = ""; for(int j = s.length()-1; j>=0; j--) r = r + s.charAt(j); if(prime(i) && prime(Long.parseLong(r))) { System.out.println(i); break; } } System.out.println("#"); } public static boolean prime(long p){ for(int i = 2; i<(int)Math.sqrt(p); i++) { if(p%i==0) return false; } return true; } } ps sorry if i did the formatting for code wrong this is my first time posting here. Also the output had to have a '#' after each line thats what the line after the loop is about Thanks for any help you guys offer!!!

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  • Spring.NET & Immediacy CMS (or how to inject to server side controls without using PageHandlerFactor

    - by Simon Rice
    Is there any way to inject dependencies into an Immediacy CMS control using Spring.NET, ideally without having to use to ContextRegistry when initialising the control? Update, with my own answer The issue here is that Immediacy already has a handler defined in web.config that deals with all aspx pages, & so it's not possible add an entry for Spring.NET's PageHandlerFactory in web.config as per a normal webforms app. That rules out making the control implement ISupportsWebDependencyInjection. Furthermore, most of Immediacy's generated pages are aspx pages that don't physically exist on the drive. I have changed the title of the question to reflect this. What I have done to get Dependency Injection working is: Add the usual entries to web.config for Spring.NET as outlined in the documentation, except for the adding the entry to the <httpHandlers> section. In this case I've got my object definitions in Spring.config. Create the following abstract base class that will deal with all of the Dependency Injection work: DIControl.cs public abstract class DIControl : ImmediacyControl { protected virtual string DIName { get { return this.GetType().Name; } } protected override void OnInit(EventArgs e) { if (ContextRegistry.GetContext().GetObject(DIName, this.GetType()) != null) ContextRegistry.GetContext().ConfigureObject(this, DIName); base.OnInit(e); } } For non-immediacy controls, you can make this server side control inherit from Control or whatever subclass of that you like. For any control with which you wish to use with Spring.NET's Inversion of Control container, define it to inherit from DIControl & add the relelvant entry to Spring.config, for example: SampleControl.cs public class SampleControl : DIControl, INamingContainer { public string Text { get; set; } protected string InjectedText { get; set; } public SampleControl() : base() { Text = "Hello world"; } protected override void RenderContents(HtmlTextWriter output) { output.Write(string.Format("{0} {1}", Text, InjectedText)); } } Spring.config <objects xmlns="http://www.springframework.net"> <object id="SampleControl" type="MyProject.SampleControl, MyAssembly"> <property name="InjectedText" value="from Spring.NET" /> </object> </objects> You can optionally override DIName if you wish to name your entry in Spring.config differently from the name of your class. Provided everything's done correctly, you will have the control writing out "Hello world from Spring.NET!" when used in a page. This solution uses Spring.NET's ContextRegistry from within the control, but I would be surprised if there's no way around that for Immediacy at least since the page objects themselves aren't accessible. However, can this be improved at all from a Spring.NET perspective? Is there maybe an Immediacy plugin that already does this that I'm completely unaware of? Or is there an approach that does this in a more elegant way? I'm open to suggestions.

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  • How to optimize this SQL query for a rectangular region?

    - by Andrew B.
    I'm trying to optimize the following query, but it's not clear to me what index or indexes would be best. I'm storing tiles in a two-dimensional plane and querying for rectangular regions of that plane. The table has, for the purposes of this question, the following columns: id: a primary key integer world_id: an integer foreign key which acts as a namespace for a subset of tiles tileY: the Y-coordinate integer tileX: the X-coordinate integer value: the contents of this tile, a varchar if it matters. I have the following indexes: "ywot_tile_pkey" PRIMARY KEY, btree (id) "ywot_tile_world_id_key" UNIQUE, btree (world_id, "tileY", "tileX") "ywot_tile_world_id" btree (world_id) And this is the query I'm trying to optimize: ywot=> EXPLAIN ANALYZE SELECT * FROM "ywot_tile" WHERE ("world_id" = 27685 AND "tileY" <= 6 AND "tileX" <= 9 AND "tileX" >= -2 AND "tileY" >= -1 ); QUERY PLAN ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Bitmap Heap Scan on ywot_tile (cost=11384.13..149421.27 rows=65989 width=168) (actual time=79.646..80.075 rows=96 loops=1) Recheck Cond: ((world_id = 27685) AND ("tileY" <= 6) AND ("tileY" >= (-1)) AND ("tileX" <= 9) AND ("tileX" >= (-2))) -> Bitmap Index Scan on ywot_tile_world_id_key (cost=0.00..11367.63 rows=65989 width=0) (actual time=79.615..79.615 rows=125 loops=1) Index Cond: ((world_id = 27685) AND ("tileY" <= 6) AND ("tileY" >= (-1)) AND ("tileX" <= 9) AND ("tileX" >= (-2))) Total runtime: 80.194 ms So the world is fixed, and we are querying for a rectangular region of tiles. Some more information that might be relevant: All the tiles for a queried region may or may not be present The height and width of a queried rectangle are typically about 10x10-20x20 For any given (world, X) or (world, Y) pair, there may be an unbounded number of matching tiles, but the worst case is currently around 10,000, and typically there are far fewer. New tiles are created far less frequently than existing ones are updated (changing the 'value'), and that itself is far less frequent that just reading as in the query above. The only thing I can think of would be to index on (world, X) and (world, Y). My guess is that the database would be able to take those two sets and intersect them. The problem is that there is a potentially unbounded number of matches for either for either of those. Is there some other kind of index that would be more appropriate?

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  • ArithmeticException thrown during BigDecimal.divide

    - by polygenelubricants
    I thought java.math.BigDecimal is supposed to be The Answer™ to the need of performing infinite precision arithmetic with decimal numbers. Consider the following snippet: import java.math.BigDecimal; //... final BigDecimal one = BigDecimal.ONE; final BigDecimal three = BigDecimal.valueOf(3); final BigDecimal third = one.divide(three); assert third.multiply(three).equals(one); // this should pass, right? I expect the assert to pass, but in fact the execution doesn't even get there: one.divide(three) causes ArithmeticException to be thrown! Exception in thread "main" java.lang.ArithmeticException: Non-terminating decimal expansion; no exact representable decimal result. at java.math.BigDecimal.divide It turns out that this behavior is explicitly documented in the API: In the case of divide, the exact quotient could have an infinitely long decimal expansion; for example, 1 divided by 3. If the quotient has a non-terminating decimal expansion and the operation is specified to return an exact result, an ArithmeticException is thrown. Otherwise, the exact result of the division is returned, as done for other operations. Browsing around the API further, one finds that in fact there are various overloads of divide that performs inexact division, i.e.: final BigDecimal third = one.divide(three, 33, RoundingMode.DOWN); System.out.println(three.multiply(third)); // prints "0.999999999999999999999999999999999" Of course, the obvious question now is "What's the point???". I thought BigDecimal is the solution when we need exact arithmetic, e.g. for financial calculations. If we can't even divide exactly, then how useful can this be? Does it actually serve a general purpose, or is it only useful in a very niche application where you fortunately just don't need to divide at all? If this is not the right answer, what CAN we use for exact division in financial calculation? (I mean, I don't have a finance major, but they still use division, right???).

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  • jQuery AJAX Web service works only locally

    - by Greg
    Hi, I have a simple ASP.NET Web Service [WebService(Namespace = "http://tempuri.org/")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] [System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService] public class Service : System.Web.Services.WebService { public Service () { } [WebMethod] public string SetName(string name) { return "hello my dear friend " + name; } } For this Web Service I created Virtual Directory, so I can receive the access by taping http://localhost:89/Service.asmx. I try to call it via simple html page with jQuery. For this purpose I use function CallWS() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", data: "{'name':'Pumba'}", dataType: "json", url: "http://localhost:89/Service.asmx/SetName", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", success: function (msg) { $('#DIVid').html(msg.d); }, error: function (e) { $('#DIVid').html("Error"); } }); The most interesting fact: If I create the html page in the project with my WebService and change url to Service.asmx/SetName everything works excellent. But if I try to call this webservice remotely - success function works but msg is null. After that I tried to call this service even via SOAP. It is the the same - locally it works excellent, but remotely - not at all. var ServiceUrl = 'http://localhost:89/Service.asmx?op=SetName'; function beginSetName(Name) { var soapMessage = '<?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <soap:Body> <SetName xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <name>' + Name + '</name> </SetName> </soap:Body> </soap:Envelope>'; $.ajax({ url: ServiceUrl, type: "POST", dataType: "xml", data: soapMessage, complete: endSetName, contentType: "text/xml; charset=\"utf-8\"" }); return false; } function endSetName(xmlHttpRequest, status) { $(xmlHttpRequest.responseXML) .find('SetNameResult') .each(function () { var name = $(this).text(); alert(name); }); } In this case status has value "parseerror". Could you please help me to resolve this problem? What should I do to call another WebService remotely by url via jQuery. Thank you in advance, Greg

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  • How to access controller dynamic properties within a base controller's constructor in Grails?

    - by 4h34d
    Basically, I want to be able to assign objects created within filters to members in a base controller from which every controller extends. Any possible way to do that? Here's how I tried, but haven't got to make it work. What I'm trying to achieve is to have all my controllers extend a base controller. The base controller's constructor would be used to assign values to its members, those values being pulled from the session map. Example below. File grails-app/controllers/HomeController.groovy: class HomeController extends BaseController { def index = { render username } } File grails-app/controllers/BaseController.groovy: abstract class BaseController { public String username public BaseController() { username = session.username } } When running the app, the output shown is: 2010-06-15 18:17:16,671 [main] ERROR [localhost].[/webapp] - Exception sending context initialized event to listener instance of class org.codehaus.groovy.grails.web.context.GrailsContextLoaderListener org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'pluginManager' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/applicationContext.xml]: Invocation of init method failed; nested exception is java.lang.RuntimeException: Unable to locate constructor with Class parameter for class org.codehaus.groovy.grails.commons.DefaultGrailsControllerClass ... Caused by: java.lang.RuntimeException: Unable to locate constructor with Class parameter for class org.codehaus.groovy.grails.commons.DefaultGrailsControllerClass ... Caused by: java.lang.reflect.InvocationTargetException ... Caused by: org.codehaus.groovy.grails.exceptions.NewInstanceCreationException: Could not create a new instance of class [com.my.package.controller.HomeController]! ... Caused by: groovy.lang.MissingPropertyException: No such property: session for class: com.my.package.controller.HomeController at com.my.package.controller.BaseController.<init>(BaseController.groovy:16) at com.my.package.controller.HomeController.<init>(HomeController.groovy) ... 2010-06-15 18:17:16,687 [main] ERROR core.StandardContext - Error listenerStart 2010-06-15 18:17:16,687 [main] ERROR core.StandardContext - Context [/webapp] startup failed due to previous errors And the app won't run. This is just an example as in my case I wouldn't want to assign a username to a string value, but rather a few objects pulled from the session map. The objects pulled from the session map are being set within filters. The alternative I see is being able to access the controller's instance within the filter's execution. Is that possible? Please help! Thanks a bunch!

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  • CakePHP 1.3.4: EmailComponent error - Undefined property: EmailComponent::$Controller

    - by Kevin S.
    I'm trying to develop an invitation system for my website which runs on CakePHP 1.3.4. I am trying to use the built in EmailComponent to send an email. I'm getting this error (expanded): Notice (8): Undefined property: EmailComponent::$Controller [CORE/cake/libs/controller/components/email.php, line 428] Code | Context */ function _render($content) { $viewClass = $this-Controller-view; $content = array( "", "" ) EmailComponent::_render() - CORE/cake/libs/controller/components/email.php, line 428 EmailComponent::send() - CORE/cake/libs/controller/components/email.php, line 368 UsersController::send_quick_add_email() - APP/controllers/users_controller.php, line 77 UsersController::quick_add() - APP/controllers/users_controller.php, line 104 SinglesResultsController::quick_add() - APP/controllers/singles_results_controller.php, line 63 Dispatcher::_invoke() - CORE/cake/dispatcher.php, line 204 Dispatcher::dispatch() - CORE/cake/dispatcher.php, line 171 [main] - APP/webroot/index.php, line 83 I also get the following, which I can expand if necessary: Notice (8): Trying to get property of non-object [CORE/cake/libs/controller/components/email.php, line 428] Notice (8): Undefined property: EmailComponent::$Controller [CORE/cake/libs/controller/components/email.php, line 433] Notice (8): Trying to get property of non-object [CORE/cake/libs/controller/components/email.php, line 433] Notice (8): Undefined property: View::$webroot [CORE/cake/libs/view/view.php, line 805] Warning (2): Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/cake/cake/libs/debugger.php:673) [CORE/cake/libs/controller/controller.php, line 746] I think that the EmailComponent object holds a reference to the controller it's being called from. I don't know why it's undefined in this case. Here is the code that fails (specifically, it errors on the call to $this-Email-send()): function send_quick_add_email($email) { if($email) { $this->Email->reset(); $this->Email->to = $email; $this->Email->subject = 'Some subject text'; $this->Email->from = '[email protected]'; $this->Email->template = 'email_template'; $this->set('user', $user); $this->set('token', $token); $this->Email->delivery = 'debug'; $this->Email->send(); } } Ok, for more clarification: The main data I am collecting on the site is results of a game played in meatspace. SinglesResultsController has an action, quick_add, which expects email addresses of people not already registered on the site. If the email addresses aren't associated with Users, UsersController::quick_add is called, which creates an inactive user, and sends an invitation email in UsersController::send_quick_add_email() I think the problem is related to the fact that the email isn't being sent in the first controller initialized (SinglesResultsController). Any thoughts on how to make it work? The Email component is declared at the top of both Controllers.

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  • how to include in web.config an external mydll.config file and read its values?

    - by firepol
    Hi, I found this answer about external configuration files. I'm trying to do a similar thing. I have a small webapplication called StatsGen I want to include in other projects, and for convenience I'd like to have the settings inside the bin folder, in a config file with an appropriate name, in my case: StatsGen.config. So I've put these line in the web.config (as explained in the answer I mentioned above): <configSections> <section name="StatsGenSettings" restartOnExternalChanges="true" type="System.Configuration.NameValueFileSectionHandler" /> <!--sectionGroups--> </configSections> <StatsGenSettings configSource="StatsGen.config"></StatsGenSettings> <!--and here comes the rest... appSettings etc.--> Inside the bin folder, I created a StatsGen.xml file, then renamed it to StatsGen.config. It looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <StatsGenSettings> <add key="Password" value="myStatsPass" /> <add key="ConnectionString" value="Server=mydbsrv;Database=myDB;User ID=myUser;Password=myPass" /> </StatsGenSettings> I created an Helper class, as suggested in the answer. In the Page_Load of my default.aspx.cs file, I've put: goodPassword = StatsGenSettings.Instance["Password"]; When I load my page, I get this error: The type initializer for 'StatsGen.Helpers.StatsGenSettings' threw an exception. I've tried to exlude the helper and just to get access to the key, like this: NameValueCollection _settings = ConfigurationManager.GetSection("StatsGenSettings") as NameValueCollection; And I get this error: Unable to open configSource file 'StatsGen.config'. (C:\Users\pbo\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\StatsGen\StatsGen\web.config line 21) At line 21 I just have this, as explained above: <StatsGenSettings configSource="StatsGen.config"></StatsGenSettings> So now I'm wondering, what's wrong? Some detailed help would be cool... like: where exactly should I declare the StatsGenSettings element inside the web.config? It was not specified in the answer I've found... or what else am I doing wrong? Thanks for letting me know...

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  • Adding x11vnc as a Solaris SMF service

    - by rojanu
    I am trying add x11vnc as SMF service but cannot get service to start. I tried googling but couldn't find anything that could help me. Here is the startup script #!/sbin/sh # # Copyright (c) 1995, 1997-1999 by Sun Microsystems, Inc. # All rights reserved. # #ident "@(#)x11vnc 1.14 06/11/17 SMI" case "$1" in 'start') #/usr/local/bin/x11vnc -geometry 1280x1024 -noshm -display :0 -ncache 10 -noshm -shared -forever -o /tmp/vnc_remote.log -bg /usr/local/bin/x11vnc -unixpw -ncache 10 -display :0 -noshm -shared -forever -o /tmp/vnc_remote.log ;; 'stop') /usr/bin/pkill -x -u 0 x11vnc ;; *) echo "Usage: $0 { start | stop }" ;; esac exit 0 and here is the manifest file <?xml version='1.0'?> <!DOCTYPE service_bundle SYSTEM '/usr/share/lib/xml/dtd/service_bundle.dtd.1'> <service_bundle type='manifest' name='vnc'> <service name='application/x11vnc' type='service' version='0'> <create_default_instance enabled='true'/> <single_instance/> <dependency name='docusp' grouping='require_all' restart_on='none' type='service'> <service_fmri value='svc:/milestone/multi-user-server:default'/> </dependency> <exec_method name='start' type='method' exec='/lib/svc/method/x11vnc' timeout_seconds='0'> <method_context/> </exec_method> <exec_method name='stop' type='method' exec=':true' timeout_seconds='10'> <method_context/> </exec_method> <stability value='Evolving' /> <property_group name='startd' type='framework'> <propval name='ignore_error' type='astring' value='core,signal'/> </property_group> </service> </service_bundle> and the log file Usage: /lib/svc/method/x11vnc { start | stop } [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Method "start" exited with status 0 ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Stopping because all processes in service exited. ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Executing stop method (:kill) ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Executing start method ("/lib/svc/method/x11vnc") ] Usage: /lib/svc/method/x11vnc { start | stop } [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Method "start" exited with status 0 ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Stopping because all processes in service exited. ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Executing stop method (:kill) ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Executing start method ("/lib/svc/method/x11vnc") ] Usage: /lib/svc/method/x11vnc { start | stop } [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Method "start" exited with status 0 ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Stopping because all processes in service exited. ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Executing stop method (:kill) ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Restarting too quickly, changing state to maintenance ] Any Ideas?

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  • What is the difference between NULL in C++ and null in Java?

    - by Stephano
    I've been trying to figure out why C++ is making me crazy typing NULL. Suddenly it hits me the other day; I've been typing null (lower case) in Java for years. Now suddenly I'm programming in C++ and that little chunk of muscle memory is making me crazy. Wikiperipatetic defines C++ NULL as part of the stddef: A macro that expands to a null pointer constant. It may be defined as ((void*)0), 0 or 0L depending on the compiler and the language. Sun's docs tells me this about Java's "null literal": The null type has one value, the null reference, represented by the literal null, which is formed from ASCII characters. A null literal is always of the null type. So this is all very nice. I know what a null pointer reference is, and thank you for the compiler notes. Now I'm a little fuzzy on the idea of a literal in Java so I read on... A literal is the source code representation of a fixed value; literals are represented directly in your code without requiring computation. There's also a special null literal that can be used as a value for any reference type. null may be assigned to any variable, except variables of primitive types. There's little you can do with a null value beyond testing for its presence. Therefore, null is often used in programs as a marker to indicate that some object is unavailable. Ok, so I think I get it now. In C++ NULL is a macro that, when compiled, defines the null pointer constant. In Java, null is a fixed value that any non-primitive can be assigned too; great for testing in a handy if statement. Java does not have pointers, so I can see why they kept null a simple value rather than anything fancy. But why did java decide to change the all caps NULL to null? Furthermore, am I missing anything here?

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