Search Results

Search found 57327 results on 2294 pages for 'nested set'.

Page 848/2294 | < Previous Page | 844 845 846 847 848 849 850 851 852 853 854 855  | Next Page >

  • Help decoupling Crystal Report from CrystalReportViewer

    - by John at CashCommons
    I'm using Visual Studio 2005 with VB.NET. I have a number of Crystal Reports, each with their own associated dialog resource containing a CrystalReportViewer. The class definitions look like this: Imports System.Windows.Forms Imports CrystalDecisions.CrystalReports.Engine Imports CrystalDecisions.Shared Public Class dlgForMyReport Private theReport As New myCrystalReport Public theItems As New List(Of MyItem) Private Sub OK_Button_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles OK_Button.Click Me.DialogResult = System.Windows.Forms.DialogResult.OK Me.Close() End Sub Private Sub Cancel_Button_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Cancel_Button.Click Me.DialogResult = System.Windows.Forms.DialogResult.Cancel Me.Close() End Sub Private Sub dlgForMyReport_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load theReport.SetDataSource(theItems) 'Do a bunch of stuff here to set data items in theReport Me.myCrystalReportViewer.ReportSource = theReport End Sub End Class I basically instantiate the dialog, set theItems to the list I want, and call ShowDialog. I now have a need to combine several of these reports into one report (possibly like this) but the code that loads up the fields in the report is in the dialog. How would I go about decoupling the report initialization from the dialog? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Perf4J Graph Output from Log File

    - by manyxcxi
    I currently have a long running process that I am trying to analyze with Perf4J. I currently have it writing results in CSV format to its own log file using the AsyncCoalescingStatisticsAppender and a StatisticsCsvLayout on the file appender. My question is; when I try and use the --graph option from the command line (using the perf4j jar) it isn't populating the data points- it isn't populating anything. Are my appenders set incorrectly? The log file contains hundreds (sometimes thousands) of data points of about 10 different tag names. <appender name="perfAppender" class="org.apache.log4j.FileAppender"> <param name="File" value="perfStats.log"/> <layout class="org.perf4j.log4j.StatisticsCsvLayout"> </layout> </appender> <appender name="CoalescingStatistics" class="org.perf4j.log4j.AsyncCoalescingStatisticsAppender"> <!-- The TimeSlice option is used to determine the time window for which all received StopWatch logs are aggregated to create a single GroupedTimingStatistics log. Here we set it to 10 seconds, overriding the default of 30000 ms --> <param name="TimeSlice" value="10000"/> <appender-ref ref="ConsoleAppender"/> <appender-ref ref="CompositeRollingFileAppender"/> <appender-ref ref="perfAppender"/> </appender>

    Read the article

  • JSESSIONID collision between two servers on same ip but different ports

    - by Steve Armstrong
    I've got a situation where I have two different webapps running on a single server, using different ports. They're both running Java's Jetty servlet container, so they both use a cookie parameter named JSESSIONID to track the session id. These two webapps are fighting over the session id. Open a Firefox tab, and go to WebApp1 WebApp1's HTTP response has a set-cookie header with JSESSIONID=1 Firefox now has a Cookie header with JSESSIONID=1 in all it's HTTP requests to WebApp1 Open a second Firefox tab, and go to WebApp2 The HTTP reqeust to WebApp2 also has a Cookie header with JSESSIONID=1, but in the doGet, when I call req.getSession(false); I get null. And if I call req.getSession(true) I get a new Session object, but then the HTTP response from WebApp2 has a set-cookie header with JSESSIONID=20 Now, WebApp2 has a working Session, but WebApp1's session is gone. Going to WebApp1 will give me a new session, blowing away WebApp2's session. Continue forever So the Sessions are thrashing between each web app. I'd really like for the req.getSession(false) to return a valid session if there's already a JSESSIONID cookie defined. One option is to basically reimplement the Session framework with a HashMap and cookies called WEBAPP1SESSIONID and WEBAPP2SESSIONID, but that sucks, and means I'll have to hack the new Session stuff into ActionServlet and a few other places. This must be a problem others have encountered. Is Jetty's HttpServletRequest.getSession(boolean) just crappy?

    Read the article

  • Printing out this week's dates in perl

    - by ABach
    Hi folks, I have the following loop to calculate the dates of the current week and print them out. It works, but I am swimming in the amount of date/time possibilities in perl and want to get your opinion on whether there is a better way. Here's the code I've written: #!/usr/bin/env perl use warnings; use strict; use DateTime; # Calculate numeric value of today and the # target day (Monday = 1, Sunday = 7); the # target, in this case, is Monday, since that's # when I want the week to start my $today_dt = DateTime->now; my $today = $today_dt->day_of_week; my $target = 1; # Create DateTime copies to act as the "bookends" # for the date range my ($start, $end) = ($today_dt->clone(), $today_dt->clone()); if ($today == $target) { # If today is the target, "start" is already set; # we simply need to set the end date $end->add( days => 6 ); } else { # Otherwise, we calculate the Monday preceeding today # and the Sunday following today my $delta = ($target - $today + 7) % 7; $start->add( days => $delta - 7 ); $end->add( days => $delta - 1 ); } # I clone the DateTime object again because, for some reason, # I'm wary of using $start directly... my $cur_date = $start->clone(); while ($cur_date <= $end) { my $date_ymd = $cur_date->ymd; print "$date_ymd\n"; $cur_date->add( days => 1 ); } As mentioned, this works - but is it the quickest/most efficient/etc.? I'm guessing that quickness and efficiency may not necessarily go together, but your feedback is very appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Should I remove all inheritance from my model in order to work with ria services?

    - by TimothyP
    I've posted some questions on this before, but it's different. So consider a small portion of our model: Person Customer Employee Spouse Person is the base class which has 3 classes that inherit from it. These 4 are very central in our design and link to many other entities. I could solve all the problems I'm experiencing with ria-services by removing the inheritance but that would really increase the complexety of the model. The first problem I experienced was that I couldn't query for Customers, Employees or Spouses, but someone gave me a solution, which was to add something like this to the DomainService: public IQueryable<Employee> GetEmployees() { return this.ObjectContext.People.OfType<Employee>(); } public IQueryable<Customer> GetCustomers() { return this.ObjectContext.People.OfType<Customer>(); } public IQueryable<Spouse> GetSpouses() { return this.ObjectContext.People.OfType<Spouse>(); } Next I tried something that seemed very normal to me: var employee = new Employee() { //.... left out to reduce the length of this question }; var spouse = new Spouse() { //.... left out to reduce the length of this questions }; employee.Spouse = spouse; context.People.Add(spouse); context.People.Add(employee); context.SubmitChanges(); Then I get the following exception: Cannot retrieve an entity set for the derived entity type 'Spouse'. Use EntityContainer.GetEntitySet(Type) to get the entity set for the base entity type 'Person'. Even when the spouse is already in the database, and I retreive it first I get similar exceptions. Also note that for some reason in some places "Persons" is used instead of "People"... So how do I solve this problem, what am I doing wrong and will I keep running into walls when using ria services with inheritance? I found some references on the web, all saying it works and then some DomainService code in which they suposedly changed something but no details... I'm using VS2010 RC1 + Silveright 4

    Read the article

  • Important question about linq to SQL performance on high loaded web applications

    - by Alex
    I started working with linq to SQL several weeks ago. I got really tired of working with SQL server directly through the SQL queries (sqldatareader, sqlcommand and all this good stuff).  After hearing about linq to SQL and mvc I quickly moved all my projects to these technologies. I expected linq to SQL work slower but it suprisongly turned out to be pretty fast, primarily because I always forgot to close my connections when using datareaders. Now I don't have to worry about it. But there's one problem that really bothers me. There's one page that's requested thousands of times a day. The system gets data in the beginning, works with it and updates it. Primarily the updates are ++ @ -- (increase and decrease values). I used to do it like this UPDATE table SET value=value+1 WHERE ID=@I'd It worked with no problems obviously. But with linq to SQL the data is taken in the beginning, moved to the class, changed and then saved. Stats.registeredusers++; Db.submitchanges(); Let's say there were 100 000 users. Linq will say "let it be 100 001" instead of "let it be increased by 1". But if there value of users has already been increased (that happens in my site all the time) then linq will be like oops, this value is already 100 001. Whatever I'll throw an exception" You can change this behavior so that it won't throw an exception but it still will not set the value to 100 002. Like I said, it happened with me all the time. The stas value was increased twice a second on average. I simply had to rewrite this chunk of code with classic ado net. So my question is how can you solve the problem with linq

    Read the article

  • XSL-FO: Static content AND Flow content in Region-Body: Possible?

    - by Peterdk
    I have the following problem: I need to use XSLFO to generate a 2-column multipage document. Problem is: I need to have a vertical line between the 2 columns. Since XSLFO does not seem to specify a option for creating such a divider, I need to manually put it there. I was thinking of using a static rotated blockcontainer with a leader in it. However, it looks like it's not possible to use static-content on the same region as where the flow content comes. <fo:layout-master-set> <fo:simple-page-master page-width="170mm" page-height="222mm" master-name="page" > <fo:region-body region-name="xsl-region-body" margin-top="2mm" margin-bottom="2mm" margin-left="10mm" margin-right="10mm" column-count="2" column-gap="5mm" /> </fo:simple-page-master> </fo:layout-master-set> <fo:page-sequence master-reference="page"> <fo:static-content flow-name="xsl-region-body" ><!-- This gives a error --> <fo:block>test</fo:block> </fo:static-content> <fo:flow flow-name="xsl-region-body"> <xsl:apply-templates/> </fo:flow> </fo:page-sequence> Results in (XEP): [error] Duplicate identifier: flow-name="xsl-region-body". Property 'flow-name' should be unique within 'fo:page-sequence'. Are there any methods to place static content on the main region when also flow content is placed there? Or: Is there a way to define the divider that divides a 2-column layout?

    Read the article

  • OpenSSL certificate lacks key identifiers

    - by 0xDEAD BEEF
    How do i add these sections to certificate (i am manualy building it using C++). X509v3 Subject Key Identifier: A4:F7:38:55:8D:35:1E:1D:4D:66:55:54:A5:BE:80:25:4A:F0:68:D0 X509v3 Authority Key Identifier: keyid:A4:F7:38:55:8D:35:1E:1D:4D:66:55:54:A5:BE:80:25:4A:F0:68:D0 Curently my code builds sertificate well, except for those keys.. :/ static X509 * GenerateSigningCertificate(EVP_PKEY* pKey) { X509 *x; x = X509_new(); //create x509 certificate X509_set_version(x, NID_X509); ASN1_INTEGER_set(X509_get_serialNumber(x), 0x00000000); //set serial number X509_gmtime_adj(X509_get_notBefore(x), 0); X509_gmtime_adj(X509_get_notAfter(x),(long)60*60*24*365); //1 year X509_set_pubkey(x, pKey); //set pub key from just generated rsa X509_NAME *name; name = X509_get_subject_name(x); NAME_StringField(name, "C", "LV"); NAME_StringField(name, "CN", "Point"); //common name NAME_StringField(name, "O", "Point"); //organization X509_set_subject_name(x, name); //save name fields to certificate X509_set_issuer_name(x, name); //save name fields to certificate X509_EXTENSION *ex; ex = X509V3_EXT_conf_nid(NULL, NULL, NID_netscape_cert_type, "server"); X509_add_ext(x,ex,-1); X509_EXTENSION_free(ex); ex = X509V3_EXT_conf_nid(NULL, NULL, NID_netscape_comment, "example comment extension"); X509_add_ext(x, ex, -1); X509_EXTENSION_free(ex); ex = X509V3_EXT_conf_nid(NULL, NULL, NID_netscape_ssl_server_name, "www.lol.lv"); X509_add_ext(x, ex, -1); X509_EXTENSION_free(ex); ex = X509V3_EXT_conf_nid(NULL, NULL, NID_basic_constraints, "critical,CA:TRUE"); X509_add_ext(x, ex, -1); X509_EXTENSION_free(ex); X509_sign(x, pKey, EVP_sha1()); //sign x509 certificate return x; }

    Read the article

  • MS Access 2003 - Save button enabling on form open on different tabs

    - by Justin
    I have a tab control on a form, and a couple different tabs have save buttons on them. Once the user saves data (via SQL statements in VBA), I set the .enabled = false so that they cannot use this button again until moving to a brand new record (which is a button click on the overall form). so when my form open i was going to reference a sub that enabled all these save buttons because the open event would mean new record. though i get an error that says it either does not exist, or is closed. any ideas? thanks EDIT: Sub Example() error handling Dim db as dao.database dim rs as dao.recordset dim sql as string SQL = "INSERT INTO tblMain (Name, Address, CITY) VALUES (" if not isnull (me.name) then sql = sql & """" & me.name & """," else sql = sql & " NULL," end if if not insull(me.adress) then sql = sql & " """ & me.address & """," else sql = sql & " NULL," end if if not isnull(me.city) then sql = sql & " """ & me.city & """," else sql = sql & " NULL," end if 'debug.print(sql) set db = currentdb db.execute (sql) MsgBox "Changes were successfully saved" me.MyTabCtl.Pages.Item("SecondPage").setfocus me.cmdSaveInfo.enabled = false and then on then the cmdSave needs to get re enabled on a new record (which by the way, this form is unbound), so it all happens when the form is re-opened. I tried this: Sub Form_Open() me.cmdSaveInfo.enabled = true End Sub and this is where I get the error stated above. So this is also not the tab that has focus when the form opens. Is that why I get this error? I cannot enable or disable a control when the tab is not showing?

    Read the article

  • NHibernate IQueryable Collection as Property of Root

    - by Khalid Abuhakmeh
    Hello and thank you for taking the time to read this. I have a root object that has a property that is a collection. For example : I have a Shelf object that has Books. // now public class Shelf { public ICollection<Book> Books {get; set;} } // want public class Shelf { public IQueryable<Book> Books {get;set;} } What I want to accomplish is to return a collection that is IQueryable so that I can run paging and filtering off of the collection directly from the the parent. var shelf = shelfRepository.Get(1); var filtered = from book in shelf.Books where book.Name == "The Great Gatsby" select book; I want to have that query executed specifically by NHibernate and not a get all to load a whole collection and then parse it in memory (which is what currently happens when I use ICollection). The reasoning behind this is that my collection could be huge, tens of thousands of records, and a get all query could bash my database. I would like to do this implicitly so that when NHibernate sees and IQueryable on my class it knows what to do. I have looked at NHibernates Linq provider and currently I am making the decision to take large collections and split them into their own repository so that I can make explicit calls for filtering and paging. Linq To SQL offers something similar to what I'm talking about.

    Read the article

  • UIViewTableCell didSelectRowAtIndexPath is calling but not pushing a view controller

    - by Kenneth
    Hi guys, so im having a UIViewController view with a UITableView. So the UIViewController class name is SelectionScreen. The UITableView class name is SelectionScreenTable. Picture: http://img717.imageshack.us/i/screenshot20100609atpm0.png/ I have declared a UITableView *selectionTable in SelectionScreen class and connected it to the xib file of the SelectionScreen what the problem is , is that when i click a row in the table,it stays selected as highlighted blue, it calls the didSelectRowAtIndexPath (checked with NSLog) but not pushing a new view which is called(GraphView). This is the code which i use to call the new controller WHICH WORKS with a normal button GraphView *aSelectionScreenViewController = [[GraphView alloc] initWithNibName:@"GraphView" bundle:nil]; [self presentModalViewController:aSelectionScreenViewController animated: YES]; [aSelectionScreenViewController release]; I searched around and found that I need to set a delegate for the table in the UITableView class itself on the viewload tableview.delegate = self; or self.tableview.delegate = self; But it was not working. the controller was still not being pushed, and yes i have checked the controller is not nil as i tried it with a simple button. So i was thinking whether i should set the delegate of the UITableView at the UIViewController instead, so i tried this code selectionTable.delegate = selectionTable.self; but obviously it did not work =\, it messed up the whole UITableView and caused all the cells to be its predefined settings. So does anybody have any idea on how i can get it to work.

    Read the article

  • Classic ASP - Email form with attached file - please help

    - by apg1985
    Hi Guys, Ive got abit of a problem ive got an email web form that send the input to an email address but what I now need is a file input field were the user can also send an image as an attachment. So contact name, logo (attachment). Ive been told in order to send the attachment it needs to be saved in a folder on my hosting before it can be sent. Ive spoken to the hosting company and they dont have anything in place to make this easier such as aspupload. In the form name="contactname" and name="logo" I have a folder in the root directory called logos (this asp page also exists in the root directory) Man I hope someone can help me spent along time looking for answers Dim contactname, logo contactname = request.form("contactname") If request("contactname") <> "" THEN Set myMail=CreateObject("CDO.Message") myMail.Subject="Form" myMail.From="web@email" myMail.To="web@email" myMail.HTMLBody = "" & contactname & "" myMail.Configuration.Fields.Item("http://schemas.microsoft.com/cdo/configuration/sendusing") = 2 myMail.Configuration.Fields.Item("http://schemas.microsoft.com/cdo/configuration/smtpserver") = "relay.host" myMail.Configuration.Fields.Item("http://schemas.microsoft.com/cdo/configuration/smtpserverport") = 25 myMail.Configuration.Fields.Update myMail.Send set myMail=nothing

    Read the article

  • Can I serialize an object if I didn't write the class used to instantiate that object?

    - by Richard77
    Hello, I've a simple class [Serializable] public class MyClass { public String FirstName { get; set: } public String LastName { get; set: } //Bellow is what I would like to do //But, it's not working //I get an exception ContactDataContext db = new ContactDataContext(); public void Save() { Contact contact = new Contact(); contact.FirstName = FirstName; contact.LastName = LastName; db.Contacts.InsertOnSubmit(contact); db.SubmitChanges(); } } I wanted to attach a Save method to the class so that I could call it on each object. When I introduced the above statement which contains ContactDataContext, I got the following error "In assembly ... PublicKeyToken=null' is not marked as serializable" It's clear that the DataContext class is generated by the framework (). I checked and did not see where that class was marked serialize. What can I do to overcome that? What's the rule when I'm not the author of a class? Just go ahead and mark the DataContext class as serializable, and pretend that everything will work? Thanks for helping

    Read the article

  • Minimum cost strongly connected digraph

    - by Kazoom
    I have a digraph which is strongly connected (i.e. there is a path from i to j and j to i for each pair of nodes (i, j) in the graph G). I wish to find a strongly connected graph out of this graph such that the sum of all edges is the least. To put it differently, I need to get rid of edges in such a way that after removing them, the graph will still be strongly connected and of least cost for the sum of edges. I think it's an NP hard problem. I'm looking for an optimal solution, not approximation, for a small set of data like 20 nodes. Edit A more general description: Given a grap G(V,E) find a graph G'(V,E') such that if there exists a path from v1 to v2 in G than there also exists a path between v1 and v2 in G' and sum of each ei in E' is the least possible. so its similar to finding a minimum equivalent graph, only here we want to minimize the sum of edge weights rather than sum of edges. Edit: My approach so far: I thought of solving it using TSP with multiple visits, but it is not correct. My goal here is to cover each city but using a minimum cost path. So, it's more like the cover set problem, I guess, but I'm not exactly sure. I'm required to cover each and every city using paths whose total cost is minimum, so visiting already visited paths multiple times does not add to the cost.

    Read the article

  • Send already generated MHTML using CDOSYS through C#?

    - by mutex
    I have a ready generated MHTML as a byte array (from Aspose.Words) and would like to send it as an email. I'm trying to do this through CDOSYS, though am open to other suggestions. For now though I have the following: CDO.Message oMsg = new CDO.Message(); CDO.IConfiguration iConfg = oMsg.Configuration; Fields oFields = iConfg.Fields; // Set configuration. Field oField = oFields["http://schemas.microsoft.com/cdo/configuration/sendusing"]; oField.Value = CDO.CdoSendUsing.cdoSendUsingPort; oField = oFields["http://schemas.microsoft.com/cdo/configuration/smtpserver"]; oField.Value = SmtpClient.Host; oField = oFields["http://schemas.microsoft.com/cdo/configuration/smtpserverport"]; oField.Value = SmtpClient.Port; oFields.Update(); //oMsg.CreateMHTMLBody("http://www.microsoft.com", CDO.CdoMHTMLFlags.cdoSuppressNone, "", ""); // NEED MAGIC HERE :) oMsg.Subject = warning.Subject; // string oMsg.From = "[email protected]"; oMsg.To = warning.EmailAddress; oMsg.Send(); In this snippet, the warning variable has a Body property which is a byte[]. Where it says "NEED MAGIC HERE" in the code above I want to use this byte[] to set the body of the CDO Message. I have tried the following, which unsurprisingly doesn't work: oMsg.HTMLBody = System.Text.Encoding.ASCII.GetString(warning.Body); Anybody have any ideas how I can achieve what I want with CDOSYS or something else?

    Read the article

  • Passing Object to Service in WCF

    - by hgulyan
    Hi, I have my custom class Customer with its properties. I added DataContract mark above the class and DataMember to properties and it was working fine, but I'm calling a service class's function, passing customer instance as parameter and some of my properties get 0 values. While debugging I can see my properties values and after it gets to the function, some properties' values are 0. Why it can be so? There's no code between this two actions. DataContract mark workes fine, everything's ok. Any suggestions on this issue? I tried to change ByRef to ByVal, but it doesn't change anything. Why it would pass other values right and some of integer types just 0? Maybe the answer is simple, but I can't figure it out. Thank You. <DataContract()> Public Class Customer Private Type_of_clientField As Integer = -1 <DataMember(Order:=1)> Public Property type_of_client() As Integer Get Return Type_of_clientField End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) Type_of_clientField = value End Set End Property End Class <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> <DataContractFormat()> Public Interface CustomerService <OperationContract()> Function addCustomer(ByRef customer As Customer) As Long End Interface type_of_client properties value is 6 before I call addCustomer function. After it enters that function the value is 0. UPDATE: The issue is in instance creating. When I create an instance of a class on client side, that is stored on service side, some of my properties pass 0 or nothing, but when I call a function of a service class, that returns a new instance of that class, it works fine. What's is the difference? Could that be serialization issue?

    Read the article

  • Subsonic, child records, and collections

    - by Dane
    Hi, I've been working with subsonic for a few weeks now, and it is working really well. However, I've just run into an issue with child objects with additional partial properties. Some of it is probably me just not understanding the .Net object lifecycle. I have an object - search. This has a few properties like permissions and stuff, and it links to a child table called search_options. In my Asp.Net app, it loops through these search options and creates controls. Then on postback, it grabs the values and assigns it back to a "value" property on the search_option. This value property is a simple string that's defined in a partial class. I then want to create a method on the search object, called PerformSearch. This then loops through the child search_options, and performs a custom query based on the "value" property. However, even though I assign the "value" property to the child search_option, when I access it later via the search.search_options collection, it is null. I'm guessing that maybe because it's accessing it in two different places, it performs another lazy load from the DB and the value is lost? Is there a way to tell the class that it's already loaded or something? or a way to access it so it's not reloaded from the DB? Code is below (shitty pseudocode, not full version) : ASP.Net page, loading back the values from postback : dim obj_search as search = new subsonic.query.select().......' retrieves the search object for each opt as search_option in obj_search.search_options opt.Value = Ctype(FindControl("search_option_" + opt.search_option_id),Textbox).Text debug.print(opt.Value) ' value is correct next for each opt as search_option in obj_search.search_options debug.print(opt.Value) 'this is nothing next Now, the partial class : public partial class search_option private m_value as string public property Value() as string get return m_value end get set( byval value as string) m_value = value end set end property end class

    Read the article

  • FindControl in DataList Edit Mode

    - by Doug
    As a new .net/C# web begginner, I always get tripped up when I try to use FindControl. Blam -flat on my face. Here is my current FindControl problem: I have an .aspx page and Form, then ajax updatePanel, inside it there is my DataList (DataList1) that has an EditItemTemplate: that has the following: <EditItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="thumbnailUploadLabel" runat="server" text="Upload a new thumbnail image:"/><br /> <asp:FileUpload ID="thumbnailImageUpload" runat="server" /> <asp:Button ID="thunbnailImageUploadButton" runat="server" Text="Upload Now" OnClick="thumbnailUpload"/><br /> </EditItemTemplate> In my C# code behind I have the OnClick code for the fileUpload object: protected void thumbnailUpload(object s, EventArgs e) { if (thumbnailImageUpload.HasFile) { //get name of the file & upload string imageName = thumbnailImageUpload.FileName; thumbnailImageUpload.SaveAs(MapPath("../../images/merch_sm/" + imageName)); //let'em know that it worked (or didn't) thumbnailUploadLabel.Text = "Image " + imageName + "has been uploaded."; } else { thumbnailUploadLabel.Text = "Please choose a thumbnail image to upload."; } So of course I'm getting "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" for the FileUpload and the Label. What is the correct syntax to find these controls, before dealing with them in the OnClick event? The only way Ive used FindControl is something like: label thumbnailUploadLabel = DataList1.FindControl("thumbnailUploadLabel") as Label; But of course this is throwing the "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error. Any help is very much appreciated. (I've also seen the 'recursive' code out there that is supposed to make using FindControl easier. Ha! I'm so green at C# that I don't even know how to incorporate those into my project.) Thanks to all for taking a look at this.

    Read the article

  • Firefox/vista not showing div tag

    - by flavour404
    Hi, I have a div tag which should be displayed at the bottom of a page given a set of circumstances. On my machine XP/IE, chrome, firefox, opera (all latest versions) the div shows up fine. But on my bosses machine, running vista with Firefox 3.6 for some reason the div tag is not showing up. However, if i go to another machine with vista and firefox the div tag shows up fine. My question is, what could have been set in firefox that would cause this div tag to now be displayed. It is there, if you resize the window then the tag flickers into view and then disappears again... <div id="savePane" style="position:absolute;left:0px;top:457px;width:100%;height:40px;border-top:#EFECDC 1px solid;padding:5px; visibility:visible;"> <table width="100%"> <tr> <td width="130" align="left"> Ad Description: </td> <td align="left"> <input type="text" id="adDescription" style="width: 270px" onfocus="skipcycle=true;loadThumbnail(<%=AdToSaveID%>);" onblur="skipcycle=false;"> </td> <td align="right"> <% 'onblur='skipcycle=false' onfocus='skipcycle=true' is needed to do not focus on SaveToFolder window when user enter data to that window but focus on that input box instead %> <input type="button" onclick="saveItemToSelectedFolder('<%=AdToSaveID%>', '<%=AdNumber%>', '<%=Sequencer%>', '<%=PageNumber%>', '<%=Section%>', '<%=Zone%>', '<%=RunDate%>', '<%=PublicationID%>')" value="Save" style="width: 70px; margin-right: 10px" /> </td> </tr> </table> Thanks, Ron.

    Read the article

  • Association and model data saving problem

    - by Zhlobopotam
    Developing with cakephp 1.3 (latest from github). There are 2 models bind with hasAndBelongsToMany: documents and tags. Document can have many tags in other words. I've add a new document submitting form there user can enter a list of tags separated with commas (new tag will be added, if not exist already). I looked at cakephp bakery 2.0 source code on github and found the solution. But it seems that something is wrong. class Document extends AppModel { public $hasAndBelongsToMany = array('Tag'); public function beforeSave($options = array()) { if (isset($this->data[$this->alias]['tags']) && !empty($this- >data[$this->alias]['tags'])) { $tagIds = $this->Tag->saveDocTags($this->data[$this->alias] ['tags']); unset($this->data[$this->alias]['tags']); $this->data[$this->Tag->alias][$this->Tag->alias] = $tagIds; } return true; } } class Tag extends AppModel { public $hasAndBelongsToMany = array ('Document'); public function saveDocTags($commalist = '') { if ($commalist == '') return null; $tags = explode(',',$commalist); if (empty($tags)) return null; $existing = $this->find('all', array( 'conditions' => array('title' => $tags) )); $return = Set::extract($existing,'/Tag/id'); if (sizeof($existing) == sizeof($tags)) { return $return; } $existing = Set::extract($existing,'/Tag/title'); foreach ($tags as $tag) { if (!in_array($tag, $existing)) { $this->create(array('title' => $tag)); $this->save(); $return[] = $this->id; } } return $return; } } So, new tags creation works well but document model can't save association data and tells: SQL Error: 1054: Unknown column 'Array' in 'field list' Query: INSERT INTO documents (title, content, shortnfo, date, status) VALUES ('Document with tags', '', '', Array, 1) Any ideas how to solve this problem?

    Read the article

  • Subclassing UIButton but can't access my properties

    - by Ross Ellerington
    Hi, I've created a sub class of UIButton: // // DetailButton.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import <MapKit/MapKit.h> @interface MyDetailButton : UIButton { NSObject *annotation; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSObject *annotation; @end // // DetailButton.m // #import "MyDetailButton.h" @implementation MyDetailButton @synthesize annotation; @end I figured that I can then create this object and set the annotation object by doing the following: MyDetailButton* rightButton = [MyDetailButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeDetailDisclosure]; rightButton.annotation = localAnnotation; localAnnotation is an NSObject but it is really an MKAnnotation. I can't see why this doesn't work but at runtime I get this error: 2010-05-27 10:37:29.214 DonorMapProto1[5241:207] *** -[UIButton annotation]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x445a190 2010-05-27 10:37:29.215 DonorMapProto1[5241:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIButton annotation]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x445a190' ' I can't see why it's even looking at UIButton because I've subclassed that so it should be looking at the MyDetailButton class to set that annotation property. Have I missed something really obvious. It feels like it :) Thanks in advance for any help you can provide Ross

    Read the article

  • What is the best way in assigning foreign key when using entity framework & LINQ to Entities?

    - by Abdel Olakara
    Hi all, I need to know the best practice of creating an entity object and assigning the foreign key. Here is my scenario. I have a Product table with pid,name,unit_price etc.. I also have a Rating table with pid (foregin key),rate,votes etc... Currently i am doing the following to create the rating object: var prod = entities.Product.First(p => p.product_id == pid); prod.Rating.Load(); if (prod.Rating != null) { log.Info("Rating already exists!"); // set values and Calcuate the score } else { log.Info("New Rating!!!"); Rating rating = new Rating(); // set values and do inital calculation prod.Rating = rating; } entities.SaveChanges(); Even though this works fine, i would like to know the best practice in doing these kind of assignment. Thanks for your suggestions and info. Best Regards, Abdel Olakara

    Read the article

  • Lightweight alternative to Manual/AutoResetEvent in C#

    - by sweetlilmre
    Hi, I have written what I hope is a lightweight alternative to using the ManualResetEvent and AutoResetEvent classes in C#/.NET. The reasoning behind this was to have Event like functionality without the weight of using a kernel locking object. Although the code seems to work well in both testing and production, getting this kind of thing right for all possibilities can be a fraught undertaking and I would humbly request any constructive comments and or criticism from the StackOverflow crowd on this. Hopefully (after review) this will be useful to others. Usage should be similar to the Manual/AutoResetEvent classes with Notify() used for Set(). Here goes: using System; using System.Threading; public class Signal { private readonly object _lock = new object(); private readonly bool _autoResetSignal; private bool _notified; public Signal() : this(false, false) { } public Signal(bool initialState, bool autoReset) { _autoResetSignal = autoReset; _notified = initialState; } public virtual void Notify() { lock (_lock) { // first time? if (!_notified) { // set the flag _notified = true; // unblock a thread which is waiting on this signal Monitor.Pulse(_lock); } } } public void Wait() { Wait(Timeout.Infinite); } public virtual bool Wait(int milliseconds) { lock (_lock) { bool ret = true; // this check needs to be inside the lock otherwise you can get nailed // with a race condition where the notify thread sets the flag AFTER // the waiting thread has checked it and acquires the lock and does the // pulse before the Monitor.Wait below - when this happens the caller // will wait forever as he "just missed" the only pulse which is ever // going to happen if (!_notified) { ret = Monitor.Wait(_lock, milliseconds); } if (_autoResetSignal) { _notified = false; } return (ret); } } }

    Read the article

  • Flash/Flex sending XML to Rails App

    - by bdicasa
    I'm trying to send some XML to a rails app in Flex. I'm using the URLRequest and URLLoader objects. However, I'm having trouble determining how to send the XML and _method parameter to the rails app using these flash objects. Below is how I'm currently trying to achieve this. var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest(); request.method = URLRequestMethod.POST; request.data = new Object(); request.data.xml = Blog.xml.toXMLString(); request.contentType = "text/xml"; var loader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, saveCompleteHandler); var saveUrl:String = ""; saveUrl = BASE_URL; if (Blog.isNewBlog) { // Set the rails REST method. request.data._method = "POST"; saveUrl += "blogs.xml"; } else { // Set the rails REST method. request.data._method = "PUT"; saveUrl += "blogs/" + Blog.id.toString() + ".xml"; } request.url = saveUrl; //trace(request.data.toString()); loader.load(request); However the only data that is getting sent to the server is [Object object]. If some one could let me know where I'm going wrong I'd greatly appreciate it. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Is F# a good language for card game AI?

    - by Anthony Brien
    I'm writing a Mahjong Game in C# (the Chinese traditional game, not the solitaire kind). While writing the code for the bot player's AI, I'm wondering if a functional language like F# would be a more suitable language than what I currently use which is C# with a lot of Linq. I don't know much about F# which is why I ask here. To illustrate what I try to solve, here's a quick summary of Mahjong: Mahjong plays a bit like Gin Rummy. You have 13 tiles in your hand, and each turn, you draw a tile and discard another one, trying to improve your hand towards a winning Mahjong hand, which consists or 4 sets and a pair. Sets can be a 3 of a kind (pungs), 4 of a kind (kongs) or a sequence of 3 consecutive tiles (chows). You can also steal another player's discard, if it can complete one of your sets. The code I had to write to detect if the bot can declare 3 consecutive tiles set (chow) is pretty tedious. I have to find all the unique tiles in the hand, and then start checking if there's a sequence of 3 tiles that contain that one in the hand. Detecting if the bot can go Mahjong is even more complicated since it's a combination of detecting if there's 4 sets and a pair in his hand. And that's just a standard Mahjong hand. There's also numerous "special" hands that break those rules but are still a Mahjong hand. For example, "13 unique wonders" consists of 13 specific tiles, "Jade Empire" consists of only tiles colored green, etc. In a perfect world, I'd love to be able to just state the 'rules' of Mahjong, and have the language be able to match a set of 13 tiles against those rules to retrieve which rules it fulfills, for example, checking if it's a Mahjong hand or if it includes a 4 of a kind. Is this something F#'s pattern matching feature can help solve?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 844 845 846 847 848 849 850 851 852 853 854 855  | Next Page >