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  • Client-side validation breaks in IE because of PropertyProxyValidator and ScriptManager cooperation.

    - by Eugene
    The specific of the project is in using Enterpise Library for Server side validation and jQuery for client-side validation. So I have the next simple form for example: <asp:Content ID="_mainContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <script src="../../../Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../../Scripts/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { "<%= _txtProjectName.UniqueID %>": { required: true } } }); }); </script> <asp:TextBox ID="_txtProjectName" runat="server" CssClass="textBoxWithValidator_long" /> <entlib:PropertyProxyValidator id="_validatorProjectName" runat="server" ControlToValidate="_txtProjectName" PropertyName="ProjectName" SourceTypeName="LabManagement.Project.Project" /> <asp:Button CssClass="cell_InlineElement" ID="_btnSave" runat="server" Text="Save" onclick="_btnSave_Click" Width="50px" /> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server" EnablePageMethods="true"> </asp:ScriptManager> </asp:Content> The problem is in the next: client-side validation worked correctly before I needed to implement some AJAX.NET feature. So I have to add to the page ScriptManager (the last two lines in the code). But after that the next situation appeared: In InternetExplorer((7) - only in IE !!! - in Firefox everything works correctly) after clicking save button, if left the textbox ProjectName empty the client-side jquery validation appears but (!) the page submits to the server anyway. Some notes: If delete PropertyProxyValidator from the page - the client-side validation works correctly in IE but I need it for specific of the project. It seems that the problem is in the function WebForm_OnSubmit() that is inserted to the form after PropertyProxyValidator adding. ( ... <form name="aspnetForm" method="post" action="Project.aspx?TransType=NewProject" onsubmit="javascript:return WebForm_OnSubmit();" ...>) Could anyone help, please.

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  • jQuery e.target bubbling best practice ?

    - by olouv
    In my heavy-ajax code, i always bind "click" the body tag & act depending on $(e.target) & using $.fn.hasClass(). However when i click on an anchor that has a </span> tag inside, my $(e.target) equals this node, and not the parent anchor as i would like it to. From now on, i have used this trick (var $t = $(e.target);) : /** bubbling **/ if($t.get(0).tagName !== "A" && $t.get(0).tagName !== "AREA") { $t = $t.parent("a"); if(empty($t)) return true; //else console.log("$t.bubble()", $t); } It feels wrong somehow... Do you have any better implementation ? $.fn.live() does not solve my issue as it still returns the span as the target. Moreover i'm looking for speed (running on atom-based touch devices) & live appeared to be way slower (twice) : http://jsperf.com/bind-vs-click/3 In fact, as @Guffa pointed, using $.fn.live() solves the span bubbling issue as i don't need the event.target anymore. I guess there is no other "right" answer here (using bind).

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  • Parse string to create a list of element

    - by Nick
    I have a string like this: "\r color=\"red\" name=\"Jon\" \t\n depth=\"8.26\" " And I want to parse this string and create a std::list of this object: class data { std::string name; std::string value; }; Where for example: name = color value = red What is the fastest way? I can use boost. EDIT: This is what i've tried: vector<string> tokens; split(tokens, str, is_any_of(" \t\f\v\n\r")); if(tokens.size() > 1) { list<data> attr; for_each(tokens.begin(), tokens.end(), [&attr](const string& token) { if(token.empty() || !contains(token, "=")) return; vector<string> tokens; split(tokens, token, is_any_of("=")); erase_all(tokens[1], "\""); attr.push_back(data(tokens[0], tokens[1])); } ); } But it does not work if there are spaces inside " ": like color="red 1".

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  • VB .NET error handling, pass error to caller

    - by user1375452
    this is my very first project on vb.net and i am now struggling to migrate a vba working add in to a vb.net COM Add-in. I think i'm sort of getting the hang, but error handling has me stymied. This is a test i've been using to understand the try-catch and how to pass exception to caller Public Sub test() Dim ActWkSh As Excel.Worksheet Dim ActRng As Excel.Range Dim ActCll As Excel.Range Dim sVar01 As String Dim iVar01 As Integer Dim sVar02 As String Dim iVar02 As Integer Dim objVar01 As Object ActWkSh = Me.Application.ActiveSheet ActRng = Me.Application.Selection ActCll = Me.Application.ActiveCell iVar01 = iVar02 = 1 sVar01 = CStr(ActCll.Value) sVar02 = CStr(ActCll.Offset(1, 0).Value) Try objVar01 = GetValuesV(sVar01, sVar02) 'DO SOMETHING HERE Catch ex As Exception MsgBox("ERRORE: " + ex.Message) 'LOG ERROR SOMEWHERE Finally MsgBox("DONE!") End Try End Sub Private Function GetValuesV(ByVal QryStr As Object, ByVal qryConn As String) As Object Dim cnn As Object Dim rs As Object Try cnn = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") cnn.Open(qryConn) rs = CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") rs = cnn.Execute(QryStr) If rs.EOF = False Then GetValuesV = rs.GetRows Else Throw New System.Exception("Query Return Empty Set") End If Catch ex As Exception Throw ex Finally rs.Close() cnn.Close() End Try End Function i'd like to have the error message up to test, but MsgBox("ERRORE: " + ex.Message) pops out something unexpected (Object variable or With block variable not set) What am i doing wrong here?? Thanks D

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  • Background problem on UITableView

    - by f0rz
    Hi ! I have come to a problem, wich I have no idea how to solve. Can anyone think outside the box and point me to right directions? I would be very thankfull ! The problem. I have a UITableView containing a first row wich is always the same (a empty row with repeating background) Next rows are bounch of dynamic data rows. I have set the yellow background on my UITableView in IBuilder, My cells (except first row) have white background with code: UIView* backgroundView = [ [ [ UIView alloc ] initWithFrame:CGRectZero ] autorelease ]; backgroundView.backgroundColor = [UIColor colorWithRed: 0.96078431372549 green: 0.96078431372549 blue: 0.96078431372549 alpha: 1.0]; cell.backgroundView = backgroundView; for ( UIView* view in cell.contentView.subviews ) { view.backgroundColor = [ UIColor clearColor ]; } The example yellow background, I only want to be showed at the top. As u see img example below. The thing is I dont want to have yellow background under the last datarow, I want to contain same white color I have on the cells. This should be white as the cells. Not yellow. Thank u for your time. Regards

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  • JFLAP Turing Machine shortcut problem

    - by Robert Lamb
    In JFLAP (http://jflap.org), there are some shortcuts for Turing machine transitions. One of these shortcuts allows you to transition as long as the current tape symbol isn't the indicated symbol. For example, the transition !g,x;R basically says "Take this transition if the current tape symbol is not g". So far, so good. But the transition I want is !?,~;R which basically says "Move right as long as the current symbol is not the end-of-string (empty cell) symbol". The problem is I cannot figure out how to type in "!?". The JFLAP online documentation (http://www.jflap.org/tutorial/turing/one/index.html#syntax) has this to say: The first shortcut is that there exists the option of using the “!” character to convey the meaning of “any character but this character.” For example, concerning the transition (!a; x, R), if the head encounters any character but an “a”, it will replace the character with an “x” and move right. To write the expression “!?”, just type a “1” in when inputting a command. My question is...how do I actually do what that last sentence is trying to explain to me? Thanks for your help! Robert

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  • Cloning input type file and set the value

    - by jribeiro
    I know that it isn't possible to set the value of an input type="file" for security reasons... My problem is: I needed to style an input type="file" so what I did was have a button and hide the file input. like: <a href="#" onclick="$('input[name=&quot;photo1&quot;]').click(); return false;" id="photo1-link"></a> <input type="file" name="photo1" class="fileInput jqtranformdone validate[required]" id="photo1" /> These works great in all browsers except IE which gives me an access denied error on submitting through ajax. I'm using the ajaxSubmit jquery plugin (malsup.com/jquery/form/) So after reading for a while I tried to do: var photo1Val = $('#photo1').val(); var clone1 = $('#photo1').clone().val(photo1Val); $('#photo1').remove(); clone1.appendTo('form'); console.log(photo1Val) //prints the right value C:/fakepath/blablabla.jpg $('form').ajaxSubmit(options); The problem is that after this the value of $('#photo1') is empty... Any ideas how to work around this? Thanks

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  • ambient values in mvc2.net routing

    - by Muhammad Adeel Zahid
    Hello Everyone, i have following two routes registered in my global.asax file routes.MapRoute( "strict", "{controller}.mvc/{docid}/{action}/{id}", new { action = "Index", id = "", docid = "" }, new { docid = @"\d+"} ); routes.MapRoute( "default", "{controller}.mvc/{action}/{id}", new { action = "Index", id = "" }, new { docConstraint = new DocumentConstraint() } ); and i have a static "dashboard" link in my tabstrip and some other links that are constructed from values in db here is the code <ul id="globalnav" class = "t-reset t-tabstrip-items"> <li class="bar" id = "dashboard"> <%=Html.ActionLink("dash.board", "Index", pck.Controller, new{docid =string.Empty,id = pck.PkgID }, new { @class = "here" })%> </li> <% foreach (var md in pck.sysModules) { %> <li class="<%=liClass%>"> <%=Html.ActionLink(md.ModuleName, md.ActionName, pck.Controller, new { docid = md.DocumentID}, new { @class = cls })%> </li> <% } %> </ul> Now my launching address is localhost/oa.mvc/index/11 clearly matching the 2nd route. but when i visit any page that has mapped to first route and then come back to dash.board link it shows me localhost/oa.mvc/7/index/11 where 7 is docid and picked from previous Url. now i understand that my action method is after docid and changing it would not clear the docid. my question here is that can i remove docid in this scenario without changing the route. regards adeel

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  • Help with HTML hyperlink please

    - by liz
    Hello, Can someone help me with this problem: I have a table in a jsp page, with the text in one column being hyperlinks. Whenever anyone of these hyperlinks is clicked the whole table should refresh and repopulate based on the value of the hyperlink clicked. My problem is currently when the hyperlink is clicked the page refreshes with an empty table. I have the following line of HTML code for performing this in my jsp page: <TD><A href="http://localhost:8080/pmweb/gui.jsp" onclick="getResults(param)">hyperlinktext</A></TD>; Below is my getResults function in javascript in the same JSP page: <script type="text/javascript"> var httpRequest; function getResults(param) { var url = "http://localhost:8080/pmweb/api/GetResultsByParam?param=" + param; httpRequest = new XMLHttpRequest(); httpRequest.open("GET", url, true); httpRequest.onreadystatechange = function() {processRequest(); } ; httpRequest.send(null); } I have verified that the getResults function above is working fine itself. When I debugged it I noticed that this getResults function is not entered when the hyperlink is clicked. Anyone know how to get the hyperlink calling the javascript function properly? Thanks very much in advance!

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  • Swing JTable Scrolling not working properly

    - by Marko
    I'm doing an application, which uses Swing JTable. I used drag and drop in NetBeans, to add the JTable. When I add the JTable, JScrollPane is added automaticly. All the look is done with drag and drop. By pressing the first button, I set the number of rows in the table. This is the code to set my DataModel int size = 50; String[] colNames = {"Indeks", "Ime", "Priimek", "Drzava"}; DefaultTableModel model = new DefaultTableModel(size, colNames.length); model.setColumnIdentifiers(colNames); table.setModel(model); So if the size is, let's say 10, it works OK, since there is no scroll bar. When I add 50 empty rows, when trying to scroll for 5 seconds, it doesn't work properly and crashes in some time. I added the picture, for better understanding (this is what happens to the rows when I scroll up and down for a while). What could be wrong? Am I not using the DataModel as it is supposed to be used, should I .revalidate() or .repaint() the JTable?

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  • Deep Zoom in Ajax - Possible? Any examples out there?

    - by Phil
    I have an idea to implement a deep zoom type interface hosted in a browser for sports training data (speed, distance, heart rate etc.) However, rather than images I actually want to zoom into a hierarchy of information. For example, the initial display would contain a grid of years - hover over 2008, for example, and spin the mouse wheel (or click) will zoom into that year but during the zoom I want 2008 to fade out and be replaced with a calendar of months. Again zoom into a month and the months are replaced with the months calendar, zoom into a day and you finally see a chart with the training data plotted on it. All the time only dates with actual data would be highlighted in some fashion. My question is whether this would even be possible and whether anyone has seen examples of this already. I'm imagining that most of the time the next level of information could be cached in the browser (in fact, because this is calendar-based, I can calculate most of that and cache the dates to be highlighted.) I could also zoom into an empty chart whilst an Ajax thread is fetching the data to display. I've never tried anything like this before and I'm especially interested in whether DHTML would be capable of this sort of zoom (I suspect not and I would have to resort to Silverlight) and whether the Ajax execution would be uninterrupted whilst the browser rendering thread is kept busy zooming.

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  • asp.net C# windows authentication iss config

    - by user1566209
    I'm developing a webpage where a need to know the users windows authentication values, more precisely the name. Others developments have been done with this kind of authentication but sadly for me their creators are long gone and i have no contact or documentation. I'm using Visual Studio 2008 and i'm accessing a webservice that is in a remote server. The server is a windows server 2008 r2 standard and is using ISS version 7.5. Since i have the source code of the other developments what i did was copy paste and was working fine when i was calling the webservice that was in my machine (localhost). The code is the following: //1st way WindowsPrincipal wp = new WindowsPrincipal(WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent()); string strUser = wp.Identity.Name;//ALWAYS GET NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE //2nd way WindowsIdentity winId = WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent(); WindowsPrincipal winPrincipal = new WindowsPrincipal(winId); string user = winPrincipal.Identity.Name;//ALWAYS GET NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE //3rd way IIdentity WinId = HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; WindowsIdentity wi = (WindowsIdentity)WinId; string userstr = wi.Name; //ALWAYS GET string empty btn_select.Text = userstr; btn_cancelar.Text = strUser; btn_gravar.Text = user; As you can see i have here 3 ways to get the same and in a sad manner show my user's name. As for my web.config i have: <authentication mode="Windows"/> <identity impersonate="true" /> In the IIS manager i have tried lots of combination of enable and disable between Anonymous Authentication, ASP.NET Impersonation, Basic Authentication, Forms Authentication and Windows Authentication. Can please someone help me?? NOTE: The respective values i get from each try are in the code

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  • Pushing a local mercurial repository to a remote server or cloning at server from local

    - by Samaursa
    I have a local repository that I have now decided to push to a remote server (for example, I have a host that allows mercurial repositories and I am also trying to push to bitbucket). The repository has a lot of files and is a little more than 200mb. Locally, I am able to clone the repository without problems. Now I have a lot of changes in this repository, and I have wasted a couple of days trying to figure out how to get the remote server to clone my repository. I cannot get hg serve to work outside of the LAN. I have tried everything. So instead, I created a new repository at the remote servers (both at the host and bitbucket) with nothing in it. Now I am pushing the complete repository that I have locally to these remote locations. So far it has been unsuccessful, as the push operation is stuck on searching for changes and does not give me any other useful output. I have let it go for about an hour with no change. Now my questions is, what am I doing wrong as far as hg serve is concerned? I can access it locally but not remotely (through DynDns - I have configured it properly and the router forwards the ports correctly) so that I can get the server to clone the repository the first time after which I will be pushing to it. My second question is, assuming the clone at server does not work (for example, if I was to push my current repository to bitbucket), is creating an empty repository at the server and then pushing a local repository to the new remote repository ok? Is that the source of the searching for changes problem? Any help in this regard would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Trying to use HttpWebRequest to load a page in a file.

    - by Malcolm
    Hi, I have a ASP.NET MVC app that works fine in the browser. I am using the following code to be able to write the html of a retrieved page to a file. (This is to use in a PDF conversion component) But this code errors out continually but not in the browser. I get timeout errors sometimes asn 500 errors. Public Function GetPage(ByVal url As String, ByVal filename As String) As Boolean Dim request As HttpWebRequest Dim username As String Dim password As String Dim docid As String Dim poststring As String Dim bytedata() As Byte Dim requestStream As Stream Try username = "pdfuser" password = "pdfuser" docid = "docid=inv12154" poststring = String.Format("username={0}&password={1}&{2}", username, password, docid) bytedata = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(poststring) request = WebRequest.Create(url) request.Method = "Post" request.ContentLength = bytedata.Length request.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded" requestStream = request.GetRequestStream() requestStream.Write(bytedata, 0, bytedata.Length) requestStream.Close() request.Timeout = 60000 Dim response As HttpWebResponse Dim responseStream As Stream Dim reader As StreamReader Dim sb As New StringBuilder() Dim line As String = String.Empty response = request.GetResponse() responseStream = response.GetResponseStream() reader = New StreamReader(responseStream, System.Text.Encoding.ASCII) line = reader.ReadLine() While (Not line Is Nothing) sb.Append(line) line = reader.ReadLine() End While File.WriteAllText(filename, sb.ToString()) Catch ex As Exception MsgBox(ex.Message) End Try Return True End Function

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  • C++ iterators, default initialization and what to use as an uninitialized sentinel.

    - by Hassan Syed
    The Context I have a custom template container class put together from a map and vector. The map resolves a string to an ordinal, and the vector resolves an ordinal (only an initial string to ordinal lookup is done, future references are to the vector) to the entry. The entries are modified intrusively to contain a a bool "assigned" and an iterator_type which is a const_iterator to the container class's map. My container class will use RCF's serialization code (which models boost::serialization) to serialize my container classes to nodes in a network. Serializing iterator's is not possible, or a can of worms, and I can easily regenerate them onces the vectors and maps are serialized on the remote site. The Question I need to default initialize, and be able to test that the iterator has not been assigned to (if it is assigned it is valid, if not it is invalid). Since map iterators are not invalidated upon operations performed on it (unless of course items are removed :D) am I to assume that map<x,y>::end() is a valid sentinel (regardless of the state of the map -- i.e., it could be empty) to initialize to ? I will always have access to the parent map, I'm just unsure wheather end() is the same as the map contents change. I don't want to use another level of indirection (--i.e., boost::optional) to achieve my goal, I'd rather forego compiler checks to correct logic, but it would be nice if I didn't need to. Misc This question exists, but most of its content seems non-sense. Assigning a NULL to an iterator is invalid according to g++ and clang++. This is another similar question, but it focuses on the common use-cases of iterators, which generally tends to be using the iterator to iterate, ofcourse in this use-case the state of the container isn't meant to change whilst iteration is going on.

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  • why is OOP hard for me?

    - by netrox
    I have trouble writing OOP in PHP... I understand the concept but I never create classes for my projects... mainly because it's often a small project and nothing complex. But when I read OOP, it seems more difficult to code than writing simple procedural statements. It also seems to take a lot of room as well with so many empty abstract classes and that can be easily lost in the land of objects... it's becoming like a junkyard to me. Also, I noticed that virtually all instructions on how to use OOP use "car" or "cat" or "dog" analogies. Hello... we're not dealing with animals or cars... we're dealing with windows or consoles. You can talk about analogies to death and I will never learn. What I want is see a code that's written to show how objects are created - not, "aCow-moo!" For example, I want to see a browser window object displaying say... three inputs. I want to see an "object" created to output a window with three inputs then I want to see how overriding works, like change the window object to display only two inputs instead of three inputs. I think that would make learning more easy, wouldn't it? Any recommended tutorials of that nature instead of quacks, moos, and woofs.

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  • WCF service reference namespace differs from original

    - by Thorarin
    I'm having a problem regarding namespaces used by my service references. I have a number of WCF services, say with the namespace MyCompany.Services.MyProduct (the actual namespaces are longer). As part of the product, I'm also providing a sample C# .NET website. This web application uses the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct. During initial development, the service was added as a project reference to the website and uses directly. I used a factory pattern that returns an object instance that implements MyCompany.Services.MyProduct.IMyService. So far, so good. Now I want to change this to use an actual service reference. After adding the reference and typing MyCompany.Services.MyProduct in the namespace textbox, it generates classes in the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct.MyCompany.Services.MyProduct. BAD! I don't want to have to change using directives in several places just because I'm using a proxy class. So I tried prepending the namespace with global::, but that is not accepted. Note that I hadn't even deleted the original assembly references yet, and "reuse types" is enabled, but no reusing was done, apparently. However, I don't want to keep the assembly references around in my sample website for it to work anyway. The only solution I've come up with so far is setting the default namespace for my web application to MyCompany (because it cannot be empty), and adding the service reference as Services.MyProduct. Suppose that a customer wants to use my sample website as a starting point, and they change the default namespace to OtherCompany.Whatever, this will obviously break my workaround. Is there a good solution to this problem? To summarize: I want to generate a service reference proxy in the original namespace, without referencing the assembly. Note: I have seen this question, but there was no solution provided that is acceptable for my use case. Edit: As John Saunders suggested, I've submitted some feedback to Microsoft about this: Feedback item @ Microsoft Connect

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  • ASP.Net IE6 disable button

    - by RemotecUk
    Hi, I have the following code running as part of my OnClientclick attribute on my custom ASP.Net button.... function clickOnce(btnSubmit) { if ( typeof( Page_ClientValidate ) == 'function' ) { if ( ! Page_ClientValidate() ) { return false; } } btnSubmit.disabled = true; } There is a validator on the page. If a given text box is empty then the validator activates no problem. If a given text box is populated then the button disables but a post back does not occur. The rendered markup looks like this... <input type="submit" name="TestButton" value="Test Button" onclick="clickOnce(this);WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions(&quot;TestButton&quot;, &quot;&quot;, true, &quot;&quot;, &quot;&quot;, false, false))" id="TestButton" class="euva-button-decorated" /> This works nicely in Firefox but not in IE6. Its almost like after the button has been disabled it simply does not run the post back javascript. Any ideas welcomed. EDIT: I have tried returning true from the function as well.

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  • Associate "Code/Properties/Stuff" with Fields in C# without reflection. I am too indoctrinated by J

    - by AlexH
    I am building a library to automatically create forms for Objects in the project that I am working on. The codebase is in C#, and essentially we have a HUGE number of different objects to store information about different things. If I send these objects to the client side as JSON, it is easy enough to programatically inspect them to generate a form for all of the properties. The problem is that I want to be able to create a simple way of enforcing permissions and doing validation on the client side. It needs to be done on a field by field level. In javascript I would do this by creating a parallel object structure, which had some sort of { permissions : "someLevel", validator : someFunction } object at the nodes. With empty nodes implying free permissions and universal validation. This would let me simply iterate over the new object and the permissions object, run the check, and deal with the result. Because I am overfamilar with the hammer that is javascript, this is really the only way that I can see to deal with this problem. My first implementation thus uses reflection to let me treat objects as dictionaries, that can be programatically iterated over, and then I just have dictionaries of dictionaries of PermissionRule objects which can be compared with. Very javascripty. Very awkward. Is there some better way that I can do this? Essentially a way to associate a data set with each property, and then iterate over those properties. Or else am I Doing It Wrong?

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  • Closures and universal quantification

    - by Apocalisp
    I've been trying to work out how to implement Church-encoded data types in Scala. It seems that it requires rank-n types since you would need a first-class const function of type forAll a. a -> (forAll b. b -> b). However, I was able to encode pairs thusly: import scalaz._ trait Compose[F[_],G[_]] { type Apply = F[G[A]] } trait Closure[F[_],G[_]] { def apply[B](f: F[B]): G[B] } def pair[A,B](a: A, b: B) = new Closure[Compose[PartialApply1Of2[Function1,A]#Apply, PartialApply1Of2[Function1,B]#Apply]#Apply, Identity] { def apply[C](f: A => B => C) = f(a)(b) } For lists, I was able to get encode cons: def cons[A](x: A) = { type T[B] = B => (A => B => B) => B new Closure[T,T] { def apply[B](xs: T[B]) = (b: B) => (f: A => B => B) => f(x)(xs(b)(f)) } } However, the empty list is more problematic and I've not been able to get the Scala compiler to unify the types. Can you define nil, so that, given the definition above, the following compiles? cons(1)(cons(2)(cons(3)(nil)))

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  • Nmock2 and Event Expectations

    - by Kildareflare
    Im in the process of writing a test for a small application that follows the MVP pattern. Technically, I know I should have written the test before the code, but I needed to knock up a demo app quick smart and so im now going back to the test before moving on to the real development. In short I am attempting to test the presenter, however I cannot even get an empty test to run due to an Internal.ExpectationException. The exception is raised on a unexpected invocation of an event assignation. Here is the presenter class, public LBCPresenter(IView view, IModel model) { m_model = model; m_model.BatteryModifiedEvent += new EventHandler(m_model_BatteryModifiedEvent); } Model Interface public interface IModel { event EventHandler BatteryModifiedEvent; } And here is the test class, I can't see what im missing, ive told NMock to expect the event... [TestFixture] public class MVP_PresenterTester { private Mockery mocks; private IView _mockView; private IViewObserver _Presenter; private IModel _mockModel; [SetUp] public void SetUp() { mocks = new Mockery(); _mockView = mocks.NewMock<IView>(); _mockModel = mocks.NewMock<IModel>(); _Presenter = new LBCPresenter(_mockView, _mockModel); } [Test] public void TestClosingFormWhenNotDirty() { Expect.Once.On(_mockModel).EventAdd("BatteryModifiedEvent", NMock2.Is.Anything); //makes no difference if following line is commented out or not //mocks.VerifyAllExpectationsHaveBeenMet(); } } Every time I run the test I get the same expectation Exception. Any ideas?

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  • Django: How to dynamically add tag field to third party apps without touching app's source code

    - by Chris Lawlor
    Scenario: large project with many third party apps. Want to add tagging to those apps without having to modify the apps' source. My first thought was to first specify a list of models in settings.py (like ['appname.modelname',], and call django-tagging's register function on each of them. The register function adds a TagField and a custom manager to the specified model. The problem with that approach is that the function needs to run BEFORE the DB schema is generated. I tried running the register function directly in settings.py, but I need django.db.models.get_model to get the actual model reference from only a string, and I can't seem to import that from settings.py - no matter what I try I get an ImportError. The tagging.register function imports OK however. So I changed tactics and wrote a custom management command in an otherwise empty app. The problem there is that the only signal which hooks into syncdb is post_syncdb which is useless to me since it fires after the DB schema has been generated. The only other approach I can think of at the moment is to generate and run a 'south' like database schema migration. This seems more like a hack than a solution. This seems like it should be a pretty common need, but I haven't been able to find a clean solution. So my question is: Is it possible to dynamically add fields to a model BEFORE the schema is generated, but more specifically, is it possible to add tagging to a third party model without editing it's source. To clarify, I know it is possible to create and store Tags without having a TagField on the model, but there is a major flaw in that approach in that it is difficult to simultaneously create and tag a new model.

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  • Find min. "join" operations for sequence

    - by utyle
    Let's say, we have a list/an array of positive integers x1, x2, ... , xn. We can do a join operation on this sequence, that means that we can replace two elements that are next to each other with one element, which is sum of these elements. For example: - array/list: [1;2;3;4;5;6] we can join 2 and 3, and replace them with 5; we can join 5 and 6, and replace them with 11; we cannot join 2 and 4; we cannot join 1 and 3 etc. Main problem is to find minimum join operations for given sequence, after which this sequence will be sorted in increasing order. Note: empty and one-element sequences are sorted in increasing order. Basic examples: for [4; 6; 5; 3; 9] solution is 1 (we join 5 and 3) for [1; 3; 6; 5] solution is also 1 (we join 6 and 5) What I am looking for, is an algorithm that solve this problem. It could be in pseudocode, C, C++, PHP, OCaml or similar (I mean: I woluld understand solution, if You wrote solution in one of these languages). I would appreciate Your help.

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  • MySQL query does not return any data

    - by Alex L
    Hi, I need to retrieve data from a specific time period. The query works fine until I specify the time period. Is there something wrong with the way I specify time period? I know there are many entries within that time-frame. This query returns empty: SELECT stop_times.stop_id, STR_TO_DATE(stop_times.arrival_time, '%H:%i:%s') as stopTime, routes.route_short_name, routes.route_long_name, trips.trip_headsign FROM trips JOIN stop_times ON trips.trip_id = stop_times.trip_id JOIN routes ON routes.route_id = trips.route_id WHERE stop_times.stop_id = 5508 HAVING stopTime BETWEEN DATE_SUB(stopTime,INTERVAL 1 MINUTE) AND DATE_ADD(stopTime,INTERVAL 20 MINUTE); Here is it's EXPLAIN: +----+-------------+------------+--------+------------------+---------+---------+-------------------------------+------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+------------+--------+------------------+---------+---------+-------------------------------+------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | stop_times | ref | trip_id,stop_id | stop_id | 5 | const | 605 | Using where | | 1 | SIMPLE | trips | eq_ref | PRIMARY,route_id | PRIMARY | 4 | wmata_gtfs.stop_times.trip_id | 1 | | | 1 | SIMPLE | routes | eq_ref | PRIMARY | PRIMARY | 4 | wmata_gtfs.trips.route_id | 1 | | +----+-------------+------------+--------+------------------+---------+---------+-------------------------------+------+-------------+ 3 rows in set (0.00 sec) The query works if I remove the HAVING clause (don't specify time range). Returns: +---------+----------+------------------+-----------------+---------------+ | stop_id | stopTime | route_short_name | route_long_name | trip_headsign | +---------+----------+------------------+-----------------+---------------+ | 5508 | 06:31:00 | "80" | "" | "FORT TOTTEN" | | 5508 | 06:57:00 | "80" | "" | "FORT TOTTEN" | | 5508 | 07:23:00 | "80" | "" | "FORT TOTTEN" | | 5508 | 07:49:00 | "80" | "" | "FORT TOTTEN" | | 5508 | 08:15:00 | "80" | "" | "FORT TOTTEN" | | 5508 | 08:41:00 | "80" | "" | "FORT TOTTEN" | | 5508 | 09:08:00 | "80" | "" | "FORT TOTTEN" | I am using Google Transit format Data loaded into MySQL. The query is supposed to provide stop times and bus routes for a given bus stop. For a bus stop, I am trying to get: Route Name Bus Name Bus Direction (headsign) Stop time The results should be limited only to buses times from 1 min ago to 20 min from now. Please let me know if you could help.

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  • std::conditional compile-time branch evaluation

    - by cmannett85
    Compiling this: template < class T, class Y, class ...Args > struct isSame { static constexpr bool value = std::conditional< sizeof...( Args ), typename std::conditional< std::is_same< T, Y >::value, isSame< Y, Args... >, // Error! std::false_type >::type, std::is_same< T, Y > >::type::value; }; int main() { qDebug() << isSame< double, int >::value; return EXIT_SUCCESS; } Gives me this compiler error: error: wrong number of template arguments (1, should be 2 or more) The issue is that isSame< double, int > has an empty Args parameter pack, so isSame< Y, Args... > effectively becomes isSame< Y > which does not match the signature. But my question is: Why is that branch being evaluated at all? sizeof...( Args ) is false, so the inner std:conditional should not be evaluated. This isn't a runtime piece of code, the compiler knows that sizeof..( Args ) will never be true with the given template types. If you're curious, it's supposed to be a variadic version of std::is_same, not that it works...

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