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  • function returns after an XMLHttpRequest

    - by ashays
    Alright, I know questions like this have probably been asked dozens of times, but I can't seem to find a working solution for my project. Recently, while using jQuery for a lot of AJAX calls, I've found myself in a form of callback hell. Whether or not jQuery is too powerful for this project is beyond the scope of this question. So basically here's some code that shows what's going on: function check_form(table) { var file = "/models/"+table+".json"; var errs = {}; var xhr = $.getJSON(file, function(json) { for (key in json) { var k = key; var r = json[k]; $.extend(errs, check_item("#"+k,r)); } }); return errs; } And... as you can probably guess, I get an empty object returned. My original idea was to use some sort of onReadyStateChange idea that would return whenever the readyState had finally hit 4. This causes my application to hang indefinitely, though. I need these errors to decide whether or not the form is allowed to submit or not (as well as to tell the user where the errors are in the application. Any ideas? Edit. It's not the prettiest solution, but I've managed to get it to work. Basically, check_form has the json passed to it from another function, instead of loading it. I was already loading it there, too, so it's probably best that I don't continue to load the same file over and over again anyways. I was just worried about overloading memory. These files aren't absolutely huge, though, so I guess it's probably okay.

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  • C# custom control to get internal text as string

    - by Ed Woodcock
    ok, I'm working on a custom control that can contain some javascript, and read this out of the page into a string field. This is a workaround for dynamic javascript inside an updatepanel. At the moment, I've got it working, but if I try to put a server tag inside the block: <custom:control ID="Custom" runat="server"> <%= ControlName.ClientID %> </custom:control> The compiler does not like it. I know these are generated at runtime, and so might not be compatible with what I'm doing, but does anyone have any idea how I can get that working? EDIT Error message is: Code blocks are not supported in this context EDIT 2 The control: [DataBindingHandler("System.Web.UI.Design.TextDataBindingHandler, System.Design, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a"), ControlValueProperty("Text"), DefaultProperty("Text"), ParseChildren(true, "Text"), AspNetHostingPermission(SecurityAction.LinkDemand, Level = AspNetHostingPermissionLevel.Minimal), AspNetHostingPermission(SecurityAction.InheritanceDemand, Level = AspNetHostingPermissionLevel.Minimal)] public class CustomControl : Control, ITextControl { [DefaultValue(""), Bindable(true), Localizable(true)] public string Text { get { return (string)(ViewState["Text"] ?? string.Empty); } set { ViewState["Text"] = value; } } }

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  • get value from css using document.getElementById().style.height javascript

    - by Jamex
    Hi, Please offer insight into this mystery. I am trying to get the height value from a div box by var high = document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height; alert(high); I can get this value just fine if the attribute is contained within the div tag, but it returns a blank value if the attribute is defined in the css section. This is fine, it shows 100px as a value. The value can be accessed. <div id="hintdiv" style="height:100px; display: none;"> . . var high = document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height; alert(high); This is not fine, it shows an empty alert screen. The value is practically 0. #hintdiv { height:100px display: none; } <div id="hintdiv"> . . var high = document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height; alert(high); But I have no problem accessing/changing the "display:none" attribute whether it is in the tag or in the css section. The div box displays correctly by both attribute definition methods (inside the tag or in the css section). I also tried to access the value by other variations, but no luck document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height.value ----> undefined document.getElementById("hintdiv").height ---->undefined document.getElementById("hintdiv").height.value ----> error, no execution Any solution? TIA.

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  • how to change ASP.NET Configuration tool connection string

    - by Zviadi
    Hello, how can I change ASP.NET Configuration tool-s connection string name? (Which connection string will ASP.NET Configuration tool will use) I'm learning ASP.NET and everywhere and in book that I'm reading now theres connection string named: LocalSqlServer. I want to use my local sql server database instead of sql express to store Roles, Membership and other data. I have used aspnet_regsql.exe to create needed data structures in my database. after that I changed my web.config to look like: <connectionStrings> <remove name="LocalSqlServer"/> <add name="LocalSqlServer" connectionString="Server=(LOCAL); Database=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> but when I run ASP.NET Configuration tool it says that: "The connection name 'ApplicationServices' was not found in the applications configuration or the connection string is empty." ASP.NET Configuration tool uses connection string named: ApplicationServices not LocalSqlServer. cause of that I have to modify web.config to: <connectionStrings> <add name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Server=(LOCAL); Database=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> and everything works fine. I wish to know why the hell my web site uses connection string named: ApplicationServices and all books and online documentations uses LocalSqlServer? and how to change it to LocalSqlServer? I have: Windows 7 Sql Server 2008 R2 Visual Studio 2010 Premium Project type is website

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  • Remove application entry from switch-app menu

    - by bdhar
    What am I trying to achieve? I am writing a windows-form based application in C# .NET 2.0. The application should behave like this: No form should be visible; just a system tray icon is the entire application. So, I have to hide the form during startup and make a NotifyIcon available in the system tray with a ContextMenuStrip attached to it. What have I done so far? I have created a Windows application with the default form's properties WindowState-Minimized and ShowInTaskbar-false. Added a NotifyIcon and attached a ContextMenuStrip to it. What's happening? The application starts as a system tray icon and the form is hidden. So far so good. But when I am working with other applications and when I switch between other application using the Alt-Tab combination in Windows, the application icon appears in the switch-application menu; and when I select my application, the form appears. What's expected? The application should not be available in the switch-application menu; because, the form is empty and there is no functionality attached to it. All that is needed is the system-tray icon. How to hide the application entry from the switch-application menu? Thanks.

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  • Managed bean property value not set to null

    - by Vladimir
    Hi! I'm new to JSF, so this question might be strange. I have an inputText component's value bound to managed bean's property of type Float. I need to set property to null when inputText field is empty, not to 0 value. It's not done by default, so I added converter with the following method implemented: public Object getAsObject(FacesContext arg0, UIComponent arg1, String arg2) throws ConverterException { if (StringUtils.isEmpty(arg2)) { return null; } float result = Float.parseFloat(arg2); if (result == 0) { return null; } return result; } I registered converter, and assigned it to inputText component. I logged arg2 argument, and also logged return value from getAsObject method. By my log I can see that it returns null value. But, I also log setter property on backing bean and argument is 0 value, not null as expected. To be more precise, it is setter property is called twice, once with null argument, second time with 0 value argument. It still sets backing bean value to 0. How can I set value to null? Thanks in advance.

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  • Avoid MySQL multi-results from SP with Execute

    - by hhyhbpen
    Hi, i have an SP like BEGIN DECLARE ... CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE tmptbl_found (...); PREPARE find FROM" INSERT INTO tmptbl_found (SELECT userid FROM ( SELECT userid FROM Soul WHERE .?.?. ORDER BY .?.?. ) AS left_tbl LEFT JOIN Contact ON userid = Contact.userid WHERE Contact.userid IS NULL LIMIT ?) "; DECLARE iter CURSOR FOR SELECT userid, ... FROM Soul ...; ... l:LOOP FETCH iter INTO u_id, ...; ... EXECUTE find USING ...,. . .,u_id,...; ... END LOOP; ... END// and it gives multi-results. Besides it's inconvenient, if i get all this multi-results (which i really don't need at all), about 5 (limit's param) for each of the hundreds of thousands of records in Soul, i'm afraid it will take all my memory (and all in vain). Also, i noticed, if i do prepare from an empty string, it still has multi-results... At least how to get rid of them in the execute statement? And i would like to have a recipe to avoid ANY output from SP, for any possible statement (i also have a lot of "update ..."s and "select ... into "s inside, if they can produce multi's). Tnx for any help...

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  • How to use JQuery Validate to create a popup with all form error when the submit button is clicked?

    - by Larry
    I am using the JQuery Validation plugin for client side form validation. In addition to the colorful styling on invalid form fields, my client requires that a popup message be shown. I only want to show this message when the submit button is click because it would drive the user crazy otherwise. I tried the following code, but errorList is always empty. Anyone know the correct way to do something similar. function popupFormErrors(formId) { var validator = $(formId).validate(); var message = ''; for (var i = 0; i < validator.errorList.length - 1; i++) { message += validator.errorList[i].message + '\n'; } if (message.length > 0) { alert(message); } } $('#btn-form-submit').click(function(){ $('#form-register').submit(); popupFormErrors('#btn-form-submit'); return false; }); $('#form-register').validate({ errorPlacement: function(error, element) {/* no room on page */}, highlight: function(element) { $(element).addClass('invalid-input'); }, unhighlight: function(element) { $(element).removeClass('invalid-input'); }, ... }); Update From the info in the accepted answer I came up with this. var submitClicked = false; $('#btn-form-submit').click(function() { submitClicked = true; $('#form-register').submit(); return false; }); $('#form-register').validate({ errorPlacement: function(error, element) {/* no room on page */}, highlight: function(element) { $(element).addClass('invalid-input'); }, unhighlight: function(element) { $(element).removeClass('invalid-input'); }, showErrors: function(errorsObj) { this.defaultShowErrors(); if (submitClicked) { submitClicked = false; ... create popup from errorsObj... } } ... });

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  • C++ iterators, default initialization and what to use as an uninitialized sentinel.

    - by Hassan Syed
    The Context I have a custom template container class put together from a map and vector. The map resolves a string to an ordinal, and the vector resolves an ordinal (only an initial string to ordinal lookup is done, future references are to the vector) to the entry. The entries are modified intrusively to contain a a bool "assigned" and an iterator_type which is a const_iterator to the container class's map. My container class will use RCF's serialization code (which models boost::serialization) to serialize my container classes to nodes in a network. Serializing iterator's is not possible, or a can of worms, and I can easily regenerate them onces the vectors and maps are serialized on the remote site. The Question I need to default initialize, and be able to test that the iterator has not been assigned to (if it is assigned it is valid, if not it is invalid). Since map iterators are not invalidated upon operations performed on it (unless of course items are removed :D) am I to assume that map<x,y>::end() is a valid sentinel (regardless of the state of the map -- i.e., it could be empty) to initialize to ? I will always have access to the parent map, I'm just unsure wheather end() is the same as the map contents change. I don't want to use another level of indirection (--i.e., boost::optional) to achieve my goal, I'd rather forego compiler checks to correct logic, but it would be nice if I didn't need to. Misc This question exists, but most of its content seems non-sense. Assigning a NULL to an iterator is invalid according to g++ and clang++. This is another similar question, but it focuses on the common use-cases of iterators, which generally tends to be using the iterator to iterate, ofcourse in this use-case the state of the container isn't meant to change whilst iteration is going on.

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  • Export GridView to Excel (not working)

    - by Chiramisu
    I've spent the last two days trying to get some bloody data to export to Excel. After much research I determined that the best and most common way is using HttpResponse headers as shown in my code below. After stepping through countless times in debug mode, I have confirmed that the data is in fact there and both filtered and sorted the way I want it. However, it does not download as an Excel file, or do anything at all for that matter. I suspect this may have something to do with my UpdatePanel or perhaps the ImageButton not posting back properly, but I'm not sure. What am I doing wrong? Please help me to debug this issue. I will be eternally grateful. Thank you. :) Markup <asp:UpdatePanel ID="statusUpdatePanel" runat="server" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="btnExportXLS" EventName="Click" /> </Triggers> <ContentTemplate> <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server" AllowPaging="True" PageSize="10" AllowSorting="True" DataSourceID="GridView1SDS" DataKeyNames="ID"> </asp:GridView> <span><asp:ImageButton ID="btnExportXLS" runat="server" /></span> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> Codebehind Protected Sub ExportToExcel() Handles btnExportXLS.Click Dim dt As New DataTable() Dim da As New SqlDataAdapter(SelectCommand, ConnectionString) da.Fill(dt) Dim gv As New GridView() gv.DataSource = dt gv.DataBind() Dim frm As HtmlForm = New HtmlForm() frm.Controls.Add(gv) Dim sw As New IO.StringWriter() Dim hw As New System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter(sw) Response.ContentType = "application/vnd.ms-excel" Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", "attachment;filename=Report.xls") Response.Charset = String.Empty gv.RenderControl(hw) Response.Write(sw.ToString()) Response.End() End Sub

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  • Loading a CSV file using jQuery GET returns the header but no data

    - by Cees Meijer
    When reading a CSV file from a server using the jQuery 'GET' function I do not get any data. When I look at the code using FireBug I can see the GET request is sent and the return value is '200 OK'. Also I see that the header is returned correctly so the request is definitely made, and data is returned. This is also what I see in Wireshark. Here I see the complete contents of the CSV file is returned as a standard HTTP response. But the actual data is not there in my script. Firebug shows an empty response and the 'success' function is never called. What could be wrong ? <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>New Web Project</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <script src="jquery.js" type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var csvData; $(document).ready(function() { $("#btnGET").click(function() { csvData = $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "http://www.mywebsite.com/data/sample_file.csv", dataType: "text/csv", success: function () { alert("done!"+ csvData.getAllResponseHeaders()) } }); }); }) </script> </head> <body> <h1>New Web Project Page</h1> <button id="btnGET">GET Data</button> </body> </html>

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  • SQL Server 2008 - Keyword search using table Join

    - by Aaron Wagner
    Ok, I created a Stored Procedure that, among other things, is searching 5 columns for a particular keyword. To accomplish this, I have the keywords parameter being split out by a function and returned as a table. Then I do a Left Join on that table, using a LIKE constraint. So, I had this working beautifully, and then all of the sudden it stops working. Now it is returning every row, instead of just the rows it needs. The other caveat, is that if the keyword parameter is empty, it should ignore it. Given what's below, is there A) a glaring mistake, or B) a more efficient way to approach this? Here is what I have currently: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[usp_getOppsPaged] @startRowIndex int, @maximumRows int, @city varchar(100) = NULL, @state char(2) = NULL, @zip varchar(10) = NULL, @classification varchar(15) = NULL, @startDateMin date = NULL, @startDateMax date = NULL, @endDateMin date = NULL, @endDateMax date = NULL, @keywords varchar(400) = NULL AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; ;WITH Results_CTE AS ( SELECT opportunities.*, organizations.*, departments.dept_name, departments.dept_address, departments.dept_building_name, departments.dept_suite_num, departments.dept_city, departments.dept_state, departments.dept_zip, departments.dept_international_address, departments.dept_phone, departments.dept_website, departments.dept_gen_list, ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY opp_id) AS RowNum FROM opportunities JOIN departments ON opportunities.dept_id = departments.dept_id JOIN organizations ON departments.org_id=organizations.org_id LEFT JOIN Split(',',@keywords) AS kw ON (title LIKE '%'+kw.s+'%' OR [description] LIKE '%'+kw.s+'%' OR tasks LIKE '%'+kw.s+'%' OR requirements LIKE '%'+kw.s+'%' OR comments LIKE '%'+kw.s+'%') WHERE ( (@city IS NOT NULL AND (city LIKE '%'+@city+'%' OR dept_city LIKE '%'+@city+'%' OR org_city LIKE '%'+@city+'%')) OR (@state IS NOT NULL AND ([state] = @state OR dept_state = @state OR org_state = @state)) OR (@zip IS NOT NULL AND (zip = @zip OR dept_zip = @zip OR org_zip = @zip)) OR (@classification IS NOT NULL AND (classification LIKE '%'+@classification+'%')) OR ((@startDateMin IS NOT NULL AND @startDateMax IS NOT NULL) AND ([start_date] BETWEEN @startDateMin AND @startDateMax)) OR ((@endDateMin IS NOT NULL AND @endDateMax IS NOT NULL) AND ([end_date] BETWEEN @endDateMin AND @endDateMax)) OR ( (@city IS NULL AND @state IS NULL AND @zip IS NULL AND @classification IS NULL AND @startDateMin IS NULL AND @startDateMax IS NULL AND @endDateMin IS NULL AND @endDateMin IS NULL) ) ) ) SELECT * FROM Results_CTE WHERE RowNum >= @startRowIndex AND RowNum < @startRowIndex + @maximumRows; END

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  • Mapping an instance of IList in NHibernate

    - by Martin Kirsche
    I'm trying to map a parent-child relationship using NHibernate (2.1.2), MySql.Data (6.2.2) and MySQL Server (5.1). I figured out that this must be done using a <bag> in the mapping file. I build a test app which is running without yielding any errors and is doing an insert for each entry but somehow the foreign key inside the children table (ParentId) is always empty (null). Here are the important parts of my code... Parent public class Parent { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual IList<Child> Children { get; set; } } <class name="Parent"> <id name="Id"> <generator class="native"/> </id> <bag name="Children" cascade="all"> <key column="ParentId"/> <one-to-many class="Child"/> </bag> </class> Child public class Child { public virtual int Id { get; set; } } <class name="Child"> <id name="Id"> <generator class="native"/> </id> </class> Program using (ISession session = sessionFactory.OpenSession()) { session.Save( new Parent() { Children = new List<Child>() { new Child(), new Child() } }); } Any ideas what I did wrong?

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  • Creating a cocoa Application without nib files/fully pragmatic

    - by Moddy
    Yes, I know this goes against the whole MVC principle! However, I'm just trying to whip up a pretty trivial application - and I've pretty much implemented it pragmatically. However, I have a problem... I create an Empty Project, copy all the frameworks over and set the build settings - and I get errors about the executable.. or lack of executable. The build settings all appear fine, but it tells me there is no executable - it will build + run fine.. however it doesn't run. There is no error either - it just appears to run very fast and cleanly! Unless I try and run gdb which politely tells me I need to give it a file first.. Running… No executable file specified. Use the "file" or "exec-file" command. So I created a Cocoa Application, removed all the stuff I didn't need (i.e the MainMenu.xib file..) and now I can compile my code perfectly.. however it dies with complaining that its "Unable to load nib file: MainMenu, exiting" I have gone through the Project Symbols and see that the code actually relies upon the nib file heavily, even if you don't touch it code-wise. (MVC again I guess..) So my question is - is there a simple way to compile just what you code, no added nib files, just the code you write and the frameworks you add? I assume it would be a blank project but my experience tells me otherwise?!

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  • How to Resolve a Transformation Service with BRE that occurs after an Orchestration in an Itinerary?

    - by Maxime Labelle
    In trying to implement simple integration patterns with Biztalk ESB Toolkit 2.0, I'm facing a problem trying to resolve a Transformation Itinerary Service that occurs after an Orchestration. I'm using the BRE Resolver to execute rules that need to inspect the Context Message Type property to determine the appropriate map to use. However, once the message reaches the step in the Itinerary associated with the Transformation Service, the map fails to execute. From careful investigation, it appears that the message type is not supplied to the "Resolution" object that is used internally by the BRE resolver. Indeed, since the message leaving the preceding Orchestration is typed System.Xml.XmlDocument, the type of the message is "demoted" from the context. By tracking rules engine execution, I can observe that the type of the message is indeed lost when reaching the BRE resolver. The type of the message is empty, whereas the strongly-typed of the document is Microsoft.XLANGs.BaseTypes.Any. The Orchestration service that I use is taken straight from the samples that ship with ESB Toolkit 2.0. Is there a way to perform Context-Based BRE resolution after an Orchestration in an Itinerary?

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  • Get an array of structures from native dll to c# application

    - by PaulH
    I have a C# .NET 2.0 CF project where I need to invoke a method in a native C++ DLL. This native method returns an array of type TableEntry. At the time the native method is called, I do not know how large the array will be. How can I get the table from the native DLL to the C# project? Below is effectively what I have now. // in C# .NET 2.0 CF project [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct TableEntry { [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] public string description; public int item; public int another_item; public IntPtr some_data; } [DllImport("MyDll.dll", CallingConvention = CallingConvention.Winapi, CharSet = CharSet.Auto)] public static extern bool GetTable(ref TableEntry[] table); SomeFunction() { TableEntry[] table = null; bool success = GetTable( ref table ); // at this point, the table is empty } // In Native C++ DLL std::vector< TABLE_ENTRY > global_dll_table; extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) bool GetTable( TABLE_ENTRY* table ) { table = &global_dll_table.front(); return true; } Thanks, PaulH

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  • Identify server that made call to web service

    - by sleepybobos
    I am working within an intranet environment. We have both a production and development sharepoint server (WSS 3). We have a 3rd party workflow product which runs on top of sharepoint. It is installed on both the production and development sharepoint servers. The workflow product can call web services I have written which are hosted on our web server. How would I have the web services determine which sharepoint server made the call to the web service, be it the production or development server? I would then use this information to server specific information from web.config or database etc. Currently the site hosting web services is setup to allow anonymous access so code such as System.Web.HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name; returns and empty string. If windows authenticaion is used it returns the identity of the currently logged in user, which is no user in identifying the server the call was made from. I need a push in the right direction to address what I believe is probably a common scenario please.

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  • What is the IoC / "Springy" way to handle MVP in GWT? (Hint, probably not the Spring Roo 1.1 way)

    - by Ehrann Mehdan
    This is the Spring Roo 1.1 way of doing a factory that returns a GWT Activity (Yes, Spring Framework) public Activity getActivity(ProxyPlace place) { switch (place.getOperation()) { case DETAILS: return new EmployeeDetailsActivity((EntityProxyId<EmployeeProxy>)place.getProxyId(), requests, placeController, ScaffoldApp.isMobile() ? EmployeeMobileDetailsView.instance() : EmployeeDetailsView.instance()); case EDIT: return makeEditActivity(place); case CREATE: return makeCreateActivity(); } throw new IllegalArgumentException("Unknown operation " + place.getOperation()); } It seems to me that we just went back hundred of years if we use a switch case with constants to make a factory. Now this is official auto generated Spring roo 1.1 with GWT / GAE integration, I kid you not I can only assume this is some executives empty announcements because this is definitly not Spring It seems VMWare and Google were too fast to get something out and didn't quite finish it, isn't it? Am I missing something or this is half baked and by far not the way Spring + GWT MVP should work? Do you have a better example of how Spring, GWT (2.1 MVP approach) and GAE should connect? I would hate to do all the plumbing of managing history and activities like this. (no annotations? IOC?) I also would hate to reinvent the wheel and write my own Spring enhancement just to find someone else did the same, or worse, find out that SpringSource and Google will release roo 1.2 soon and make it right

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  • MVC4 - how to vaildate a drop down list?

    - by Grant Roy
    I have a .Net MVC4 model / view with a number of [Required] fields, one of which is selected via a drop down list, "Content_CreatedBy" [the first code block below]. Client side validation fires on all fields except the DDL [although server side validation does not allow no entry in DDL]. I have tried validating on the DDL text as well its numeric value but niether fire on the client side. Can anyone see what I am doing wrong? Thanks Model [Required] [Display(Name = "Author")] [ForeignKey("ContentContrib")] [Range(1, 99, ErrorMessage = "Author field is required.")] public virtual int Content_CreatedBy { get; set; } [Required] [Display(Name = "Date")] public virtual DateTime Content_CreatedDate { get; set; } [Required] [DataType(DataType.MultilineText)] [Display(Name = "Source / Notes ")] [StringLength(10, MinimumLength = 3)] public virtual string Content_Sources { get; set; } [Required] [Display(Name = "Keywords")] [StringLength(50, MinimumLength = 3)] public virtual string Content_KeyWords { get; set; } VIEW <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.Content_CreatedBy, new { @class="whitelabel"}) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.DropDownList("Content_CreatedBy", String.Empty) @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Content_CreatedBy) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Content_CreatedBy) </div>

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  • Reporting Services - can't group by a column called "LanguageId"

    - by marc_s
    Folks, I have a really odd behavior here: I have a SQL Server 2008 Reporting Services report which gets grouped and sorted dynamically. One of the column in my data set which I display is called LanguageId and I was trying to get a grouping going by this LanguageId field. I checked, double-checked and triple-checked the data being returned - it does contain my expected values for LanguageId and everything seems fine and dandy. It just never worked - I didn't get the expected groups, I got things like a specific node actually changing its display value from one ID to another when expanding its subitems, and other really whacky stuff. I discovered that grouping and sorting by LanguageCaption works just fine. It also started working fine after I renamed LanguageId to MyLanguageId. So where on earth is this documented that LanguageId appears to be a system variable / reserved word / keyword of some sort in SQL Server Reporting Services that must be avoided at all costs?? I can't seem to find anything on that topic - even Mr. Google and Mrs. Bing came up empty so far....

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  • jquery.append() - only the last element of my list is appended, previous ones are erased

    - by jaes
    Hi, I have a page like this : <div id="daysTable"> <div id="day0" class="day"></div> <div id="day1" class="day"></div> <div id="day2" class="day"></div> <div id="day3" class="day"></div> <div id="day4" class="day"></div> <div id="day5" class="day"></div> <div id="day6" class="day"></div> </div> and some javascript to fill my calendar like this function getWeek(){ $.getJSON("/getWeek",function(events){ var eventHeight = $("#hoursTable > div").height(); var eventWidth = $("#daysTable > div").width(); var startWeek = events[0]// timestamp of the start of the week for(var i = 1; i < events.length; i ++){ $(".day").empty(); var startHour = (events[i].startDate - startWeek)/3600 var duration = (events[i].stopDate - startWeek)/3600 - startHour var dayStart = Math.floor(startHour/24); var startHour = startHour - dayStart * 24 divEvent = $('<div id="event'+events[i].idEvent+'"/>') .width(eventWidth-2) .height(duration*eventHeight) .css("border","1px solid black") .css("margin-top",startHour*eventHeight) .html(events[i].name); divEvent.appendTo("#day"+dayStart); console.log(divEvent); } }); } my problem being : events contain 3 element I'd like to display but only the last is displayed. If I stop my "for" at the first iteration I can see the first div appended, but it seems that if my loop goes for three iteration the two previous are deleted. The console.log() display some "not-anymore" existing element. Any idea ?

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  • opening a new page and passing a parameter to it with Javascript

    - by recipriversexclusion
    I have a JS function that processes XML I GET from a server to dynamically create a table as below // Generate table of services by parsing the returned XML service list. function convertServiceXmlDataToTable(xml) { var tbodyElem = document.getElementById("myTbody"); var trElem, tdElem; var j = 0; $(xml).find("Service").each(function() { trElem = tbodyElem.insertRow(tbodyElem.rows.length); trElem.className = "tr" + (j % 2); // first column -> service ID var serviceID = $(this).attr("service__id"); tdElem = trElem.insertCell(trElem.cells.length); tdElem.className = "col0"; tdElem.innerHTML = serviceID; // second column -> service name tdElem = trElem.insertCell(trElem.cells.length); tdElem.className = "col1"; tdElem.innerHTML = "<a href=javascript:showServiceInfo(" + serviceID + ")>" + $(this).find("name").text() + "</a>"; j++; }); // each service } where showServiceInfo retrieves more detailed information about each service from the server based on the serviceID and displays it in the same page as the services table. So far so good. But, it turns out that I have to display the detailed service information in another page rather than the same page as the table. I have creates a generic service_info.html with an empty layout template, but I don't understand how to pass serviceID to this new page so that it gets customized with the detailed service info. How can I do this? Or, is there a better way to handle these situations? Thanks!

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  • Proper way of naming your Java Google App Engine Project

    - by Saif Bechan
    I am starting out with Google's App Engine in Java. I have seen the tutorial video but I do not understand the naming of the project package. It is going to be a guestbook, that's why the name is guestbook, I understand that part. But after that I see package name. 1)Is that something you import into the project, or is is something you create. I have seen this a lot in projects, something like com.xxx.xxx. 2)How do you name this type of thing or is this an import. I have looked at another tutorial there they take the naming to a whole new level. The name of both the project and the package is de.vogella.gae.java.todo. 3)What does this mean in java terms. 4)Maybe one of you can help me with this specific project I want to start. I want to create a Google App project that for now only serves static files. I will leave the project empty and just put all my static files in the war directory of the project. I want the domain name to be mydomainstatic

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  • using string to read file - XCode

    - by Fernando
    The following does not work and gives me a SIGABRT when I run in the debugger: std::ifstream inFile; inFile.open("/Users/fernandonewyork/inputText.txt"); cout << inFile << endl; vector<string> inText; if (inFile) { string s4; while (inFile>>s4) { inText.push_back(s4); } } inFile.close(); The following does: std::ifstream inFile; inFile.open("/Users/fernandonewyork/inputText.txt"); cout << inFile << endl; vector<string> inText; if (inFile) { string s4("This is no lnger an empty string"); while (inFile>>s4) { inText.push_back(s4); } } inFile.close(); I was under the impression I was able to simply use s4 without having to worry about any space considerations, or is something else happening here? This is the full error I get from the top code: malloc: * error for object 0x100010a20: pointer being freed was not allocated * set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug Program received signal: “SIGABRT”.

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  • C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

    - by zinking
    there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

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