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  • methods of metaclasses on class instances.

    - by Stefano Borini
    I was wondering what happens to methods declared on a metaclass. I expected that if you declare a method on a metaclass, it will end up being a classmethod, however, the behavior is different. Example >>> class A(object): ... @classmethod ... def foo(cls): ... print "foo" ... >>> a=A() >>> a.foo() foo >>> A.foo() foo However, if I try to define a metaclass and give it a method foo, it seems to work the same for the class, not for the instance. >>> class Meta(type): ... def foo(self): ... print "foo" ... >>> class A(object): ... __metaclass__=Meta ... def __init__(self): ... print "hello" ... >>> >>> a=A() hello >>> A.foo() foo >>> a.foo() Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> AttributeError: 'A' object has no attribute 'foo' What's going on here exactly ? edit: bumping the question

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  • Oracle - UPSERT with update not executed for unmodified values

    - by Buthrakaur
    I'm using following update or insert Oracle statement at the moment: BEGIN UPDATE DSMS SET SURNAME = :SURNAME, FIRSTNAME = :FIRSTNAME, VALID = :VALID WHERE DSM = :DSM; IF (SQL%ROWCOUNT = 0) THEN INSERT INTO DSMS (DSM, SURNAME, FIRSTNAME, VALID) VALUES (:DSM, :SURNAME, :FIRSTNAME, :VALID); END IF; END; This runs fine except that the update statement performs dummy update if the data is same as the parameter values provided. I would not mind the dummy update in normal situation, but there's a replication/synchronization system build over this table using triggers on tables to capture updated records and executing this statement frequently for many records simply means that I'd cause huge traffic in triggers and the sync system. Is there any simple method how to reformulate this code that the update statement wouldn't update record if not necessary without using following IF-EXISTS check code which I find not sleek enough and maybe also not most efficient for this task? DECLARE CNT NUMBER; BEGIN SELECT COUNT(1) INTO CNT FROM DSMS WHERE DSM = :DSM; IF SQL%FOUND THEN UPDATE DSMS SET SURNAME = :SURNAME, FIRSTNAME = :FIRSTNAME, VALID = :VALID WHERE DSM = :DSM AND (SURNAME != :SURNAME OR FIRSTNAME != :FIRSTNAME OR VALID != :VALID); ELSE INSERT INTO DSMS (DSM, SURNAME, FIRSTNAME, VALID) VALUES (:DSM, :SURNAME, :FIRSTNAME, :VALID); END IF; END;

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  • HTML5 audio object doesn't play on iPad (when called from a setTimeout)

    - by Dan Halliday
    I have a page with a hidden <audio> object which is being started and stopped using a custom button via javascript. (The reason being I want to customise the button, and that drawing an audio player seems to destroy rendering performance on iPad anyway). A simplified example (in coffeescript): // Works fine on all browsers constructor: (@_button, @_audio) -> @_button.on 'click', @_play // Bind button's click event with jQuery _play: (e) => @_audio[0].play() // Call play() on audio element The audio plays fine when triggered from a function bound to a click event, but I actually want an animation to complete before the file plays so I put .play() inside a setTimeout. However I just can't get this to work: // Will not play on iPad constructor: (@_button, @_audio) -> @_button.on 'click', @_play // Bind button's click event with jQuery _play: (e) => setTimeout (=> // Declare a 300ms timeout @_audio[0].play() // Call play() on audio element ), 300 I've checked that @_audio (this._audio) is in scope and that its play() method exists. Why doesn't this work on iPad?

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  • updating multiple nodes in xml with xquery and xdmp:node-replace

    - by morja
    Hi all, I wnat to update an XML document in my xml database (Marklogic). I have xml as input and want to replace each node that exists in the target xml. If a node does not exist it would be great if it gets added, but thats maybe another task. My XML in the database: <user> <username>username</username> <firstname>firstname</firstname> <lastname>lastname</lastname> <email>[email protected]</email> <comment>comment</comment> </user> The value of $user_xml: <user> <firstname>new firstname</firstname> <lastname>new lastname</lastname> </user> My function so far: declare function update-user ( $username as xs:string, $user_xml as node()) as empty-sequence() { let $uri := user-uri($username) return for $node in $user_xml/user return xdmp:node-replace(fn:doc($uri)/user/fn:node-name($node), $node) }; First of all I cannot iterate over $user_xml/user. If I try to iterate over $user_xml I get "arg1 is not of type node()" exception. But maybe its the wrong approach anyway? Does anybody maybe have sample code how to do this?

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  • Java downcasting and is-A has-A relationship

    - by msharma
    HI, I have a down casting question, I am a bit rusty in this area. I have 2 clasess like this: class A{ int i; String j ; //Getters and setters} class B extends A{ String k; //getter and setter} I have a method like this, in a Utility helper class: public static A converts(C c){} Where C are objects that are retireved from the database and then converted. The problem is I want to call the above method by passing in a 'C' and getting back B. So I tried this: B bClasss = (B) Utility.converts(c); So even though the above method returns A I tried to downcast it to B, but I get a runtime ClassCastException. Is there really no way around this? DO I have to write a separate converts() method which returns a B class type? If I declare my class B like: class B { String k; A a;} // So instead of extending A it has-a A, getter and setters also then I can call my existing method like this: b.setA(Utility.converts(c) ); This way I can reuse the existing method, even though the extends relationship makes more sense. What should I do? Any help much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Namespace constraint with generic class decleration

    - by SomeGuy
    Good afternoon people, I would like to know if (and if so how) it is possible to define a namespace as a constraint parameter in a generic class declaration. What I have is this: namespace MyProject.Models.Entities <-- Contains my classes to be persisted in db namespace MyProject.Tests.BaseTest <-- Obvious i think Now the decleration of my 'BaseTest' class looks like so; public class BaseTest<T> This BaseTest does little more (at the time of writing) than remove all entities that were added to the database during testing. So typically I will have a test class declared as: public class MyEntityRepositoryTest : BaseTest<MyEntity> What i would LIKE to do is something similar to the following: public class BaseTest<T> where T : <is of the MyProject.Models.Entities namespace> Now i am aware that it would be entirely possible to simply declare a 'BaseEntity' class from which all entities created within the MyProject.Models.Entities namespace will inherit from; public class BaseTest<T> where T : MyBaseEntity but...I dont actually need to, or want to. Plus I am using an ORM and mapping entities with inheritance, although possible, adds a layer of complexity that is not required. So, is it possible to constrain a generic class parameter to a namespace and not a specific type ? Thank you for your time.

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  • Centralized Exception handling for Eclipse plug-in

    - by Svilen
    Hello, At first I thought this would be question often asked, however trying (and failing) to look up info on this proved me wrong. Is there a mechanism in Eclipse platform for centralized exception handling of exceptions? For example... You have plug-in project which connects to a DB and issues queries, results of which are used to populate some e.g. views. This is like the most common example ever. :) Queries are executed almost for any user action, from every UI control the plug-in provides. Most likely the DB Query API will have some specific to the DB SomeDBGeneralException declared as being thrown by it. That's OK, you can handle those according to whatever your software design is. But how about unchecked exceptions which are likely to occur, e.g. , when communication with DB suddenly breaks for some network related reason? What if in such case one would like to catch those exceptions in a central place and for example provide user friendly message to the user (rather than the low level communication protocol api messages) and even some possible actions the user could execute in order to deal with the specific problem? Thinking in Eclipse platform context, the question may be rephrased as "Is there an extension point like "org.eclipse.ExceptionHandler" which allows to declare exception handlers for specific (some kind of filtering support) exceptions giving a lot of flexibility with the actual handling?"

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  • SQL Server 2005 - Building a WHERE clause

    - by user336786
    Hello, I have a stored procedure that is dynamically building a query. The where clause associated with this query is based on filter values selected by a user. No matter what I do though, the where clause does not seem to get set. -- Dynamically build the WHERE clause based on the filters DECLARE @whereClause as nvarchar(1024) IF (@hasSpouse > -1) BEGIN IF (@hasSpouse = 0) SET @whereClause='p.[HasSpouse]=0' ELSE SET @whereClause='(p.[HasSpouse]=1 OR p.[HasSpouse] IS NULL)' END -- Dynamically add the next filter if necessary IF (@isVegan > -1) BEGIN IF (LEN(@whereClause) > 0) BEGIN SET @whereClause = @whereClause + ' AND ' END IF (@isVegan = 0) SET @whereClause = @whereClause + 'c.[IsVegan]=0' ELSE SET @whereClause = @whereClause + '(c.[IsVegan]=1 OR c.[IsVegan] IS NULL)' END PRINT @whereClause The @whereClause never prints anything. In turn, the LEN(@whereClause) is always NULL. The @isVegan and @hasSpouse values are passed into the stored procedure. The values are what I expected. What am I doing wrong? Why is the @whereClause never being set? Thank you for your help! Thank you!

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  • How to manually set an authenticated user in Spring Security / SpringMVC

    - by David Parks
    After a new user submits a 'New account' form, I want to manually log that user in so they don't have to login on the subsequent page. The normal form login page going through the spring security interceptor works just fine. In the new-account-form controller I am creating a UsernamePasswordAuthenticationToken and setting it in the SecurityContext manually: SecurityContextHolder.getContext().setAuthentication(authentication); On that same page I later check that the user is logged in with: SecurityContextHolder.getContext().getAuthentication().getAuthorities(); This returns the authorities I set earlier in the authentication. All is well. But when this same code is called on the very next page I load, the authentication token is just UserAnonymous. I'm not clear why it did not keep the authentication I set on the previous request. Any thoughts? Could it have to do with session ID's not being set up correctly? Is there something that is possibly overwriting my authentication somehow? Perhaps I just need another step to save the authentication? Or is there something I need to do to declare the authentication across the whole session rather than a single request somehow? Just looking for some thoughts that might help me see what's happening here.

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  • Using parameterized function calls in SELECT statements. SQL Server

    - by geekzlla
    I have taken over some code from a previous developer and have come across this SQL statement that calls several SQL functions. As you can see, the function calls in the select statement pass a parameter to the function. How does the SQL statement know what value to replace the variable with? For the below sample, how does the query engine know what to replace nDeptID with when it calls, fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) nDeptID IS a column in table Note. SELECT STATEMENT: SELECT nCustomerID AS [Customer ID], nJobID AS [Job ID], dbo.fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) AS Department, nJobTaskID AS JobTaskID, dbo.fn_SelDeptTaskDesc_OpenTask(nJobID, nJobTaskID) AS Task, nStandardNoteID AS StandardNoteID, dbo.fn_SelNoteTypeDesc(nNoteID) AS [Note Type], dbo.fn_SelGPAStandardNote(nStandardNoteID) AS [Standard Note], nEntryDate AS [Entry Date], nUserName as [Added By], nType AS Type, nNote AS Note FROM Note WHERE nJobID = 844261 ORDER BY nJobID, Task, [Entry Date] ====================== Function fn_SelDeptName_DeptID: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[fn_SelDeptName_DeptID] (@iDeptID int) RETURNS varchar(25) -- Used by DataCollection for Job Tracking -- if the Deptartment isnt found return an empty string BEGIN -- Return the Department name for the given DeptID. DECLARE @strDeptName varchar(25) IF @iDeptID = 0 SET @strDeptName = '' ELSE BEGIN SET @strDeptName = (SELECT dName FROM Department WHERE dDeptID = @iDeptID) IF (@strDeptName IS NULL) SET @strDeptName = '' END RETURN @strDeptName END ========================== Thanks in advance.

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  • Integer array or struct array - which is better?

    - by MusiGenesis
    In my app, I'm storing Bitmap data in a two-dimensional integer array (int[,]). To access the R, G and B values I use something like this: // read: int i = _data[x, y]; byte B = (byte)(i >> 0); byte G = (byte)(i >> 8); byte R = (byte)(i >> 16); // write: _data[x, y] = BitConverter.ToInt32(new byte[] { B, G, R, 0 }, 0); I'm using integer arrays instead of an actual System.Drawing.Bitmap because my app runs on Windows Mobile devices where the memory available for creating bitmaps is severely limited. I'm wondering, though, if it would make more sense to declare a structure like this: public struct RGB { public byte R; public byte G; public byte B; } ... and then use an array of RGB instead of an array of int. This way I could easily read and write the separate R, G and B values without having to do bit-shifting and BitConverter-ing. I vaguely remember something from days of yore about byte variables being block-aligned on 32-bit systems, so that a byte actually takes up 4 bytes of memory instead of just 1 (but maybe this was just a Visual Basic thing). Would using an array of structs (like the RGB example` above) be faster than using an array of ints, and would it use 3/4 the memory or 3 times the memory of ints?

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  • How are two-dimensional arrays formatted in memory?

    - by Chris Cooper
    In C, I know I can dynamically allocate a two-dimensional array on the heap using the following code: int** someNumbers = malloc(arrayRows*sizeof(int*)); for (i = 0; i < arrayRows; i++) { someNumbers[i] = malloc(arrayColumns*sizeof(int)); } Clearly, this actually creates a one-dimensional array of pointers to a bunch of separate one-dimensional arrays of integers, and "The System" can figure you what I mean when I ask for: someNumbers[4][2]; But when I statically declare a 2D array, as in the following line...: int someNumbers[ARRAY_ROWS][ARRAY_COLUMNS]; ...does a similar structure get created on the stack, or is it of another form completely? (i.e. is it a 1D array of pointers? If not, what is it, and how do references to it get figured out?) Also, when I said, "The System," what is actually responsible for figuring that out? The kernel? Or does the C compiler sort it out while compiling?

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  • How is external memory, internal memory, and cache organized?

    - by goldenmean
    Consider a system as follows:= A hardware board having say ARM Cortex-A8 and Neon Vector coprocessor, and Embedded Linux OS running on Cortex-A8. On this environment, if there is some application - say, a video decoder is executing - then: How is it decided that which buffers would be in external memory, which ones would be allocated in internal SRAM, etc. When one says calloc/malloc on such system/code, the pointer returned is from which memory: internal or external? Can a user make buffers to be allocated to the memories of his choice (internal/external)? In ARM architectures, there is another memory called as Tightly coupled memory (TCM). What is that and how can user enable and use it? Can I declare buffers in this memory? Do I need to see the memory map (if any) of the hardware board to understand about all these different physical memories present in a typical hardware board? How much of a role does the OS play in distinguishing these different memories? Sorry for multiple questions, but i think they all are interlinked.

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  • ASP.NET MVC Viewmodel trouble...

    - by ile
    I've already started similar topic, but still didn't find final solution... So here I am with new one :) ... I'm developing NerdDinner from scratch and now I came to point where I define DinnerViewModel. Following these instructions (starting from Listing 5) I came to this: namespace Nerd.Controllers { // View Model Classes public class DinnerViewModel { public DinnerViewModel(List<Dinner> dinners) { this.Dinners = dinners; } public List<Dinner> Dinners { get; private set; } } public class DinnerController : Controller { private DinnerRepository dinnerRepository = new DinnerRepository(); .... public ActionResult NewDinners() { // Create list of products var dinners = new List<Dinner>(); dinners.Add(new Dinner(/*Something to add*/)); // Return view return View(new DinnerViewModel(dinners)); } } } Also, the Dinner table in this new version of NerdDinner is a bit shortened (it contains of DinnerID, Title, EventDate and Description fields). No matter what I try to add here dinners.Add(new Dinner(/*Something to add*/)); I always get following error Error 1 'Nerd.Model.Dinner' does not contain a constructor that takes '1' arguments C:\Documents and Settings\ilija\My Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\Nerd\Nerd\Controllers\DinnerController.cs 150 25 Nerd Because I'm total beginner in C# and generally OOP, I have no idea what to do here... I suppose I need to declare a constructor, but how and where exactly? Thanks, Ile

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  • Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

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  • How to use two parameters pointing to the same structure in one function ?

    - by ZaZu
    Hey guys, I have my code below that consits of a structure, a main, and a function. The function is supposed to display two parameters that have certain values, both of which point to the same structure. The problem I dont know how to add the SECOND parameter onto the following code : #include<stdio.h> #define first 500 #define sec 500 struct trial{ int f; int r; float what[first][sec]; }; int trialtest(trial *test); main(){ trial test; trialtest(&test); } int trialtest(trial *test){ int z,x,i; for(i=0;i<5;i++){ printf("%f,(*test).what[z][x]); } return 0; } I need to add a new parameter test_2 there (IN THE SAME FUNCTION) using this code : for(i=0;i<5;i++){ printf("%f,(*test_2).what[z][x]); How does int trialtest(trial *test) changes ? and how does it change in main ? I know that I should declare test_2 as well, like this : trial test,test_2; But what about passing the address in the function ? I do not need to edit it right ? trialtest(&test); --- This will remain the same ? So please, tell me how would I use test_2 as a parameter pointing to the same structure as test, both in the same function.. Thank you !! Please tell me if you need more clarification

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  • Can't add to NSMutableArray from SecondaryView

    - by Antonio
    Hi guys, I've searched and read and still haven't found a concrete answer. Brief: I have an application where I declare an NSMutableArray in my AppDelegate to synthesize when the application loads. (code below). I have a SecondaryViewController call this function, and I have it output a string to let me know what the array size is. Every time I run it, it executes but it does not add any objects to the array. How do I fix this? AppDelegate.h file #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @class arrayTestViewController; @interface arrayTestAppDelegate : NSObject <UIApplicationDelegate> { UIWindow *window; arrayTestViewController *viewController; NSMutableArray *myArray3; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *myArray3; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIWindow *window; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet arrayTestViewController *viewController; -(void)addToArray3; @end AppDelegate.m file #import "arrayTestAppDelegate.h" #import "arrayTestViewController.h" @implementation arrayTestAppDelegate @synthesize window; @synthesize viewController; @synthesize myArray3; #pragma mark - #pragma mark Application lifecycle - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { myArray3 = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Override point for customization after application launch. // Add the view controller's view to the window and display. [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } -(void)addToArray3{ NSLog(@"Array Count: %d", [myArray3 count]); [myArray3 addObject:@"Test"]; NSLog(@"Array triggered from SecondViewController"); NSLog(@"Array Count: %d", [myArray3 count]); } SecondViewController.m file #import "SecondViewController.h" #import "arrayTestAppDelegate.h" @implementation SecondViewController -(IBAction)addToArray{ arrayTestAppDelegate *object = [[arrayTestAppDelegate alloc] init]; [object addToArray3]; }

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  • Divs, flash and doctype :(

    - by nick
    I have a web-site, that uses colorbox, it also has flash header. Everything works fine in both ff and ie. Before ive started to use colorbox, i had little div that covered small part of flash header for menu purposes. Now, since im using colorbox, i had to declare doctype, and set wmode on flash to 'opaque', in order everything to work right way.But now i cant get that little div, to appear on top of my flash header. If anyone can help me with this, please do so.... or atleast tell me what should i read : ( im will be very gratefull for any solution. current html document structure: ... all the js and css files ... heres that div's style from corresponding css file: .cell_r0_c0{position: absolute;left: 61%;width:260;height:69; background-color: #000000; vertical-align: bottom;} I think i've allready tried all the combinations of position attribute, also tried diff z-index values, and i can't get it work the way i want. Maybe ive missed something idk. Please help me :(

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  • How to return a record from function, executed by INSERT/UPDATE rule (trigger)?

    - by seas
    Do the following scheme for my database: create sequence data_sequence; create table data_table { id integer primary key; field varchar(100); }; create view data_view as select id, field from data_table; create function data_insert(_new data_view) returns data_view as $$declare _id integer; _result data_view%rowtype; begin _id := nextval('data_sequence'); insert into data_table(id, field) values(_id, _new.field); select * into _result from data_view where id = _id; return _result; end; $$ language plpgsql; create rule insert as on insert to data_view do instead select data_insert(new); Then type in psql: insert into data_view(field) values('abc'); Would like to see something like: id | field ----+--------- 1 | abc Instead see: data_insert ------------- (1, "abc") Is it possible to fix this somehow? Thanks for any ideas. Ultimate idea is to use this in other functions, so that I could obtain id of just inserted record without selecting for it from scratch. Something like: insert into data_view(field) values('abc') returning id into my_variable would be nice but doesn't work with error: ERROR: cannot perform INSERT RETURNING on relation "data_view" HINT: You need an unconditional ON INSERT DO INSTEAD rule with a RETURNING clause. I don't really understand that HINT. I use PostgreSQL 8.4.

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  • Using `<List>` when dealing with pointers in C#.

    - by Gorchestopher H
    How can I add an item to a list if that item is essentially a pointer and avoid changing every item in my list to the newest instance of that item? Here's what I mean: I am doing image processing, and there is a chance that I will need to deal with images that come in faster than I can process (for a short period of time). After this "burst" of images I will rely on the fact that I can process faster than the average image rate, and will "catch-up" eventually. So, what I want to do is put my images into a <List> when I acquire them, then if my processing thread isn't busy, I can take an image from that list and hand it over. My issue is that I am worried that since I am adding the image "Image1" to the list, then filling "Image1" with a new image (during the next image acquisition) I will be replacing the image stored in the list with the new image as well (as the image variable is actually just a pointer). So, my code looks a little like this: while (!exitcondition) { if(ImageAvailabe()) { Image1 = AcquireImage(); ImgList.Add(Image1); } if(ImgList.Count 0) { ProcessEngine.NewImage(ImgList[0]); ImgList.RemoveAt(0); } } Given the above, how can I ensure that: - I don't replace all items in the list every time Image1 is modified. - I don't need to pre-declare a number of images in order to do this kind of processing. - I don't create a memory devouring monster. Any advice is greatly appreciated.

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  • [IceFaces] Why are validators of unchanged components called?

    - by bitschnau
    I have a IceFaces-form and several input fields. Let's say I have this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="accountMenu" value="#{accountController.account.aId}" validator="#{accountController.validateAccount}"> <f:selectItems id="accountItems" value="#{accountController.accountItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> and this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="costumerMenu" value="#{customerController.customer.cId}" validator="#{customerController.validateCustomer"> <f:selectItems id="customerItems" value="#{customerController.customerItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> If I change one value, the respective validator is called, what is fine. But also the other validator is called, which is not fine, because the user get's an irritating message to insert a value to a field he maybe was just going to pay attention to. It's like poking the user with a stick to "Hurry up now!". BAD! I thought the attribute "partialSubmit" is controlling this behaviour, so only the one DOM-part is submitted, which is affected by the user interaction, but if I declare the both components to be partially submitted, nothing changes. Still both validators are called if one component value is changed. How can I prevent the whole form from being validated until it is submitted completely?

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  • Create static instances of a class inside said class in Python

    - by Samir Talwar
    Apologies if I've got the terminology wrong here—I can't think what this particular idiom would be called. I've been trying to create a Python 3 class that statically declares instances of itself inside itself—sort of like an enum would work. Here's a simplified version of the code I wrote: class Test: A = Test("A") B = Test("B") def __init__(self, value): self.value = value def __str__(self): return "Test: " + self.value print(str(Test.A)) print(str(Test.B)) Writing this, I got an exception on line 2 (A = Test("A")). I assume line 3 would also error if it had made it that far. Using __class__ instead of Test gives the same error. File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File "<stdin>", line 2, in Test NameError: name 'Test' is not defined Is there any way to refer to the current class in a static context in Python? I could declare these particular variables outside the class or in a separate class, but for clarity's sake, I'd rather not if I can help it. To better demonstrate what I'm trying to do, here's the same example in Java: public class Test { private static final Test A = new Test("A"); private static final Test B = new Test("B"); private final String value; public Test(String value) { this.value = value; } public String toString() { return "Test: " + value; } public static void main(String[] args) { System.out.println(A); System.out.println(B); } } This works as you would expect: it prints: Test: A Test: B How can I do the same thing in Python?

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  • Check for child duplicates

    - by ebb
    My console app will loop through each User to get their Websites, so that it can take new screenshots of them. However, to prevent taking screenshot of the same website twice I have to check whether there already has been taken screenshot of the website, while looping through another users websites. My current solution is: Database: User |--> ID: 1 |--> FirstName: Joe |--> ID: 2 |--> FirstName: Stranger Websites |--> ID: 1 |--> UserID: 1 |--> URL: http://site.com |--> ID: 2 |--> UserID: 2 |--> URL: http://site.com Console app: static void RenewWebsiteThumbNails() { Console.WriteLine("Starting renewal process..."); using (_repository) { var websitesUpdated = new List<string>(); foreach (var user in _repository.GetAll()) { foreach (var website in user.Websites.Where(website => !websitesUpdated.Contains(website.URL))) { _repository.TakeScreenDumpAndSave(website.URL); websitesUpdated.Add(website.URL); Console.WriteLine(new string('-', 50)); Console.WriteLine("{0} has successfully been renewed", website.URL); } } } } However, it seems wrong to declare a List for such a scenario, just to check whether a specific URL already has been added... any suggestions for an alternative way?

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  • How does scope in Javascript work?

    - by Jim
    I can not understand how scoping works in Javascript. E.g. <html> <head> <script>var userName = "George"; </script> </head> <body> ...... <script> document.write('Name = ' + userName); </script> </body> </html> The variable userName is declared in another "section" of a script. As I understand it the browser renders html and executes code in the order it finds it. So how does userName in the second script tag gets resolved? Does it go to a global setting? Anything I declare earlier is global? I noticed the same happens if I do something like: <html> <head> <script> do { var userName = "George"; //bla } while (someCondition); </script> </head> <body> ...... <script> document.write('Name = ' + userName); </script> </body> </html> Even when userName is declared inside {} it is still resolved in the second script. How is that possible?

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  • How can I use a custom configured RememberMeAuthenticationFilter in spring security?

    - by Sebastian
    I want to use a slightly customized rememberme functionality with spring security (3.1.0). I declare the rememberme tag like this: <security:remember-me key="JNJRMBM" user-service-ref="gymUserDetailService" /> As I have my own rememberme service I need to inject that into the RememberMeAuthenticationFilter which I define like this: <bean id="rememberMeFilter" class="org.springframework.security.web.authentication.rememberme.RememberMeAuthenticationFilter"> <property name="rememberMeServices" ref="gymRememberMeService"/> <property name="authenticationManager" ref="authenticationManager" /> </bean> I have spring security integrated in a standard way in my web.xml: <filter-name>springSecurityFilterChain</filter-name> <filter-class>org.springframework.web.filter.DelegatingFilterProxy</filter-class> Everything works fine, except that the RememberMeAuthenticationFilter uses the standard RememberMeService, so I think that my defined RememberMeAuthenticationFilter is not being used. How can I make sure that my definition of the filter is being used? Do I need to create a custom filterchain? And if so, how can I see my current "implicit" filterchain and make sure I use the same one except my RememberMeAuthenticationFilter instead of the default one? Thanks for any advice and/or pointers!

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