Search Results

Search found 25792 results on 1032 pages for 'map edit'.

Page 853/1032 | < Previous Page | 849 850 851 852 853 854 855 856 857 858 859 860  | Next Page >

• How much business logic belongs in RIA services layer?

  - by jkohlhepp

  I have been experimenting recently with Silverlight, RIA Services, and Entity Framework using .NET 4.0. I'm trying to figure out if that stack makes sense for use in any of my upcoming projects. It certainly seems like these technologies can be very productive for developing applications, but I'm struggling to decide how an application on top of this stack should be architected. The main issue I have is that in most of the demos I've seen most of the business logic ends up as DataAnnotations and custom validations in the RIA Services domain service class. This seems inappropriate to me. I view the domain service as basically a glorified web service that happens to make it easy to push information to the client. But most of what I've seen seems to orient the domain service as the main source of business logic in the application. So, my questions: What is the best location for business logic (rules, validations, behaviors, authorization) in an application using this stack? Are there any guidelines published at an architectural level for using this stack? My questions pertain to large, complex, and long-lived applications. Obviously for an application of only a few screens this is less of a concern. Edit: Another thing I meant to mention is that obviously you can make the domain service class stupid, but then you lose a lot of the automagic entity information (e.g. validations) being pushed to the client. And then if you lose that is there any point to using RIA services?

  Read the article

• How to display rich text in tooltip ASP.Net ?

  - by mokokamello

  Experts ! i use the following code to display a tooltip <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataKeyNames="ID" DataSourceID="AccessDataSource1"> <Columns> <asp:CommandField ShowEditButton="True" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="ID" HeaderText="ID" InsertVisible="False" ReadOnly="True" SortExpression="ID" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="datefu" HeaderText="date" SortExpression="datefu" /> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="title" SortExpression="titlefu"> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("titlefu") %>'></asp:TextBox> </EditItemTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <a href="#" title="<asp:Literal ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("fu") %>'/>"/> <asp:Label ID="NamePatientLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("titlefu") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> display the following result however when i edit the text as follows (making it bold and red in another gridview containing rich text editor) i get the following (as a formatting result in the second grid view) however when i view in the first gridview to display the tooltip i get the following reult i really need your help to display the tooltip as rich text

  Read the article

• Microsoft OLE DB Provider for SQL Server error '80040e14' Could not find stored procedure

  - by BBlake

  I am migrating a classic ASP web app to new servers. The database back end is migrating from SQL Server 2000 to SQL Server 2008, and the app is moving from Win2000 x86 to Win2003R2 x64. I am getting the above error on every single stored procedure call within the application. I have verified: Yes, the SQL user is set up, using correct username and password Yes, the SQL user has execute permissions on the stored procedures in the database Yes, I have updated the TypeLib references to the new UUID Yes, I have logged into the database via SSMS with the SQL user id and it can see and execute the stored procedures just fine in SSMS, but not from the web app. Yes, the SQL user has the database set as its default database. The most frustrating thing is it works fine on the DEV server, but not on the production server. I have gone through every IIS setting 5 or 6 times and the web app is set up precisely the same in both environments. The only difference is the database server name in the connection string (DEV vs prod) EDIT: I have also tried pointing the prod web box at the dev database server and get the same error so I'm fairly sure the issue isn't on the database side.

  Read the article

• State Monad, why not a tuple?

  - by thr

  I've just wrapped my head around monads (at least I'd like to think I have) and more specifically the state monad, which some people that are way smarter then me figured out, so I'm probably way of with this question. Anyway, the state monad is usually implemented with a M<'a as something like this (F#): type State<'a, 'state> = State of ('state -> 'a * 'state) Now my question: Is there any reason why you couldn't use a tuple here? Other then the possible ambiguity between MonadA<'a, 'b> and MonadB<'a, 'b> which would both become the equivalent ('a * 'b) tuple. Edit: Added example for clarity type StateMonad() = member m.Return a = (fun s -> a, s) member m.Bind(x, f) = (fun s -> let a, s_ = x s in f a s_) let state = new StateMonad() let getState = (fun s -> s, s) let setState s = (fun _ -> (), s) let execute m s = m s |> fst

  Read the article

• java RMI connection to server

  - by user85116

  I have a very simple rmi client / server application. I don't use the "rmiregistry" application though, I use this to create the server: server = new RemoteServer(); registry = LocateRegistry.createRegistry(PORT); registry.bind("RemoteServer", server); The client part is: registry = LocateRegistry.getRegistry(IPADDRESS, PORT); remote = (IRemoteServer) registry.lookup("RemoteServer"); Here is the fascinating problem: The application works perfectly when both server and client are running in my (private) local network. As soon as I put the server on a public server, the application hangs for a minute, then gives me the following error: java.rmi.ServerException: RemoteException occurred in server thread; nested exception is: java.rmi.ConnectException: Connection refused to host: 192.168.x.y; nested exception is: java.net.ConnectException: Connection timed out: connect at sun.rmi.server.UnicastServerRef.dispatch(Unknown Source) at sun.rmi.transport.Transport$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at sun.rmi.transport.Transport.serviceCall(Unknown Source) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport.handleMessages(Unknown Source) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport$ConnectionHandler.run0(Unknown Source ... (the rest is truncated) The key I think is that the client (running on my private network) cannot connect to myself (my address is 192.168.x.y where x.y is some other numbers, but the real error message shows my ip address listed there) If I kill the rmi server on the public internet, then I instantly get a "connection refused to host: a.b.c.d") message, so I know that something at the server end is at least working. Any suggestions? EDIT: just to make this a little more clear: 192.168.x.y is the client address, a.b.c.d is the server address. The stacktrace shows the client cannot connect to the client.

  Read the article

• How can I put double quotes inside a string within an ajax JSON response from php?

  - by karlthorwald

  I receive a JSON response in an Ajax request from the server. This way it works: { "a" = "1", "b" = "hello 'kitty'" } But I did not succeed in putting double quotes around kitty. When I convert " to \x22 in the Ajax response, it is still interpreted as " by JavaScript and I cannot parse the JSON. Should I also escape the \ and unescape later (which would be possible)? How to do this? Edit: I am not sure if i expressed it well: I want this string inside of "b" after the parse: hello "kitty" If necessary I could also add an additional step after the parse to convert "b", but I guess it is not necessary, there is a more elegant way so this happens automatically? Edit2: The ajax page is generated by php. I tried several things now to create the value of b, all result in JSON parse error on the page: $b = 'hello "kitty"'; // no 1: //$b = str_replace('"',"\x22",$b); // or no 2: // $b = addslashes($b); // or no 3: //$b = str_replace('"','\"',$b); // or no 4: $b = str_replace('"','\\"',$b); echo '"b" : "' . $b . '"';

  Read the article

• Ninject InThreadScope Binding

  - by e36M3

  I have a Windows service that contains a file watcher that raises events when a file arrives. When an event is raised I will be using Ninject to create business layer objects that inside of them have a reference to an Entity Framework context which is also injected via Ninject. In my web applications I always used InRequestScope for the context, that way within one request all business layer objects work with the same Entity Framework context. In my current Windows service scenario, would it be sufficient to switch the Entity Framework context binding to a InThreadScope binding? In theory when an event handler in the service triggers it's executed under some thread, then if another file arrives simultaneously it will be executing under a different thread. Therefore both events will not be sharing an Entity Framework context, in essence just like two different http requests on the web. One thing that bothers me is the destruction of these thread scoped objects, when you look at the Ninject wiki: .InThreadScope() - One instance of the type will be created per thread. .InRequestScope() - One instance of the type will be created per web request, and will be destroyed when the request ends. Based on this I understand that InRequestScope objects will be destroyed (garbage collected?) when (or at some point after) the request ends. This says nothing however on how InThreadScope objects are destroyed. To get back to my example, when the file watcher event handler method is completed, the thread goes away (back to the thread pool?) what happens to the InThreadScope-d objects that were injected? EDIT: One thing is clear now, that when using InThreadScope() it will not destroy your object when the handler for the filewatcher exits. I was able to reproduce this by dropping many files in the folder and eventually I got the same thread id which resulted in the same exact Entity Framework context as before, so it's definitely not sufficient for my applications. In this case a file that came in 5 minutes later could be using a stale context that was assigned to the same thread before.

  Read the article

• Can't disable method parenthesis auto-complete in Eclipse

  - by cvig

  I'm trying to disable the automatic closing of brackets in Eclipse, and while I've mostly succeeded, I can't stop the editor from inserting a closing parenthesis for a method call. The result is that when I type: myBool.equals(true); it inserts a closing parenthesis as soon as I type the opening parenthesis, and what I actually get is: myBool.equals(true);) I've disabled all of the auto-complete options in the Preferences - Java - Editor - Typing menu, as well as Preferences - Java - Editor - Content Assist - Fill method arguments and show guessed arguments. I also disabled the smart insert mode option under the Edit menu. Is there another option somewhere else I need to use to stop Eclipse from doing this? This is with Eclipse 3.5.2 (Build ID M20100211-1343) in case it matters. Edited to add: I should also mention that this only happens if I wait for the "intellisense" pop-up with suggested method names to appear after I type the period. If I just continuously type the code without waiting for the suggestion box to appear, the closing parenthesis doesn't get inserted.

  Read the article

• RelativeLayout differences between 1.5 and 2.1

  - by Kilnr

  I've got a ListView with items composed of RelativeLayouts. This is the relevant XML from the list items: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content"> <TextView android:id="@+id/xx" android:gravity="center_vertical" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_gravity="center_vertical" android:layout_centerInParent="true" android:layout_alignParentLeft="true"/> <TextView android:id="@+id/title" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_toRightOf="@id/xx" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/tag" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_toRightOf="@id/xx" android:layout_below="@id/title" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/subtitle" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_toRightOf="@id/tag" android:layout_below="@id/title" /> </RelativeLayout> On Android 2.1 (tested on a Nexus One), this shows the desired behavior: On Android 1.5 however (tested on a HTC Hero), it shows up like this: [edit] On 1.6 (emulator), it works as expected as well. The small grey line on the top left is what shows up in the first pic as "xx", so that should be vertically centered. As far as I can see, the XML dictates this, but for some reason, 1.5 ignores it. Why is this? I can't find anything about this difference, and I've been brute forcing any combination of layout_center, center, alignParent*, but to no avail... Can anyone shed some light on this? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Make sure <a href="local file"> is opened outside of browser

  - by Heinzi

  For an Intranet web application (document management), I want to show a list of files associated with a certain customer. The resulting HTML is like this: <a href="file:///server/share/dir/somefile.docx">somefile.docx</a> <a href="file:///server/share/dir/someotherfile.pdf">somefile.pdf</a> <a href="file:///server/share/dir/yetanotherfile.txt">yetanotherfile.txt</a> This works fine. Unfortunetly, when clicking on a text file (or image file), Internet Explorer (and I guess most other browsers as well) insist on showing it in the browser instead of opening the file with the associated application (e.g. Notepad). In our case, this is undesired behavior, since it does not allow the user to edit the file. Is there some workaround to this behavior (e.g. something like <a href="file:///..." open="external">)? I'm aware that this is a browser-specific thing, and an IE-only solution would be fine (it's an Intranet application after all).

  Read the article

• Why does output of fltk-config truncate arguments to gcc?

  - by James Morris

  I'm trying to build an application I've downloaded which uses the SCONS "make replacement" and the Fast Light Tool Kit Gui. The SConstruct code to detect the presence of fltk is: guienv = Environment(CPPFLAGS = '') guiconf = Configure(guienv) if not guiconf.CheckLibWithHeader('lo', 'lo/lo.h','c'): print 'Did not find liblo for OSC, exiting!' Exit(1) if not guiconf.CheckLibWithHeader('fltk', 'FL/Fl.H','c++'): print 'Did not find FLTK for the gui, exiting!' Exit(1) Unfortunately, on my (Gentoo Linux) system, and many others (Linux distributions) this can be quite troublesome if the package manager allows the simultaneous install of FLTK-1 and FLTK-2. I have attempted to modify the SConstruct file to use fltk-config --cflags and fltk-config --ldflags (or fltk-config --libs might be better than ldflags) by adding them like so: guienv.Append(CPPPATH = os.popen('fltk-config --cflags').read()) guienv.Append(LIBPATH = os.popen('fltk-config --ldflags').read()) But this causes the test for liblo to fail! Looking in config.log shows how it failed: scons: Configure: Checking for C library lo... gcc -o .sconf_temp/conftest_4.o -c "-I/usr/include/fltk-1.1 -D_LARGEFILE_SOURCE -D_LARGEFILE64_SOURCE -D_THREAD_SAFE -D_REENTRANT" gcc: no input files scons: Configure: no How should this really be done? And to complete my answer, how do I remove the quotes from the result of os.popen( 'command').read()? EDIT The real question here is why does appending the output of fltk-config cause gcc to not receive the filename argument it is supposed to compile?

  Read the article

• Pushing to bare Git repository (remote) causes it to stop being bare

  - by NSD

  I have a local repository called TestRepo. I clone it with the --bare option, zip this clone up, and throw it on my server. Unzip it, and it's still bare. I then clone the bare remote repository locally over ssh with something like git clone ssh://[email protected]/~/TestRepo.git TestRepoCloned The local TestRepoCloned is not bare and has a remote called "origin." It appears to be tracking correctly from the looks of its config file [core] repositoryformatversion = 0 filemode = true bare = false logallrefupdates = true ignorecase = true [remote "origin"] fetch = +refs/heads/*:refs/remotes/origin/* url = ssh://[email protected]/~/TestRepo.git [branch "master"] remote = origin merge = refs/heads/master I edit an existing file. I commit the change to the current branch (master) via git commit -a -m "Edited a file." The commit succeeds and all is well. I decide to push this change to the remote repository via SSH with a git push The remote repository is now no longer bare, but has a complete working directory, and I get continuous error messages on all further attempts to push to it. Everything I've read seems to suggest that what I'm doing is correct, but it simply is not working. How am I supposed to push changes to a bare remote repo and actually keep it bare?

  Read the article

• Putting update logic in your migrations

  - by Daniel Abrahamsson

  A couple of times I've been in the situation where I've wanted to refactor the design of some model and have ended up putting update logic in migrations. However, as far as I've understood, this is not good practice (especially since you are encouraged to use your schema file for deployment, and not your migrations). How do you deal with these kind of problems? To clearify what I mean, say I have a User model. Since I thought there would only be two kinds of users, namely a "normal" user and an administrator, I chose to use a simple boolean field telling whether the user was an adminstrator or not. However, after I while I figured I needed some third kind of user, perhaps a moderator or something similar. In this case I add a UserType model (and the corresponding migration), and a second migration for removing the "admin" flag from the user table. And here comes the problem. In the "add_user_type_to_users" migration I have to map the admin flag value to a user type. Additionally, in order to do this, the user types have to exist, meaning I can not use the seeds file, but rather create the user types in the migration (also considered bad practice). Here comes some fictional code representing the situation: class CreateUserTypes < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :user_types do |t| t.string :name, :nil => false, :unique => true end #Create basic types (can not put in seed, because of future migration dependency) UserType.create!(:name => "BASIC") UserType.create!(:name => "MODERATOR") UserType.create!(:name => "ADMINISTRATOR") end def self.down drop_table :user_types end end class AddTypeIdToUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up add_column :users, :type_id, :integer #Determine type via the admin flag basic = UserType.find_by_name("BASIC") admin = UserType.find_by_name("ADMINISTRATOR") User.all.each {|u| u.update_attribute(:type_id, (u.admin?) ? admin.id : basic.id)} #Remove the admin flag remove_column :users, :admin #Add foreign key execute "alter table users add constraint fk_user_type_id foreign key (type_id) references user_types (id)" end def self.down #Re-add the admin flag add_column :users, :admin, :boolean, :default => false #Reset the admin flag (this is the problematic update code) admin = UserType.find_by_name("ADMINISTRATOR") execute "update users set admin=true where type_id=#{admin.id}" #Remove foreign key constraint execute "alter table users drop foreign key fk_user_type_id" #Drop the type_id column remove_column :users, :type_id end end As you can see there are two problematic parts. First the row creation part in the first model, which is necessary if I would like to run all migrations in a row, then the "update" part in the second migration that maps the "admin" column to the "type_id" column. Any advice?

  Read the article

• C sharp code cleanup : resharper

  - by Ankit Rathod

  Hello, I just used Resharper in one application and it made me feel as if i don't know how to code at all in C# :(. On every line it gave me it's suggestions :- Few of Resharper's favorite suggestions are :- 1) SomObject o = new SomeObject(); Resharper will convert to : var o = new SomeObject() 2) this.Loaded += new RoutedEventHandler(MainPage_Loaded); to this.Loaded += MainPage_Loaded; 3) convert my variables and putting _ in front of all instance variables. 4) Removing class parent's name. I tested this on Silverlight. public partial class MainPage : UserControl to public partial class MainPage EDIT :- 5) replace instance variable this.variable = somevalue to variable = somevalue Are all of these really necessary? Is it really going to affect the efficiency of my program? I mean what good is it going to do by replacing my class names with var keyword. After all var is also replaced with class name at compile time. Is it doing because it has been programmed to do or do these things really affect in some or another way? Thanks in advance :)

  Read the article

• Validating a wrong date entry in rich faces

  - by Hiral Lakdavala

  Hi, (On behalf of a collegue) In one of our functionality we have some date fields for inline edit where we have enabled manual input. If in rich:calendar component, we manually enter improper date or junk data it will not even call the action method. As per our requirement we need to display an error message for date validation for these kind of fields. Is there any way to track that the date entered in the calendar field is improper with this component. Code for the reference: <rich:calendar id="actualOpeningDtCal" rendered="#{!empty storeProgram.id}" value="#{storeProgram.actualOpeningDate}" placeholder="dd-mmm-yyyy" inputSize="20" enableManualInput="true" datePattern="dd-MMM-yyyy" buttonIcon="../content/images/calendar.png" showWeeksBar="false" showFooter="false"> <a4j:support event="oninputblur" reRender="aList" ajaxSingle="false" action="#{aController.inlineEdit}"> <f:setPropertyActionListener value="#{aProgram}" target="#{aController.inLineEditaBean}" /> </a4j:support> <a4j:support event="oncollapse" reRender="aList" ajaxSingle="false" action="#{aController.inlineEdit}"> <f:setPropertyActionListener value="#{aProgram}" target="#{aController.inLineEditaBean}" /> </a4j:support> </rich:calendar> Regards, Hiral

  Read the article

• Problem with interface implementation in partial classes.

  - by Bas

  I have a question regarding a problem with L2S, Autogenerated DataContext and the use of Partial Classes. I have abstracted my datacontext and for every table I use, I'm implementing a class with an interface. In the code below you can see I have the Interface and two partial classes. The first class is just there to make sure the class in the auto-generated datacontext inherets Interface. The other autogenerated class makes sure the method from Interface is implemented. namespace PartialProject.objects { public interface Interface { Interface Instance { get; } } //To make sure the autogenerated code inherits Interface public partial class Class : Interface { } //This is autogenerated public partial class Class { public Class Instance { get { return this.Instance; } } } } Now my problem is that the method implemented in the autogenerated class gives the following error: - Property 'Instance' cannot implement property from interface 'PartialProject.objects.Interface'. Type should be 'PartialProjects.objects.Interface'. <- Any idea how this error can be resolved? Keep in mind that I can't edit anything in the autogenerated code. Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• How to target multiple versions of .NET Framework from MSBuild?

  - by McKAMEY

  I am improving the builds for an open source project which currently supports .NET Framework v2.0, v3.5, and now v4.0. Up until now, I've restricted myself to v2.0 to ensure compatibility, but with VS2010 I am interested in having real targeted builds. I'm looking for some guidance on how to edit the MSBuild csproj/sln to be able to cleanly produce builds for each target. I'm willing to have complexity in the csproj and in a batch file to control the build. My goal is to be able to have a command line script that could produce the builds without needing Visual Studio installed, but only the necessary .NET Framework(s). Ideally, I'd like to minimize dependencies on additional software. I notice that a lot of people use NAnt (e.g. Ninject builds many targets with NAnt) but I'm unsure if this is necessary or if they are just more familiar with it. I'm pretty sure this can be done but am having trouble finding a definitive guide on setting it up and best practices. Bonus: my next step after getting this set up will be to better support Mono Framework. Any help on doing this same thing for Mono would be much appreciated.

  Read the article

• C# naming convention for enum and matching property

  - by Serge - appTranslator

  Hi All, I often find myself implementing a class maintaining some kind of own status property as an enum: I have a Status enum and ONE Status property of Status type. How should I solve this name conflict? public class Car { public enum Status { Off, Starting, Moving }; Status status = Status.Off; public Status Status // <===== Won't compile ===== { get { return status; } set { status = value; DoSomething(); } } } If the Status enum were common to different types, I'd put it outside the class and the problem would be solved. But Status applies to Car only hence it doesn't make sense to declare the enum outside the class. What naming convention do you use in this case? NB: This question was partially debated in comments of an answer of this question. Since it wasn't the main question, it didn't get much visibility. EDIT: Filip Ekberg suggests an IMO excellent workaround for the specific case of 'Status'. Yet I'd be interesting to read about solutions where the name of the enum/property is different, as in Michael Prewecki's answer. EDIT2 (May 2010): My favorite solution is to pluralize the enum type name, as suggested by Chris S. According to MS guidelines, this should be used for flag enums only. But I've come to like it more and more. I now use it for regular enums as well.

  Read the article

• Delphi How to wait for socket answer inside procedure?

  - by Astronavigator

  For some specific needs i need to create procedure that waits for socket request (or answer) in dll: TForm1 = class(TForm) ServerSocket1: TServerSocket; ...... procedure MyWaitProc; stdcall; begin Go := false; while not Go do begin // Wating... // Application.ProcessMessages; // Works with this line end; end; procedure TForm1.ServerSocket1ClientRead(Sender: TObject; Socket: TCustomWinSocket); begin MessageBoxA(0, PAnsiChar('Received: '+Socket.ReceiveText), '', MB_OK); Go := true; end; exports MyWaitProc; When I call Application.ProcessMessages everything works fine: application waits for request and then continues. But in my case calling Application.ProcessMessages causes to unlocking main form on host application (not dll's one). When I don't call Application.ProcessMessages application just hangs couse it cannot handle message... So, how to create such a procedure that's wating for socket answer ? Maybe there a way to wait for socket answer without using Application.ProcessMessages ? EDIT I also tried to use TIdTCPServer, for some reasons, the result is the same. TForm1 = class(TForm) IdTCPServer1: TIdTCPServer; ..... procedure MyWaitProc; stdcall; begin Go := false; while not Go do begin // Waiting ... // Application.ProcessMessages; end; end; procedure TForm1.IdTCPServer1Execute(AContext: TIdContext); var s: string; begin s := AContext.Connection.Socket.ReadString(1); AllText := AllText + s; Go := True; end;

  Read the article

• advanced Visual Studio kung-fu test -- Calling functions from the Immediate Window during debugging

  - by kizzx2

  I see some related questions have been asked, but they're either too advanced for me to grasp or lacking a step-by-step guide from start to finish (most of them end up being insider talk of their own experiment results). OK here it is, given this simple program: #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> int main() { FILE * f; char buffer[100]; memset(buffer, 0, 100); fun(); f = fopen("main.cpp", "r"); fread(buffer, 1, 99, f); printf(buffer); fclose(f); return 0; } What it does is basically print itself (assume file name is main.cpp). Question How can I have it print another file, say foobar.txt without modifying the source code? It has something to do with running it through VS's, stepping through the functions and hijacking the FILE pointer right before fread() is called. No need to worry about leaking resources by calling fclose(). I tried the simple f = fopen("foobar.txt", "r") which gave CXX0017: Error: symbol "fopen" not found Any ideas? Edit I found out the solution accidentally on Debugging Mozilla on Windows FAQ. The correct command to put into the Immediate Window is f = {,,MSVCR100D}fopen("foo.txt", "r") However, it doesn't really answer this question: I still don't understand what is going on here. How to systematically find out the {,,MSVCR100D} part for any given method? I know the MSVCR version changes from system to system. How can I find that out? Could anyone explain the curly brace syntax, especially, what are those two commas doing there? Are there more hidden gems using this syntax?

  Read the article

• Debugging a HTTP Handler from Visual Studio

  - by O.O.

  I am trying to debug a HTTP Handler in Visual Studio and the break point is not getting hit. Does anyone have an idea on how to go about debugging HTTP Handlers in Visual Studio? I am using VS 2010 Premium, .NET 4.0 on a Windows 7 machine. In my Web Application I have a HTTP Handler in /HTTPHandler/TrackingHandler.cs The following is in my web config file: <system.webServer> <handlers> <add name="TrackingHandler" path="/tx/*" verb="*" type="ProjectNamespace.TrackingHandler" resourceType="Unspecified" preCondition="integratedMode" /> </handlers> </system.webServer> My HTTP Handler looks like below namespace ProjectNamespace { public class TrackingHandler : IHttpHandler { public bool IsReusable { get { return true; } } public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { //Breakpoint on the very first line below string tracker = Path.GetFileName(context.Request.PhysicalPath); ....... } } } I start my Web Application using any random page in Visual Studio Debug using the builtin Web Server. I then maually edit the URL to point to the /tx/ directory and some random string after it. For e.g. my current URL looks like http://localhost:53699/tx/sdfs. I thought this should pull up the breakpoint on the first line of ProcessRequest() but it does not. I’d be grateful for any ideas. O. O.

  Read the article

• autocommit and @Transactional and Cascading with spring, jpa and hibernate

  - by subes

  Hi, what I would like to accomplish is the following: have autocommit enabled so per default all queries get commited if there is a @Transactional on a method, it overrides the autocommit and encloses all queries into a single transaction, thus overriding the autocommit if there is a @Transactional method that calls other @Transactional annotated methods, the outer most annotation should override the inner annotaions and create a larger transaction, thus annotations also override eachother I am currently still learning about spring-orm and couldn't find documentation about this and don't have a test project for this yet. So my questions are: What is the default behaviour of transactions in spring? If the default differs from my requirement, is there a way to configure my desired behaviour? Or is there a totally different best practice for transactions? --EDIT-- I have the following test-setup: @javax.persistence.Entity public class Entity { @Id @GeneratedValue private Integer id; private String name; public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setId(Integer id) { this.id = id; } public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } } @Repository public class Dao { @PersistenceContext private EntityManager em; public void insert(Entity ent) { em.persist(ent); } @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public List<Entity> selectAll() { List<Entity> ents = em.createQuery("select e from " + Entity.class.getName() + " e").getResultList(); return ents; } } If I have it like this, even with autocommit enabled in hibernate, the insert method does nothing. I have to add @Transactional to the insert or the method calling insert for it to work... Is there a way to make @Transactional completely optional?

  Read the article

• When virtual inheritance IS a good design?

  - by 7vies

  EDIT3: Please be sure to clearly understand what I am asking before answering (there are EDIT2 and lots of comments around). There are (or were) many answers which clearly show misunderstanding of the question (I know that's also my fault, sorry for that) Hi, I've looked over the questions on virtual inheritance (class B: public virtual A {...}) in C++, but did not find an answer to my question. I know that there are some issues with virtual inheritance, but what I'd like to know is in which cases virtual inheritance would be considered a good design. I saw people mentioning interfaces like IUnknown or ISerializable, and also that iostream design is based on virtual inheritance. Would those be good examples of a good use of virtual inheritance, is that just because there is no better alternative, or because virtual inheritance is the proper design in this case? Thanks. EDIT: To clarify, I'm asking about real-life examples, please don't give abstract ones. I know what virtual inheritance is and which inheritance pattern requires it, what I want to know is when it is the good way to do things and not just a consequence of complex inheritance. EDIT2: In other words, I want to know when the diamond hierarchy (which is the reason for virtual inheritance) is a good design

  Read the article

• making java SingleFrameApplication to appear second

  - by Karel Bílek

  Sorry if this question will sound too chaotic, feel free to edit it. I have an application made entirely in netbeans, which uses SingleFrameApplication and auto-generated the GUI code, named "MyApp", and FrameView, named "MyView". Now, the MyApp somehow has the main() function, but the MyView has all the graphic elements.. I don't entirely understand how that happens, so used it as black box (it somehow created the window, I didn't have to care why). But now, I need the window to be only a window, opened by another JFrame. I don't know, how to accomplish that. MyApp, which is extending SingleFrameApplication, have these methods: public class MyApp extends SingleFrameApplication { @Override protected void startup() { show(new MyView(this)); } @Override protected void configureWindow(java.awt.Window root) { } public static MyApp getApplication() { return Application.getInstance(MyApp.class); } public static void main(String[] args) { launch(MyApp.class, args); } } MyView has these methods: public class MyView extends FrameView { public MyView(SingleFrameApplication app) { super(app); initComponents(); } private void initComponents() { //all the GUI stuff is somehow defined here } } Now, I have no clue how the two classes work, I just want this window, defined in MyView, to appear after another window, "ordinary" JFrame. How can I call this MyApp/MyView?

  Read the article

• Javascript: prototypal inheritance and the prototype property

  - by JanD

  Hi, I have a simple code fragment in JS working with prototype inheritance. function object(o) { function F() {} F.prototype = o; return new F(); } //the following code block has a alternate version var mammal = { color: "brown", getColor: function() { return this.color; } } var myCat = object(mammal); myCat.meow = function(){return "meow";} that worked fine but adding this: mammal.prototype.kindOf = "predator"; does not. ("mammal.prototype is undefined") Since I guessed that object maybe have no prototype I rewrote it, replacing the var mammal={... block with: function mammal() { this.color = "brown"; this.getColor = function() { return this.color; } } which gave me a bunch of other errors: "Function.prototype.toString called on incompatible object" and if I try to call _myCat.getColor() "myCat.getColor is not a function" Now I am totally confused. After reading Crockford, and Flanagan I did not get the solution for the errors. So it would be great if somebody knows... - why is the prototype undefined in the first example (which is foremost concern; I thought the prototype of explicitly set in the object() function) - why get I these strange errors trying to use the mammal function as prototype object in the object() function? Edit by the Creator of the Question: These two links helped a lot too: Prototypes_in_JavaScript on the spheredev wiki explains the way the prototype property works relativily simple. What it lacks is some try-out code examples. Some good examples are provided by Morris John's Article. I personally find the explanations are not that easy as in the first link, but still very good. The most difficult part even after I actually got it is really not to confuse the .prototype propery with the internal [[Prototype]] of an object.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 849 850 851 852 853 854 855 856 857 858 859 860  | Next Page >