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  • select option clears when page loads in php

    - by user79685
    Hey guys, the scenario is this: see select below <form name="limit"> <select name="limiter" onChange="limit(this.value)"> <option selected="selected">&nbsp;</option> <option value="5">5</option> <option value="10">10</option> <option value="15">15</option> </select> </form> I want whenever any option is selected for 3 things to happen: 1.) js limit() function is called which all it does its takes current url, adds new query parameter 'limit' with the user selected value eg: http://localhost/blahblah/apps/category.php?pg=1&catId=3021&limit=5 (this will cause the category.php page to be hit and # of product displayed limited to the value selected by user) 2.)Once the url is hit, it reloads but i DONT want the value selected to reset back to the default (which it currently does). I want it to reflect the users selection after page reload. 3.) Also, when i move to the next page (pagination), i would like the state to be carried ova to the next page (ie. remembering the user selection).

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  • Access Controller Context/ TempData from business objects

    - by thanikkal
    I am trying to build a session/tempdata provider that can be swapped. The default provider will work on top of asp.net mvc and it needed to access the .net mvc TempData from the business object class. I know the tempdata is available through the controller context, but i cant seem to find if that is exposed through HttpContext or something. I dont really want to pass the Controller context as an argument as that would dilute my interface definition since only asp.net based session provider needs this, other (using NoSQL DB etc) doesn't care about Controller Context. To clarify further, adding little more code here. my ISession interface look like this. and when this code goes to production, the session/tempdata is expected to work using NoSql db. But i also like to have another implementation that works on top of asp.net mvc session/tempdata for my dev testing etc. public interface ISession { T GetTempData<T>(string key); void PutTempData<T>(string key, T value); T GetSessiondata<T>(string key); void PutSessiondata<T>(string key, T value); }

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  • How do I serialise a graph in Java without getting StackOverflowException?

    - by Tim Cooper
    I have a graph structure in java, ("graph" as in "edges and nodes") and I'm attempting to serialise it. However, I get "StackOverflowException", despite significantly increasing the JVM stack size. I did some googling, and apparently this is a well known limitation of java serialisation: that it doesn't work for deeply nested object graphs such as long linked lists - it uses a stack record for each link in the chain, and it doesn't do anything clever such as a breadth-first traversal, and therefore you very quickly get a stack overflow. The recommended solution is to customise the serialisation code by overriding readObject() and writeObject(), however this seems a little complex to me. (It may or may not be relevant, but I'm storing a bunch of fields on each edge in the graph so I have a class JuNode which contains a member ArrayList<JuEdge> links;, i.e. there are 2 classes involved, rather than plain object references from one node to another. It shouldn't matter for the purposes of the question). My question is threefold: (a) why don't the implementors of Java rectify this limitation or are they already working on it? (I can't believe I'm the first person to ever want to serialise a graph in java) (b) is there a better way? Is there some drop-in alternative to the default serialisation classes that does it in a cleverer way? (c) if my best option is to get my hands dirty with low-level code, does someone have an example of graph serialisation java source-code that can use to learn how to do it?

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  • How can I replace a UITableViewController with a UIViewController that contains a UITableView?

    - by Dr Dork
    I created a new SplitView iPad project in Xcode and setup the code to populate the TableView (in the RootView on the left) with data. Now I'd like to customize the RootView to contain a DatePicker view along with the TableView, but I'm unsure how to accomplish this. Since the default RootViewController is a subclass of a UITableViewController, I couldn't add a DatePicker view to it in IB (since you can't add a DatePicker to a UITableView). The only way I understand to accomplish my goal of adding a DatePicker to the "Left" RootView is to change the RootViewController from a subclass of a UITableViewController to a subclass of a UIViewController, then I'll be able to add a view to it that contains a DatePicker view and a TableView using IB. Questions... Is this the correct approach to add a DatePicker to the "Left" RootView? If so and I change the RootViewController to a subclass of a UIViewController (instead of a UITableViewController) and add to it a TableView (along with the DatePicker), how will that affect the code I currently have in place for populating my current TableView? Thanks so much for all your help! Below is my current interface code for my RootViewController, if it'll help any. @interface RootViewController : UITableViewController <NSFetchedResultsControllerDelegate> { DetailViewController *detailViewController; NSFetchedResultsController *fetchedResultsController; NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet DetailViewController *detailViewController; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSFetchedResultsController *fetchedResultsController; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext; - (void)insertNewObject:(id)sender; @end

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  • Finding the index of a list item in jQuery

    - by Tim Piele
    I have an unordered list of eight items. On page load the first five <li> have default thumbnail images in them and the 6th one has a 1px by 1px placeholder image with the ID of $('#last'). When a user inserts a new image it replaces the 'src' of $('#last') with their new image. It's not the most efficient way but it works. <ul> <li><img src="img1.png" /></li> <li><img src="img2.png" /></li> <li><img src="img3.png" /></li> <li><img src="img4.png" /></li> <li><img src="img5.png" /></li> <li><img src="1px.png" id="last"/></li> <li></li> <li></li> </ul> When the user adds a new image the ID of $('#last') is removed and I use each() to find the next empty <li> and insert the 1px by 1px image in it, with an ID of $('#last') so it is ready for the next image upload. At this point I need to get the index() of the <li> that now has the 1px by 1px image in it, whose ID is $('#last'), so that I can store the index in the session, so when a user comes back to the page the $('#last') ID is still set and ready to accept another image. How do I get the index of the <li> with that image in it, since it was set after page load? Is there a way to use delegate() or on() to get it? i.e. how do I get the index of an element that was set after page load?

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  • How to use custom UITableViewCell from Interface Builder?

    - by Krumelur
    I want to be able to design my own UITableViewCell in IB. But I keep getting a null ref exception when trying to access the label I defined in IB. Here's what I'm doing: In Interface Builder: I removed the "View" and added a UITableViewCell instead. Changed the class of the UITableViewCell to "TestCellView". Added a UILabel to the cell. Added an outlet "oLblText" to TestCellView and connected the UILabel to it. Changed the identifier of the class to "TestCellView". Implement TestCellView.xib.cs public partial class TestCellView : UITableViewCell { public TestCellView(string sKey) : base(UITableViewCellStyle.Default, sKey) { } public TestCellView(IntPtr oHandle) : base(oHandle) { } public string TestText { get { return this.oLblText.Text; } set { // HERE I get the null ref exception! this.oLblText.Text = value; } } } ** The TestCellView.designer.cs** [MonoTouch.Foundation.Register("TestCellView")] public partial class TestCellView { private MonoTouch.UIKit.UILabel __mt_oLblText; #pragma warning disable 0169 [MonoTouch.Foundation.Connect("oLblText")] private MonoTouch.UIKit.UILabel oLblText { get { this.__mt_oLblText = ((MonoTouch.UIKit.UILabel)(this.GetNativeField("oLblText"))); return this.__mt_oLblText; } set { this.__mt_oLblText = value; this.SetNativeField("oLblText", value); } } } In my table's source: public override UITableViewCell GetCell (UITableView tableView, NSIndexPath indexPath) { TestCellView oCell = (TestCellView)tableView.DequeueReusableCell("myCell"); if(oCell == null) { // I suppose this is wrong but how to do it correctly? // this == my UITableViewSource. NSBundle.MainBundle.LoadNib("TestCellView", this, null); oCell = new TestCellView("myCell"); } oCell.TestText = "Cell " + indexPath.Row; return oCell; } Please note that I do NOT want a solution that involves a UIViewController for every cell. I have seen a couple of examples on the web doing this. I just think it is total overkill. What am I doing wrong?

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  • How do I correcly handle ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Ambiguous?

    - by RWC
    In my code I try to handle ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Ambiguous. The line unambiguousLocalDateTime = localDateTimeMapping.EarlierMapping; throws an InvalidOperationException with message "EarlierMapping property should not be called on a result of type Ambiguous". I have no clue how I should handle it. Can you give me an example? This is what my code looks like: public Instant getInstant(int year, int month, int day, int hour, int minute) { var localDateTime = new LocalDateTime(year, month, day, hour, minute); //invalidated, might be not existing var timezone = DateTimeZone.ForId(TimeZoneId); //TimeZone is set elsewhere, example "Brazil/East" var localDateTimeMapping = timezone.MapLocalDateTime(localDateTime); ZonedDateTime unambiguousLocalDateTime; switch (localDateTimeMapping.Type) { case ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Unambiguous: unambiguousLocalDateTime = localDateTimeMapping.UnambiguousMapping; break; case ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Ambiguous: unambiguousLocalDateTime = localDateTimeMapping.EarlierMapping; break; case ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Skipped: unambiguousLocalDateTime = new ZonedDateTime(localDateTimeMapping.ZoneIntervalAfterTransition.Start, timezone); break; default: throw new InvalidOperationException(string.Format("Unexpected mapping result type: {0}", localDateTimeMapping.Type)); } return unambiguousLocalDateTime.ToInstant(); } If I look at class ZoneLocalMapping I see the following code: /// <summary> /// In an ambiguous mapping, returns the earlier of the two ZonedDateTimes which map to the original LocalDateTime. /// </summary> /// <exception cref="InvalidOperationException">The mapping isn't ambiguous.</exception> public virtual ZonedDateTime EarlierMapping { get { throw new InvalidOperationException("EarlierMapping property should not be called on a result of type " + type); } } That's why I am receiving the exception, but what should I do to get the EarlierMapping?

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  • Custom permalinks switching function. Please check this logic...

    - by Scott B
    I've got a setting in my theme options panel to allow the user to switch the permalinks setting to support friendly URLs. I'm only allowing /%postname%/ and /%postname%.html as options. I don't want to be triggering an htaccess rewrite everytime someone accesses a page on the site or views theme options, so I'm trying to code this to avoid that. I've got an input field in theme options that's called $myTheme_permalinks. The default value for this is "/%postname%/" but the user can also change it to "/%postname%.html" Here's the code at the top of theme options to handle this setting. Does this look sound? if(get_option('myTheme_permalinks') =="/%postname%/" && get_option('permalink_structure') !== "/%postname%/" || !get_option('myTheme_permalinks')) { require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/misc.php'); require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/file.php'); global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->set_permalink_structure('/%postname%/'); $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); update_option('permalink_structure','/%postname%/'); update_option('myTheme_permalinks','/%postname%/'); } else if (get_option('myTheme_permalinks') =="/%postname%.html" && get_option('permalink_structure') !== "/%postname%.html" && ) { require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/misc.php'); require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/file.php'); global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->set_permalink_structure('/%postname%.html'); $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); update_option('permalink_structure','/%postname%.html'); }

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  • Change Address/Port of WSDL EndPointAddress at runtime?

    - by Pretzel
    So I currently have 3 WSDLs added as Service References in my solution. They look like this in my app.config file (I removed the "bindings" field, because it's uninteresting): <system.serviceModel> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/query-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="QueryBinding" contract="QueryService.Query" name="QueryPort" /> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/platetype-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="PlateTypeBinding" contract="PlateTypeService.PlateType" name="PlateTypePort" /> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/dataimport-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="DataImportBinding" contract="DataImportService.DataImport" name="DataImportPort" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> When I utilize a WSDL, it looks something like this: using (DataService.DataClient dClient = new DataService.DataClient()) { DataService.importTask impt = new DataService.importTask(); impt.String_1 = "someData"; DataService.importResponse imptr = dClient.importTask(impt); } In the "using" statement, when instantiating the DataClient object, I have 5 constructors available to me. In this scenario, I use the default constructor: new DataService.DataClient() which uses the built-in Endpoint Address string, which is fine and good. But I want the user of the application to have the option to change this value. 1) What's the best/easiest way of programatically obtaining this string? 2) Then, once I've allowed the user to edit and test the value, where should I store it? I'd prefer having it be stored in a place (like app.config or equivalent) so that there is no need for checking whether the value exists or not and whether I should be using an alternate constructor. (Looking to keep my code tight, ya know?) Any ideas? Suggestions?

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  • increase number of photos from flickr using json

    - by Andrew Welch
    Hi this is my code: Is is possible to get more photos from flickr. What is the standard / default number? $(document).ready(function(){ $.getJSON("http://api.flickr.com/services/feeds/photos_public.gne?id=48719970@N07&lang=en-us&format=json&jsoncallback=?", function(data){ $.each(data.items, function(i, item){ var newurl = 'url(' + item.media.m + ')'; $("<div class='images'/>").css('background', newurl).css('backgroundPosition','top center').css('backgroundRepeat','no-repeat').appendTo("#images").wrap("<a target=\"_blank\ href='" + item.link + "'></a>"); }) $("#title").html(data.title); $("#description").html(data.description); $("#link").html("<a href='" + data.link + "' target=\"_blank\">Visit the Viget Inspiration Pool!</a>"); //Notice that the object here is "data" because that information sits outside of "items" in the JSON feed $('.jcycleimagecarousel').cycle({ fx: 'fade', speed: 300, timeout: 3000, next: '#next', prev: '#prev', pause: 1, random: 1 }); }); });

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  • How to authenticate multiple entry points in a facebook app?

    - by Simon_Weaver
    I am using an IFrame application with XFBML and the new Javascript API. I'd like to have a facebook application with multiple entry points. These will most likely represent different links coming from a fan page tab. I can do this quite easily if the pages don't require authentication - for instance I can create several pages under the app and if a new user comes I can send them to any page: http://apps.facebook.com/myapp/offers http://apps.facebook.com/myapp/game http://apps.facebook.com/myapp/products The problem is that if I need to have authentication then once the user is authenticated they get redirected to my default post-authorization url. Is there a way for a user that comes to /game to stay on /game after they are authenticated without redirecting. I thought I could do it with the AJAX login form - but I cannot find out how to do that in a Facebook IFrame application. I think the example using requirelogin only works for FBML. <a href="http://apps.facebook.com/mysmiley" requirelogin=1> Welcome to my app</a>. Is there a way to accomplish this with Facebook APIs - or will I have to do some kind of clever cookie handling?

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  • mongoose updating a field in a MongoDB not working

    - by Masiar
    I have this code var UserSchema = new Schema({ Username: {type: String, index: true}, Password: String, Email: String, Points: {type: Number, default: 0} }); [...] var User = db.model('User'); /* * Function to save the points in the user's account */ function savePoints(name, points){ if(name != "unregistered user"){ User.find({Username: name}, function(err, users){ var oldPoints = users[0].Points; var newPoints = oldPoints + points; User.update({name: name}, { $inc: {Points: newPoints}}, function(err){ if(err){ console.log("some error happened when update"); } else{ console.log("update successfull! with name = " + name); User.find({Username: name}, function(err, users) { console.log("updated : " + users[0].Points); }); } }); }); } } savePoints("Masiar", 666); I would like to update my user (by finding it with its name) by updating his/her points. I'm sure oldPoints and points contain a value, but still my user keep being at zero points. The console prints "update successful". What am I doing wrong? Sorry for the stupid / noob question. Masiar

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  • Zend_Auth and database SaveHandler

    - by takeshin
    I have created Zend_Auth adapter implementing Zend_Auth_Adapter_Interface (similar to Pádraic's adapter) and created simple ACL plugin. Everything works fine with default session handler. So far, so good. As a next step I have created custom Session SaveHandler to persist session data in the database. My implementation is very similar to this one from parables-demo. Seems that everything is working fine. Session data are properly saved to the database, session objects are serialized, but authentication does not work when I enable this custom SaveHandler. I have debugged the authentication and all works fine up till the next request, when the authentication data are lost. I suspected, that is has something to do with the fact, that I use $adapter->write($object) instead $adapter->write($string), but the same happens with strings. I'm bootstrapping Zend_Application_Resource_Session in the first Bootstrap method, as early as possible. Does Zend_Auth need any extra configuration to persist data in the database? Why the authentity is being lost?

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  • error while reading Excel sheet

    - by Lalit
    Hi, I have code to read Excel from c3 language : DataTable dtChildrenData = new DataTable(); OdbcConnection oConn = null; try { if (File.Exists(strSheetPath)) { oConn = new OdbcConnection(); oConn.ConnectionString = @"DSN=Excel Files;DBQ=" + strSheetPath + @";DriverId=1046;FIL=excel 12.0;MaxBufferSize=2048;PageTimeout=5;"; OdbcCommand oComm = new OdbcCommand(); oComm.Connection = oConn; oComm.CommandText = "Select * From [Sheet1$]"; DataSet ds = new DataSet(); OdbcDataAdapter oAdapter = new OdbcDataAdapter(oComm); oConn.Open(); oAdapter.Fill(ds); dtChildrenData = ds.Tables[0]; } } finally { oConn.Close(); } return dtChildrenData; But getting this error when i deploy the web application on IIS. Wherere as it is running fine locally. ERROR [IM002] [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified How to solve this. Please let me know if any information required to answer this question (about configuration)

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  • Where is rebol fill-pen documented (to get glow effect on a round rectangle) ?

    - by Rebol Tutorial
    There is some discussion here about fill-pen http://www.mail-archive.com/[email protected]/msg02019.html But I can't see documentation about cubic, diamond, etc... effect for fill-pen in rebol's official doc ? I'm trying to draw some round rectangle with glowing effect but don't really understand the parameters I'm playing with so I can't get exactly what I'd like (I'd like the glow effect starting from the center not from the dark left top corner): view layout [ box 278x185 effect [ ; default box face size is 100x100 draw [ anti-alias on ; information for the next draw element (not required) line-width 2.5 ; number of pixels in width of the border pen black ; color of the edge of the next draw element ; fill pen is a little complex: ;fill-pen 10x10 0 90 0 1 1 0.0.0 255.0.0 255.0.255 fill-pen radial 20x20 5 55 5 5 10 0.0.0 55.0.5 55.0.5 ; the draw element box ; another box drawn as an effect 15 ; size of rounding in pixels 0x0 ; upper left corner 278x170 ; lower right corner ] ] ]

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  • How do the operators < and > work with pointers?

    - by Øystein
    Just for fun, I had a std::list of const char*, each element pointing to a null-terminated text string, and ran a std::list::sort() on it. As it happens, it sort of (no pun intended) did not sort the strings. Considering that it was working on pointers, that makes sense. According to the documentation of std::list::sort(), it (by default) uses the operator < between the elements to compare. Forgetting about the list for a moment, my actual question is: How do these (, <, =, <=) operators work on pointers in C++ and C? Do they simply compare the actual memory addresses? char* p1 = (char*) 0xDAB0BC47; char* p2 = (char*) 0xBABEC475; e.g. on a 32-bit, little-endian system, p1 p2 because 0xDAB0BC47 0xBABEC475? Testing seems to confirm this, but I thought it'd be good to put it on StackOverflow for future reference. C and C++ both do some weird things to pointers, so you never really know...

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  • Jquery cycle plugin and image tag from code behind

    - by Geetha
    Hi All, I am using cycle plugin to show images. I am binding the html code for image from code behind. Problem: Images are not getting displayed. If i hard coded the image tag it is working. Code: $(window).load(function() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: "{}", url: "Default.aspx/GetImage", dataType: "json", success: function(data) { alert(data.d); $("#sample").html(data.d); $('#sample').cycle({ fx: 'fade', continuous: true, speed: 7500, timeout: 55000, pause: 1, sync: 1 }); } }); }); Data.d will give: <img src="Images/Frontbanner/s0.jpg" width="664" height="428" border="0" /> <img src="Images/Frontbanner/s111.jpg" width="664" height="428" border="0" /> <img src="Images/Frontbanner/s112.jpg" width="664" height="428" border="0" /> <img src="Images/Frontbanner/s113.jpg" width="664" height="428" border="0" /> <img src="Images/Frontbanner/s114.jpg" width="664" height="428" border="0" /> <img src="Images/Frontbanner/s115.jpg" width="664" height="428" border="0" /> <img src="Images/Frontbanner/s116.jpg" width="664" height="428" border="0" />

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  • Which fieldtype is best for storing PRICE values?

    - by BerggreenDK
    Hi there I am wondering whats the best "price field" in MSSQL for a shoplike structure? Looking at this overview: http://www.teratrax.com/sql_guide/data_types/sql_server_data_types.html We have datatypes called money, smallmoney, then we have decimal/numeric and lastly float and real Name, memory/disk-usage and value ranges: Money: 8 bytes (values: -922,337,203,685,477.5808 to +922,337,203,685,477.5807) Smallmoney: 4 bytes (values: -214,748.3648 to +214,748.3647) Decimal: 9 [default, min. 5] bytes (values: -10^38 +1 to 10^38 -1 ) Float: 8 bytes (values: -1.79E+308 to 1.79E+308 ) Real: 4 bytes (values: -3.40E+38 to 3.40E+38 ) My question is: is it really wise to store pricevalues in those types? what about eg. INT? Int: 4 bytes (values: -2,147,483,648 to 2,147,483,647) Lets say a shop uses dollars, they have cents, but I dont see prices being $49.2142342 so the use of a lot of decimals showing cents seems waste of SQL bandwidth. Secondly, most shops wouldn't show any prices near 200.000.000 (not in normal webshops at least... unless someone is trying to sell me a famous tower in Paris) So why not go for an int? An int is fast, its only 4 bytes and you can easily make decimals, by saving values in cents instead of dollars and then divide when you present the values. The other approach would be to use smallmoney which is 4 bytes too, but this will require the math part of the CPU to do the calc, where as Int is integer power... on the downside you will need to divide every single outcome. Are there any "currency" related problems with regionalsettings when using smallmoney/money fields? what will these transfer too in C#/.NET ? Any pros/cons? Go for integer prices or smallmoney or some other? Whats does your experience tell?

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  • Using Kerberos authentication for SQL Server 2008

    - by vivek m
    I am trying to configure my SQL Server to use Kerberos authentication. My setup is like this - My setup is like this- I have 2 virtual PCs in a Windows XP Pro SP3 host. Both VPCs are Windows Server 2003 R2. One VPC acts as the DC, DNS Server, DHCP server, has Active Directory installed and the SQL Server default instance is also running on this VPC. The second VPC is the domain member and it acts as the SQL Server client machine. I configured the SPN on the SQL Server service account to get the Kerberos working. On the client VPC it seems like it is using Kerberos authentication (as desired)- C:\Documents and Settings\administrator.SHAREPOINTSVC>sqlcmd -S vm-winsrvr2003 1> select auth_scheme from sys.dm_exec_connections where session_id=@@spid 2> go auth_scheme ---------------------------------------- KERBEROS (1 rows affected) 1> but on the server computer (where the SQL Server instance is actually running) it looks like it is still using NTLM authentication- . This is not a remote instance, the sql server is local to this machine. C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator>sqlcmd 1> select auth_scheme from sys.dm_exec_connections where session_id=@@spid 2> go auth_scheme ---------------------------------------- NTLM (1 rows affected) 1> What can i do so that it uses Kerberos on the server computer as well ? (or is this something that I should not expect)

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  • How to get the related_name of a many-to-many-field?

    - by amann
    I am trying to get the related_name of a many-to-many-field. The m2m-field is located betweeen the models "Group" and "Lection" and is declared in the group-model as following: lections = models.ManyToManyField(Lection, blank=True) The field looks like this: <django.db.models.fields.related.ManyToManyField object at 0x012AD690> The print of field.__dict__ is: {'_choices': [], '_m2m_column_cache': 'group_id', '_m2m_name_cache': 'group', '_m2m_reverse_column_cache': 'lection_id', '_m2m_reverse_name_cache': 'lection', '_unique': False, 'attname': 'lections', 'auto_created': False, 'blank': True, 'column': 'lections', 'creation_counter': 71, 'db_column': None, 'db_index': False, 'db_table': None, 'db_tablespace': '', 'default': <class django.db.models.fields.NOT_PROVIDED at 0x00FC8780>, 'editable': True, 'error_messages': {'blank': <django.utils.functional.__proxy__ object at 0x00FC 7B50>, 'invalid_choice': <django.utils.functional.__proxy__ object at 0x00FC7A50>, 'null': <django.utils.functional.__proxy__ object at 0x00FC7 A70>}, 'help_text': <django.utils.functional.__proxy__ object at 0x012AD6F0>, 'm2m_column_name': <function _curried at 0x012A88F0>, 'm2m_db_table': <function _curried at 0x012A8AF0>, 'm2m_field_name': <function _curried at 0x012A8970>, 'm2m_reverse_field_name': <function _curried at 0x012A89B0>, 'm2m_reverse_name': <function _curried at 0x012A8930>, 'max_length': None, 'name': 'lections', 'null': False, 'primary_key': False, 'rel': <django.db.models.fields.related.ManyToManyRel object at 0x012AD6B0>, 'related': <RelatedObject: mymodel:group related to lections>, 'related_query_name': <function _curried at 0x012A8670>, 'serialize': True, 'unique_for_date': None, 'unique_for_month': None, 'unique_for_year': None, 'validators': [], 'verbose_name': 'lections'} Now the field should be accessed via a lection-instance. So this is done by lection.group_set But i need to access it dynamically, so there is the need to get the related_name attribute from somewhere. Here in the documentation, there is a note that it is possible to access ManyToManyField.related_name, but this doesn't work for my somehow.. Help would be a lot appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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  • OUTPUT DID NOT REDIRECT TO THE INTENDED FILE OPENED FOR..

    - by rockyurock
    HELLO ALL, I USED THE BELOW CODE FOR CAPTURING THE OUTPUT (BELOW IN lines) IN A FILE "my_output.txt" BUT FAILED TO CAPTURE. **************output*************** inside value loop ------------------------------------------------------------ Server listening on UDP port 5001 Receiving 1470 byte datagrams UDP buffer size: 108 KByte (default) ------------------------------------------------------------ [ 3] local 192.168.16.2 port 5001 connected with 192.168.16.1 port 3189 [ ID] Interval Transfer Bandwidth Jitter Lost/Total Datagrams [ 3] 0.0- 5.0 sec 2.14 MBytes 3.61 Mbits/sec 0.369 ms 0/ 1528 (0%) inside value loop3 clue1 clue2 inside value loop4 one iperf completed *************************************** however when i enabled the local *STDOUT; in below code then i could see the above output on command prompt display (ofcourse server is sending some data). could anybody suggest me how can i capture the o/p in a file intended? below is the code i am using .. my $file = 'my_output.txt'; use Win32::Process; print"inside value loop\n"; # redirect stdout to a file #local *STDOUT; open STDOUT, '>', $file or die "can't redirect STDOUT to <$file> $!"; Win32::Process::Create(my $ProcessObj, "D:\\IOT_AUTOMATION_UTILITY\\_SATURDAY_09-04-10\\adb_cmd.bat", "adb shell /data/app/iperf -u -s -p 5001", 0, NORMAL_PRIORITY_CLASS, ".") || die ErrorReport(); #$alarm_time = $IPERF_RUN_TIME+10; #20sec #$ProcessObj->Wait(40); #print"inside value loop2\n"; #sleep $alarm_time; sleep 40; $ProcessObj->Kill(0); sub ErrorReport{ print Win32::FormatMessage( Win32::GetLastError() ); } /rocky

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  • Problem executing trackPageview with Google Analytics.

    - by dmrnj
    I'm trying to capture the clicks of certain download links and track them in Google Analytics. Here's my code var links = document.getElementsByTagName("a"); for (var i = 0; i < links.length; i++) { linkpath = links[i].pathname; if( linkpath.match(/\.(pdf|xls|ppt|doc|zip|txt)$/) || links[i].href.indexOf("mode=pdf") >=0 ){ //this matches our search addClickTracker(links[i]); } } function addClickTracker(obj){ if (obj.addEventListener) { obj.addEventListener('click', track , true); } else if (obj.attachEvent) { obj.attachEvent("on" + 'click', track); } } function track(e){ linkhref = (e.srcElement) ? e.srcElement.pathname : this.pathname; pageTracker._trackPageview(linkhref); } Everything up until the pageTracker._trackPageview() call works. In my debugging linkhref is being passed fine as a string. No abnormal characters, nothing. The issue is that, watching my http requests, Google never makes a second call to the tracking gif (as it does if you call this function in an "onclick" property). Calling the tracker from my JS console also works as expected. It's only in my listener. Could it be that my listener is not deferring the default action (loading the new page) before it has a chance to contact Google's servers? I've seen other tracking scripts that do a similar thing without any deferral.

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  • Retaining parameters in ASP.NET MVC

    - by MapDot
    Many MVC frameworks (e.g. PHP's Zend Framework) have a way of providing basic state management through URLs. The basic principle is this: Any parameters that were not explicitly modified or un-set get copied into every URL For instance, consider a listing with pagination. You'll have the order, direction and page number passed as URL parameters. You may also have a couple of filters. Changing the value of a filter should not alter the sort order. ASP.net MVC seems to remember your controller and action by default: <%: Html.RouteLink("Next", "MyRoute", new {id = next.ItemId}) %> This will not re-set your action or controller. However, it does seem to forget all other parameters. The same is true of ActionLink. Parameters that get set earlier on in your URL seem to get retained as well. Is there a way to make it retain more than that? For instance, this does not seem to affect any of the links being generated: RouteValues.RouteData.Values["showDeleted"] = true;

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  • How could I cache images that I'm pulling from a magento database through ajax?

    - by wes
    Here's script being called through ajax: <?php require_once '../app/Mage.php'; umask(0); /* not Mage::run(); */ Mage::app('default'); $cat_id = ($_POST['cat_id']) ? $_POST['cat_id'] : NULL; try { $category = new Mage_Catalog_Model_Category(); $category->load($cat_id); $collection = $category->getProductCollection(); $output = '<ul>'; foreach ($collection as $product) { $cProduct = Mage::getModel('catalog/product'); $cProduct->load($product->getId()); $output .= '<li><img id="'.$product->getId().'" src="' . (string)Mage::helper('catalog/image')->init($cProduct, 'small_image')->resize(75) . '" class="thumb" /></li>'; } $output .= '</ul>'; echo $output; } catch (Exception $e) { echo 'Caught exception: ', $e->getMessage(), "\n"; } I'm just passing in the Category ID, which I've tacked onto the navigation links, then doing some work to eventually just pass back all product images in that category. I'm using this on a drag and drop build-a-bracelet type of application, and the amount of images returned is sometimes in the 500s. So it get's pretty held up during transmission, sometimes 10 seconds or so. I know I'd do good by caching them some way, just not sure how to go about it. Any help is much appreciated. Thanks. -Wes

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  • Two Problems I'm having with UIButton and UIView.

    - by Andy
    Hi all, I haven't been programming on the iPhone for very long, but I'm picking it up slowly by googling problems I get. Unfortunately I haven't been able to find an answer for these. I have started a new View-based application in Xcode 3.2.2 and immediately added the following files: myUIView.m and myUIView.h, which are subclasses of UIView. In Interface Builder, I set the subclass of the default UIView to be myUIView. I made a button in the drawRect method. Problem one: The title of the button only appears AFTER I click the screen, why? Problem two: I want the button to produce the modalview - is this possible? The code is as follow: #import "myUIView.h" @implementation myUIView - (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { // Drawing code button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect]; button.frame = CGRectMake(0,0,100,100); [button setTitle:@"butty" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonPressed:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [self addSubview:button]; } -(void)buttonPressed:(id)sender{ NSLog(@"Button pressed"); //present modal view somehow..? } I can't see how to post attachments, but if anyone thinks it will help I can upload the source. Many thanks, Andy

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