Search Results

Search found 2670 results on 107 pages for 'trigger'.

Page 86/107 | < Previous Page | 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93  | Next Page >

  • CATiledLayer blanking tiles before drawing contents

    - by Greg Plesur
    All, I'm having trouble getting behavior that I want from CATiledLayer. Is there a way that I can trigger the tiles to redraw without having the side-effect that their areas are cleared to white first? I've already subclassed CATiledLayer to set fadeDuration to return 0. To be more specific, here are the details of what I'm seeing and what I'm trying to achieve: I have a UIScrollView with a big content size...~12000x800. Its content view is a UIView backed by a CATiledLayer. The UIView is rendered with a lot of custom-drawn lines Everything works fine, but the contents of the UIView sometimes change. When that happens, I'd like to redraw the tiles as seamlessly as possible. When I use setNeedsDisplay on the view, the tiles redraw but they are first cleared to white and there's a fraction-of-a-second delay before the new content is drawn. I've already subclassed CATiledLayer so that fadeDuration is set to 0. The behavior that I want seems like it should be possible...when you zoom in on the scrollview and the content gets redrawn at a higher resolution, there's no blanking before the redraw; the new content is drawn right on top of the old one. That's what I'm looking for. Thanks; I appreciate your ideas. Update: Just to follow up - I realized that the tiles weren't being cleared to white before the redraw, they're being taken out entirely; the white that I was seeing is the color of the view that's beneath my CATiledLayer-backed view. As a quick hack/fix, I put a UIImageView beneath the UIScrollView, and before triggering a redraw of the CATiledLayer-backed view I render its visible section into the UIImageView and let it show. This smooths out the redraw significantly. If anyone has a better solution, like keeping the redraw-targeted tiles from going away before being redrawn in the first place, I'd still love to hear it.

    Read the article

  • How do I pass data from a BroadcastReceiver through to an Activity being started?

    - by Tom Hume
    I've got an Android application which needs to be woken up sporadically throughout the day. To do this, I'm using the AlarmManager to set up a PendingIntent and have this trigger a BroadcastReceiver. This BroadcastReceiver then starts an Activity to bring the UI to the foreground. All of the above seems to work, in that the Activity launches itself correctly; but I'd like the BroadcastReceiver to notify the Activity that it was started by the alarm (as opposed to being started by the user). To do this I'm trying, from the onReceive() method of the BroadcastReceiver to set a variable in the extras bundle of the intent, thus: Intent i = new Intent(context, MyActivity.class); i.putExtra(wakeupKey, true); i.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); context.startActivity(i); In the onResume() method of my Activity, I then look for the existence of this boolean variable: protected void onResume() { super.onResume(); String wakeupKey = "blah"; if (getIntent()!=null && getIntent().getExtras()!=null) Log.d("app", "onResume at " + System.currentTimeMillis() + ":" + getIntent().getExtras().getBoolean(wakeupKey)); else Log.d("app", "onResume at " + System.currentTimeMillis() + ": null"); } The getIntent().getExtras() call in onResume() always returns null - I don't seem to be able to pass any extras through at all in this bundle. If I use the same method to bind extras to the PendingIntent which triggers the BroadcastReceiver however, the extras come through just fine. Can anyone tell me what's different about passing a bundle from a BroadcastReceiver to an Activity, as opposed to passing the bundle from an Activity to a BroadcastReceiver? I fear I may be doing something very very obvious wrong here...

    Read the article

  • Limit the number of rows returned on the server side (forced limit)

    - by evolve
    So we have a piece of software which has a poorly written SQL statement which is causing every row from a table to be returned. There are several million rows in the table so this is causing serious memory issues and crashes on our clients machine. The vendor is in the process of creating a patch for the issue, however it is still a few weeks out. In the mean time we were attempting to figure out a method of limiting the number of results returned on the server side just as a temporary fix. I have no real hope of there being a solution, I've looked around and don't really see any ways of doing this, however I'm hoping someone might have an idea. Thank you in advance. EDIT I forgot an important piece of information, we have no access to the source code so we can not change this on the client side where the SQL statement is formed. There is no real server side component, the client just accesses the database directly. Any solution would basically require a procedure, trigger, or some sort of SQL-Server 2008 setting/command.

    Read the article

  • My AJAX is only firing once,

    - by sea_1987
    Hi There, I ahave some ajax that is fired when a checkbox is clicked, it essentially sends a query string to a PHP script and then returns the relevant HTML, however, if I select a select it works fine if I then slect another checkbox as well as the previous I get no activity what so ever, not even any errors in firebug, it is very curious, does anyone have any ideas? //Location AJAX //var dataObject = new Object(); var selected = new Array(); //alert(selected); $('#areas input.radio').change(function(){ // will trigger when the checked status changes var checked = $(this).attr("checked"); // will return "checked" or false I think. // Do whatever request you like with the checked status if(checked == true) { //selected.join('&'); selected = $('input:checked').map(function() { return $(this).attr('name')+"="+$(this).val(); }).get(); getQuery = selected.join('&')+"&location_submit=Next"; alert(getQuery); $.ajax({ type:"POST", url:"/search/location", data: getQuery, success:function(data){ //alert(getQuery); //console.log(data); $('body.secEmp').html(data); } }); } else { //do something to remove the content here alert($(this).attr('name')); } });

    Read the article

  • Did you love the game Mouse Trap as a kid, or something similar? (Programmer Psychology) [closed]

    - by Robert Oschler
    When I was a kid I absolutely fell in love with games that had as a core feature, the need to understand interconnecting structures. My favorite of all time was Mouse Trap. For the younger crowd out there, this was a very cool board game where you built the mouse trap out of the included plastic pieces as you played, with the end goal to trigger the mouse trap. The fully assembled mouse trap was a Rube Goldberg style invention where one operation triggered the next and the next and so on, until the last step dropped a cage on a little plastic mouse. Sometimes when I'm programming and I'm reviewing a particularly complex interaction between components and objects, while tracking the flow path mentally, I say to myself "It's a Mouse Trap!" and I wonder if my early addiction to that game and others like it was portent to my becoming a programmer. Another realization I have sometimes when looking at my code is how daunted I feel at the share complexity involved, followed by a darker comedic amazement at my expectation that it will all come together and work. How about you? Did you find yourself drawn to games that at their heart featured interacting control paths when growing up? Robert.

    Read the article

  • Running job in the background from Perl WITHOUT waiting for return

    - by Rafael Almeida
    The Disclaimer First of all, I know this question (or close variations) have been asked a thousand times. I really spent a few hours looking in the obvious and the not-so-obvious places, but there may be something small I'm missing. The Context Let me define the problem more clearly: I'm writing a newsletter app in which I want the actual sending process to be async. As in, user clicks "send", request returns immediately and then they can check the progress in a specific page (via AJAX, for example). It's written in your traditional LAMP stack. In the particular host I'm using, PHP's exec() and system() are disabled for security reasons, but Perl's system functions (exec, system and backticks) aren't. So my workaround solution was to create a "trigger" script in Perl that calls the actual sender via the PHP CLI, and redirects to the progress page. Where I'm Stuck The very line the calls the sender is, as of now: system("php -q sender.php &"); Problem being, it's not returning immediately, but waiting for the script to finish. I want it to run in the background but the system call itself returns right away. I also tried running a similar script in my Linux terminal, and in fact the prompt doesn't show until after the script has finished, even though my test output doesn't run, indicating it's really running in the background. What I already tried Perl's exec() function - same result of system(). Changing the command to: "php -q sender.php | at now"), hoping that the "at" daemon would return and that the PHP process itself wouldn't be attached to Perl. What should I try now?

    Read the article

  • Rotate a feature Image in Open Layers - ReApply StyleMap to layer.

    - by Ozaki
    I have an open layers map. It adds and removes my "imageFeature" every 10secs or so. I have a JSON feed that gives me the rotation that I need, I have a request to get that rotation and set it as a variable of rotationv. Everything works but the fact when the image is recreated it does not update the rotation. My code is as follows: JSON request: var rotationv = (function () { rotationv = null; $.ajax({ 'async': false, 'global': true, 'url': urldefault, 'dataType': "json", 'success': function (data) { rotationv = data.rotation; } }); return rotationv })(); Creating image feature: imageFeature = new OpenLayers.Feature.Vector( new OpenLayers.Geometry.Point(mylon, mylat), { rotation: rotationv } ); The image is set in the styling elsewhere. Why does this not rotate my image? Debugging with firebug I now notice that "rotationv" is updating as per it should be. But when the point is destroyed then added again it does not apply the new rotation... Add: I realised that the "image" is applied as per the layer. So I need to figure out how to re apply the stylemap to the layer so it will trigger the "update" on the page. //redefine layer 2 so it can be updated - test.js is just a 0.0 ref// var layer2 = new OpenLayers.Layer.GML("Layer 2", "test.js", { format: OpenLayers.Format.GeoJSON, styleMap: styleMap }); But even if I add the above into my function still no luck. Included map.addLayers([layer2]); into the function as well. Edit: Attaching stylemap: var styleMap = new OpenLayers.StyleMap({ "default": new OpenLayers.Style({ rotation: rotationv, labelXOffset: "0", labelYOffset: "-15", graphicZIndex: 1 }) });

    Read the article

  • Overlay just a part of an external page with jquery

    - by rolando
    Hi, How can i load a part of an external page with jquery overlay? I have an aspx call TipoFactor.aspx wich has a div inside a contentplaceholder like this: <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="Server"> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <br /> <div id="DivGeneral" runat="server" class="tablaPaddingFiveCeleste"> as you can see the "DivGeneral" is the one i want to load into the overlay, wich is defined like this: <a href="TipoFactorSeleccion.aspx" rel="#overlay"> <button type="button"> Pagina Externa</button> </a> <!-- overlayed element --> <div class="apple_overlay" id="overlay"> <!-- the external content is loaded inside this tag --> <div class="contentWrap"> </div> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { // if the function argument is given to overlay, // it is assumed to be the onBeforeLoad event listener $("a[rel]").overlay({ expose: 'darkred', effect: 'apple', onBeforeLoad: function() { // grab wrapper element inside content var wrap = this.getContent().find(".contentWrap"); // load the page specified in the trigger wrap.load(this.getTrigger().attr("href")); } }); }); </script> As it is now its loading the entire page into the overlay and that's not good for me cause it inherites from the same masterpage as the other. I need to keep that masterpage because it has some important aplication functionality. What can I do ? Thank you very much.

    Read the article

  • calling Valums Ajax uploader from other DOM element

    - by Marc
    I'm facing a problem with the valums Ajax File upload. Since the plugin is working perfectly after a few modifications on the server side, I cannot implement a specific behavior. My DOM is composed with an input file plus the container to instantiate the fileuploader buttons. What I want is to be able to fire the fileuploader plugins when clicking on the input:file[name="upload-file"]. ... <div id="upload-accepted"> <fieldset> <label for="upload-file">Select a file:</label> <input type="file" name="upload-file" id="upload-file"/> <noscript> <p>Please enable JavaScript to use file uploader.</p> </noscript> </fieldset> <div id="upload-container"> </div> </div> ... <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var uploader = new qq.FileUploader({ action: '/file-upload', element: document.getElementById('upload-container'), onSubmit: function(id, filename){...}, onComplete: function(id, fileName, responseJSON){...} }); }); </script> I have tried to add the following on the script but it don't works $("#upload-file").live('change', function(event) { event.preventDefault(); $('.qq-upload-button').trigger('click'); return false; }); Any clues? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Java: does the EDT restart or not when an exception is thrown?

    - by NoozNooz42
    (the example code below is self-contained and runnable, you can try it, it won't crash your system :) Tom Hawtin commented on the question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3018165 that: It's unlikely that the EDT would crash. Unchecked exceptions thrown in EDT dispatch are caught, dumped and the thread goes on. Can someone explain me what is going on here (every time you click on the "throw an unchecked exception" button, a divide by zero is performed, on purpose): import javax.swing.*; import java.awt.event.ActionEvent; import java.awt.event.ActionListener; import java.awt.event.WindowAdapter; import java.awt.event.WindowEvent; public class CrashEDT extends JFrame { public static void main(String[] args) { final CrashEDT frame = new CrashEDT(); frame.addWindowListener(new WindowAdapter() { public void windowClosing( WindowEvent e) { System.exit(0); } }); final JButton jb = new JButton( "throw an unchecked exception" ); jb.addActionListener( new ActionListener() { public void actionPerformed( ActionEvent e ) { System.out.println( "Thread ID:" + Thread.currentThread().getId() ); System.out.println( 0 / Math.abs(0) ); } } ); frame.add( jb ); frame.setSize(300, 150); frame.setVisible(true); } } I get the following message (which is what I'd expect): Exception in thread "AWT-EventQueue-0" java.lang.ArithmeticException: / by zero and to me this is an unchecked exception right? You can see that the thread ID is getting incremented every time you trigger the crash. So is the EDT automatically restarted every time an unchecked exception is thrown or are unchecked exceptions "caught, dumped and the thread goes on" like Tom Hawtin commented? What is going on here?

    Read the article

  • Cascading Deletes in SQL Sever 2008 not working.

    - by Vaccano
    I have the following table setup. Bag | +-> BagID (Guid) +-> BagNumber (Int) BagCommentRelation | +-> BagID (Int) +-> CommentID (Guid) BagComment | +-> CommentID (Guid) +-> Text (varchar(200)) BagCommentRelation has Foreign Keys to Bag and BagComment. So, I turned on cascading deletes for both those Foreign Keys, but when I delete a bag, it does not delete the Comment row. Do need to break out a trigger for this? Or am I missing something? (I am using SQL Server 2008) Note: Posting requested SQL. This is the defintion of the BagCommentRelation table. (I had the type of the bagID wrong (I thought it was a guid but it is an int).) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation]( [Id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [BagId] [int] NOT NULL, [Sequence] [int] NOT NULL, [CommentId] [int] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Bag_CommentRelation] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [BagId] ASC, [Sequence] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_Bag_CommentRelation_Bag] FOREIGN KEY([BagId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[Bag] ([Id]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_Bag_CommentRelation_Bag] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_Bag_CommentRelation_Comment] FOREIGN KEY([CommentId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[Comment] ([CommentId]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_Bag_CommentRelation_Comment] GO The row in this table deletes but the row in the comment table does not.

    Read the article

  • how to handle base tag target attribute in iphone uiwebview to open new window

    - by user217428
    When the links are supposed to open a new window, iphone uiwebview won't trigger an event when user click these links. We had to use javascript to do some trick to the target attribute of the links. I can handle 'a' tag to open in the '_self' window with the trick without problem. But when I do it the same way with the 'base' tag. it doesn't work. I believe the base target is set by the javascript. But the base tag is in the head, which may be handled by the uiwebview before my javascript executed, so the target change may not reflected in the webkit engine. Could someone please give some suggestion, so I can open the link in the same uiwebview? The following is the sample HTML opened in the uiwebview <html> <head> <base target='_blank'> </head> <body> <a href='http://google.ca'>google</a> </body> </html> The following is the code to be executed in the (void) webViewDidFinishLoad: (UIWebView*)webView static NSString* js = @"" "function bkModifyBaseTargets()" "{" "var allBases = window.document.getElementsByTagName('base');" "if (allBases)" "{" "for (var i = 0; i < allBases.length; i++)" "{" "base = allBases[i];" "target = base.getAttribute('target');" "if (target)" "{" "base.setAttribute('target', '_self');" "}" "}" "}" "}"; [webView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString: js]; [webView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString: @"bkModifyBaseTargets()"];

    Read the article

  • JQuery DatePicker - pop calendar dialog on 'OnSelect' of another datepicker

    - by sajanyamaha
    I have two JQuery datepickers to select 'StartDate' and 'EndDate'.My requirement is to automatically popup the end date calendar after startDate has been selected. I have tried all the steps in COMMENTED HERE. The code here succesfully triggers the focus of 'EndDate' calendar,but it displays for a second and hides off. $(document).ready(function() { //Runs when tab is loaded var dateFormat = "dd/mm/yy"; var today=new Date(); today.setMonth(today.getMonth()-1); $("#ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_datepicker1").datepicker({ minDate: 0, dateFormat:dateFormat, //maxDate: '+12M +31D', onSelect: function(dateText, inst){ var the_date = new Date($.datepicker.parseDate(dateFormat,dateText)); //var end=(the_date.getDate()+1) + '/' + (the_date.getMonth()+1) + '/' + the_date.getFullYear(); $("#ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_datepicker2").datepicker('option', 'minDate', the_date); // TRIED ALL THESE //document.getElementById('ui-datepicker-div').style.display = 'block'; //document.getElementById('ui-datepicker-div').style.left = '635.5px'; //$("#ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_datepicker2").datepicker("show"); //$("#ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_datepicker2").datepicker(); //$("#ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_datepicker2").focus(); //$('#foo').slideUp(300).delay(800).fadeIn(400); //$("#ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_datepicker2").trigger("focus"); $('#ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_datepicker2').focus(); } }); $("#ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_datepicker2").datepicker({ //maxDate: '+12M +31D', dateFormat:dateFormat, onSelect: function(dateText, inst){ } }); });

    Read the article

  • Automatic Adjusting Range Table

    - by Bradford
    I have a table with a start date range, an end date range, and a few other additional columns. On input of a new record, I want to automatically adjust any overlapping date ranges (shrinking them to allow for the new input). I also want to ensure that no overlapping records can accidentally be inserted into this table. I'm using Oracle and Java for my application code. How should I enforce the prevention of overlapping date ranges and also allow for automatically adjusting overlapping ranges? Should I create an AFTER INSERT trigger, with a dbms_lock to serialize access, to prevent the overlapping data. Then in Java, apply the logic to auto adjust everything? Or should that part be in PL/SQL in stored procedure call? This is something that we need for a couple other tables so it'd be nice to abstract. If anyone has something like this already written, please share :) I did find this reference: http://asktom.oracle.com/pls/asktom/f?p=100:11:0::::P11_QUESTION_ID:474221407101 Here's an example of how each of the 4 overlapping cases should be handled for adjustment on insert: = Example 1 = In DB (Start, End, Value): (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') Input (20, 50, 'A') Gives (0, 10, 'X') **(20, 50, 'A') **(51, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') = Example 2 = In DB (Start, End, Value): (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') Input (40, 80, 'A') Gives (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 39, 'Z') **(40, 80, 'A') **(81, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') = Example 3 = In DB (Start, End, Value): (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') Input (50, 120, 'A') Gives (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 49, 'Z') **(50, 120, 'A') (200, 500, 'Y') = Example 4 = In DB (Start, End, Value): (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') Input (20, 120, 'A') Gives (0, 10, 'X') **(20, 120, 'A') (200, 500, 'Y') The algorithm is as follows: given range = g; input range = i; output range set = o if i.start <= g.start if i.end >= g.end o_1 = i else o_1 = i o_2 = (o.end + 1, g.end) else if i.end >= g.end o_1 = (g.start, i.start - 1) o_2 = i else o_1 = (g.start, i.start - 1) o_2 = i o_3 = (i.end + 1, i.end)

    Read the article

  • Using iphone accelerometer AND UIEventSubtypeMotionShake event simultaneousluy.

    - by lukya
    Hi, I am using accelerometer to move/change things on the screen in my app. I also need to detect UIEventSubtypeMotionShake in the view controller for some other animations. As my app is a simple view based app, there is just one view controller which acts as UIAccelerometerDelegate AND FirstResponder (for detecting the shake event). After the first Shake gesture is detected, I don’t need accelerometer inputs through [accelerometer didAccelerate] method so I set the accelerometer delegate to nil. -(void)motionEnded:(UIEventSubtype)motion withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { if (motion == UIEventSubtypeMotionShake) { NSLog(@"shake"); [[UIAccelerometer sharedAccelerometer] setDelegate:nil]; //my shake handling code } } The problem is that the first shake motion is not being detected correctly. I have to shake 2 3 or more times to trigger the UIEventSubtypeMotionShake event, while the subsequent shakes, after the accelerometer delegate is made nil, are being detected perfectly. This must be happening because UIEventSubtypeMotionShake in turn depends on the accelerometer didAccelerate events which are being overridden by my code. But I need to use both the events. Are there any apps or code samples which use both accelerometer and UIEventSubtypeMotionShake simultaneously? Thanks Swapnil

    Read the article

  • WinForms Load Event / Static Initialization Strangeness

    - by Eric J.
    Background I'm troubleshooting an WinForms 2.0 program that's already been burned to CD for distribution to an internet-challenged target audience. Some users are experiencing a fatal error that I can reproduce locally. Reproducing the Error I get the fatal error when I log into my Vista box using a standard user that I just created, even if I run the program as administrator. I do not get the fatal error when I log in as local administrator. I'm not sure that being administrator is necessarily the trigger (since runas did not help). I have reproduced this half a dozen times under each account with consistent results. The faulty code Base.cs (base class for several user controls, only one of which is shown on first screen) private void BaseWindow_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { // This message shown once in both cases MessageBox.Show("BaseWindow_Load for " + this.GetType().FullName); SkinManager.ApplySkin(this); } SkinManager.cs private static Skin skin = null; public static void ApplySkin(UserControl applyTo) { if (skin == null) { skin = new Skin(SkinsDirectory, "Default"); } } Skin.cs internal Skin(string skinPath, string skinName) { config = SkinConfig.Load(path); } SkinConfig.cs public static SkinConfig Load(string path) { // This message shown only once running as Admin but twice running as standard user System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show("@1"); // !!! LOCK path HERE !!! } A user control loads on the first form, which triggers a call to SkinManager.ApplySkin, which checks if skin is null and, if so assigns it (without thread synchronization or recursion protection), which ultimately causes a file to be opened. When logged in as local admin, that sequence completes just fine. When logged in as my test standard user, ApplySkin is always called a second time while skin is still null, causing a second attempt to load, causing the file to be locked on the second attempt. The error handling is draconian at this point and the program terminates. The Question While this code can be easily fixed, I would like to understand why the error is happening only in some cases.

    Read the article

  • C# Windows Service

    - by Goober
    Scenario I've created a windows service, but whenever I start it, it stops immediately. The service was concieved from a console application that used to subscribe to an event and watch processes on a server. If anything happened to process (i.e. It was killed), then the event would trigger the process to be restarted. The reason I'm telling you this is because the original code used to look like this: Original Console App Code: static void Main(string[] args) { StartProcess sp = new StartProcess(); //Note the readline that means the application sits here waiting for an event! Console.ReadLine(); } Now that this code has been turned into a Windows Service, it is essentially EXACTLY THE SAME. However, the service does not sit there waiting, even with the readline, it just ends..... New Windows Service Code: protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { ProcessMonitor pm = new ProcessMonitor(); Console.ReadLine(); } Thoughts Since the functionality is entirely encapsulated within this single class (It quite literally starts, sets up some events and waits) - How can I get the service to actually sit there and just wait? It seems to be ignoring the readline. However this works perfectly as a console application, it is just far more convenient to have it as a service.

    Read the article

  • jQuery fadein fadeout divs over set interval

    - by theDawckta
    I want to fadeOut the first div in a collection and then fadeIn the next div. The fade in out would trigger at a set time. The number of items in the collection is 1 to n. Here is an example of the html; <div class="contentPanel"> <div class="content"> <div style="border: solid 2px black; text-align: center"> This is first content </div> </div> <div class="content"> <div style="border: solid 2px black; text-align: center"> This is second content </div> </div> <div class="content"> <div style="border: solid 2px black; text-align: center"> This is third content </div> </div> </div> So on page load the first "content" class would be visible, after x amount of time, the current "content" would fadeout and the next "content" would fade in. When it got to the nth "content" it would start over, fadeout the nth "content" and fadein the first "content". This behavior would loop continuously.

    Read the article

  • How have you successfully implemented MessageBox.Show() functionality in MVVM?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I've got a WPF application which calls MessageBox.Show() way back in the ViewModel (to check if the user really wants to delete). This actually works, but goes against the grain of MVVM since the ViewModel should not explicitly determine what happens on the View. So now I am thinking how can I best implement the MessageBox.Show() functionality in my MVVM application, options: I could have a message with the text "Are you sure...?" along with two buttons Yes and No all in a Border in my XAML, and create a trigger on the template so that it is collapsed/visible based on a ViewModelProperty called AreYourSureDialogueBoxIsVisible, and then when I need this dialogue box, assign AreYourSureDialogueBoxIsVisible to "true", and also handle the two buttons via DelegateCommand back in my ViewModel. I could also somehow try to handle this with triggers in XAML so that the Delete button actually just makes some Border element appear with the message and buttons in it, and the Yes button did the actually deleting. Both solutions seem to be too complex for what used to be a couple lines of code with MessageBox.Show(). In what ways have you successfully implemented Dialogue Boxes in your MVVM applications?

    Read the article

  • How to show errors using JSON when an update fails in Rails 2.3.5 with jQuery

    - by Fortuity
    I've got in-place editing on a page in my app (using Rails 2.3.5 and jQuery). I want to know how to display an error on the page when the update fails. I'm using ajax (an XMLHttpRequest) to save an update to a Comment object. The controller has an update method like this: def update @comment = Comment.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| # if @comment.update_attributes!(params[:comment]) if false #deliberately forcing a fail here to see what happens format.json { render :nothing => true } else format.json { render :json => @comment.errors, :status => :unprocessable_entity } end end end In Firebug, I can see the server returns a "422" (an appropriate validation error status code). But it's a response to an XMLHttpRequest so there is no redirect to an error page. I think I actually want to do this: format.json { render :json => @comment.errors} and trigger some Javascript function that iterates through (and displays) any errors. I'm using a rails plugin http://github.com/janv/rest_in_place/ to implement the in-place editing. It doesn't appear to have any callback function to handle a failure. What are my options? Can I write some Javascript to respond to a failure condition without hacking the plugin? Do I have to hack the rest_in_place plugin to handle a failure condition? Is there a better plugin (for Rails or jQuery) that handles in-place editing, including failure conditions?

    Read the article

  • jqModal/JQuery problem, div not updating with new content?

    - by echoesofspring
    I'm hoping someone can point a relative jQuery/jqModal newbie in the right direction for debugging this error. I'm loading an html fragment into a div and then use jqModal to display that div as a modal dialog. The problem is that the div is displayed but not with my updated html. I'm showing my jqModal dialog in the response from a jquery call, function foo is called from an onclick event: function foo(url) { $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: url, success: function(msg) { $('#ajaxmodal').html(msg); $('#ajaxmodal').jqmShow(); } }); } ajaxmodal is a simple div. Initially I thought the problem must be in the html snippet (msg) I'm passing to the callback, but I don't think that's it, I get the err (see below) even when I comment out the $('#ajaxmodal').html(msg) line or pass it hardcode html. I think I have jqModal configured correctly, other calls using our ajaxmodal div work correctly, I'm able to display the modal, update the content based the server response, etc. When I try to debug in firebug, I get the following error following the call to .jqmShow(). I have seen the err on occasion in other places when it seemed maybe the page hadn't loaded yet, and I confess I'm confused about that, since we've wrapped our jqModal selectors in a $(document).ready() call, so maybe I have a larger issue that this call just happens to trigger? From the jquery.jqModal.js file, line 64: js err is $(':input:visible',h.w)[0] is undefined in the line: f=function(h){try{$(':input:visible',h.w)[0].focus();}catch(_){}} When I step through this in firefox, h.w[0] seems ok, it references our '#ajaxmodal' div. Thanks in advance for any suggestions in tracking this down?

    Read the article

  • GridPanel in Extjs is not loaded

    - by pho3nix
    I have this code in my application, but this not load any data. Data is accessible but wont display in my gridpanel, anyone have idea, why? Ext.onReady(function () { Ext.QuickTips.init(); Ext.form.Field.prototype.msgTarget = 'side'; var btnAdd = new Ext.Button({ id: 'btnAdd', text: 'Adicionar', iconCls: 'application_add', handler: function (s) { } }); var btnEdit = new Ext.Button({ id: 'btnEdit', text: 'Editar', iconCls: 'application_edit', handler: function (s) { } }); var btnRemove = new Ext.Button({ id: 'btnRemove', text: 'Apagar', iconCls: 'application_delete', handler: function (s) { } }); var tbar = new Ext.Toolbar({ items: [btnAdd, btnEdit, btnRemove] }); var formFind = new Ext.FormPanel({ height: 100 }); var store = new Ext.data.JsonStore({ remoteSort: true, idProperty: 'ContentId', root: 'rows', totalProperty: 'results', fields: [ { name: 'ContentId', type: 'int' }, { name: 'Name' }, { name: 'Version' }, { name: 'State' }, { name: 'CreatedDateTime' }, { name: 'PublishedDateTime'}, { name: 'CreatedByUser' }, { name: 'PublishedByUser' } ], proxy: new Ext.data.ScriptTagProxy({ url: '/Admin/ArticleList' }) }); store.setDefaultSort('ContentId', 'desc'); var paging = new Ext.PagingToolbar({ store: store, pageSize: 25, displayInfo: true, displayMsg: 'Foram encontrados {2} registos. Mostrando {0} de {1}', emptyMsg: "Nenhum registo encontrado." }); var grid = new Ext.grid.GridPanel({ id: 'grid', height: 700, store: store, loadMask: true, loadingText: 'Carregando...', autoHeight: true, cm: new Ext.grid.ColumnModel ([ { id: 'ContentId', dataIndex: 'ContentId', header: 'Identif.', width: 60, sortable: true }, { id: 'Name', dataIndex: 'Name', header: 'Titulo', width: 75, sortable: true }, { id: 'Version', dataIndex: 'Version', header: 'Versão', width: 75, sortable: true }, { id: 'State', dataIndex: 'State', header: 'Estado', width: 75, sortable: true }, { id: 'CreatedDateTime', dataIndex: 'CreatedDateTime', header: 'Data de Criação', width: 85, sortable: true }, { id: 'PublishedDateTime', dataIndex: 'PublishedDateTime', header: 'Data de Publicação', width: 75, sortable: true }, { id: 'CreatedByUser', dataIndex: 'CreatedByUser', header: 'Criado por', width: 75, sortable: true }, { id: 'PublishedByUser', dataIndex: 'PublishedByUser', header: 'Publicado por', width: 85, sortable: true } ]), stripeRows: true, viewConfig: { forceFit: true }, bbar: paging }); var panel = new Ext.Panel({ id: 'panel', renderTo: Ext.getBody(), layout: 'fit', tbar: tbar, items: [grid] }); store.load(); // trigger the data store load });

    Read the article

  • Jeditable with jQuery UI Datepicker

    - by BrynJ
    I need to have a click to edit element on a page, that will in turn invoke an instance of the jQuery UI Datepicker. Currently, I'm using JEditable to provide the in place editing, which is working fine. However, I have a date control input that I would like to have appear as a calendar, which is where the fun starts. I've found a Comment in the this blog by Calle Kabo (the page is a little mashed unfortunately) that details a way to do this: $.editable.addInputType("datepicker", { element: function(settings, original) { var input = $("<input type=\"text\" name=\"value\" />"); $(this).append(input); return(input); }, plugin: function(settings, original) { var form = this; $("input", this).filter(":text").datepicker({ onSelect: function(dateText) { $(this).hide(); $(form).trigger("submit"); } }); } }); However, I can't get the above to work - no errors, but no effect either. I've tried placing it within the jQuery document ready function and also outside of it - no joy. My UI Datepicker class is date-picker and my Jeditable class is ajaxedit, I'm sure the above inaction is due to the need to reference them somehow in the code, but I don't know how. Also, the Jeditable control is one of many element ids, if that has a bearing. Any ideas from those more in the know?

    Read the article

  • Silverlight 4 race condition with DataGrid master details control

    - by Simon_Weaver
    Basically I want a DataGrid (master) and details (textbox), where DataGrid is disabled during edit of details (forcing people to save/cancel)... Here's what I have... I have a DataGrid which serves as my master data. <data:DataGrid IsEnabled="{Binding CanLoad,ElementName=dsReminders}" ItemsSource="{Binding Data, ElementName=dsReminders}" > Its data comes from a DomainDataSource: <riaControls:DomainDataSource Name="dsReminders" AutoLoad="True" ... I have a bound Textbox which is the 'details' (very simple right now). There are buttons (Save/Cancel) which should be enabled when user tries to edit the text. Unfortunately Silverlight doesn't support UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged so I have to raise an event: <TextBox Text="{Binding SelectedItem.AcknowledgedNote, Mode=TwoWay, UpdateSourceTrigger=Explicit, ElementName=gridReminders}" TextChanged="txtAcknowledgedNote_TextChanged"/> The event to handle this calls BindingExpression.UpdateSource to update the source immediately: private void txtAcknowledgedNote_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { BindingExpression be = txtAcknowledgedNote.GetBindingExpression(TextBox.TextProperty); be.UpdateSource(); } IN other words - typing in the textbox causes CanLoad of the DomainDataSource to become False (because we're editing). This in turn disables the DataGrid (IsEnabled is bound to it) and enables 'Cancel' and 'Save' buttons. However I'm running up against a race condition if I move quickly through rows in the DataGrid (just clicking random rows). The TextChanged presumably is being called on the textbox and confusing the DomainDataSource which then thinks there's been a change. So how should I disable the DataGrid while editing without having the race condition? One obvious solution would be to use KeyDown events to trigger the call to UpdateSource but I always hate having to do that.

    Read the article

  • Keyboard hook return different symbols from card reader depends whther my app in focus or not

    - by user363868
    I code WinForm application where one of the input is magnetic stripe card reader (CR). I am using code George Mamaladze's article Processing Global Mouse and Keyboard Hooks in C# on codeproject.com to listen keyboard (USB card reader acts same way as keyboard) and I have weird situation. One card reader CR1 (Unitech MS240-2UG) produces keystroke which I intercept on KeyPress event analyze that I intercept certain patter like %ABCD-6EFJHI? and trigger some logic. Analysis required because user can type something else into application or in another application meanwhile my app is open When I use another card reader CR2 (IdTech IDBM-334133) keystroke intercepted by hook started from number 5 instead of % (It is actually same key on keyboard). Since it is starting sentinel it is very important for me to have ability recognize input from card reader. Moreover if my app running in background and I have focus on Notepad when I swipe card string %ABCD-6EFJHI? appears in Notepad and same way, with proper starting character) intercepted by keyboard hook. If swiped when focus on Form it is 5ABCD-6EFJHI? User who tried app with another card reader has same result as me with CR2. Only CR1 works for me as expected I was looking into Device manager of Windows and both devices use same HID driver supplied by MS. I checked devices though respective software from CR makers and starting and ending sentinels set to % and ? respective on both. I would appreciate and ideas and thoughts as I hit the wall myself Thank you

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93  | Next Page >