Search Results

Search found 27946 results on 1118 pages for 'output buffer empty'.

Page 860/1118 | < Previous Page | 856 857 858 859 860 861 862 863 864 865 866 867  | Next Page >

• Consuming PHP webservice with .Net C#, error with array

  - by Faber

  I've a problem calling a PHP Web Service from .Net application. This is the XML response and I think there is a problem with the return node <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope SOAP-ENV:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"> <SOAP-ENV:Body> <ns1:infoprodottoResponse xmlns:ns1="http://wan3.edc.it"> <result xsi:type="SOAP-ENC:Array" SOAP-ENC:arrayType=":[0]"></result> <error xsi:type="xsd:string">8u9lvDe3RBiGuXyL9lvM2tODlRMtcN77ya3S2LDEWEetBeRz/k4mXkK4hSqpgZOKilHYXgycj6Jtu8iBTfR1FQ==</error> <token xsi:type="xsd:string">5o58H00T96AWedhG1tnSc4xR+yXg7PQfQzXYVpri2AY=</token> </ns1:infoprodottoResponse> </SOAP-ENV:Body> In result node the SOAP-ENC:arrayType attribute hasn't declared the array type. The array type must be declare if the SOAP-ENC:arrayType is present, isn't it? It must be declared also if the array is empty?

  Read the article

• Accessing vars from another clojure namespace?

  - by erikcw

  In my main namespace, I have a top level var named "settings" which is initialized as an empty {}. My -main fn sets the contents of settings using def and conj based on some command line args (different database hosts for production/development, etc). I'm trying to access the contents of this map from another namespace to pull out some of the settings. When I try to compile with lein into an uberjar, I get a traceback saying "No such var: lb/settings". What am I missing? Is there a more idiomatic way to handle app wide settings such as these? Is it safe to use "def" inside of -main like I am, or should I be use an atom or ref to make this threadsafe? Thanks! (ns main (:use ...) (:gen-class)) (def settings {}) (defn -main [& args] (with-command-line-args... ;set devel? based on args (if (true? devel?) (def settings (conj settings {:mongodb {:host "127.0.0.1"} :memcached {:host "127.0.0.1"}})) (def settings (conj settings {:mongodb {:host "PRODUCTION_IP"} :memcached {:host "PRODUCTION_IP"}}))) ;file2.clj (ns some-other-namespace (:require [main :as lb] ...) ;configure MongoDB (congo/mongo! :db "dbname" :host (:host (mongodb lb/settings)))) ...

  Read the article

• How do I close a file after catching an IOException in java?

  - by DimDom

  All, I am trying to ensure that a file I have open with BufferedReader is closed when I catch an IOException, but it appears as if my BufferedReader object is out of scope in the catch block. public static ArrayList readFiletoArrayList(String fileName, ArrayList fileArrayList) { fileArrayList.removeAll(fileArrayList); try { //open the file for reading BufferedReader fileIn = new BufferedReader(new FileReader(fileName)); // add line by line to array list, until end of file is reached // when buffered reader returns null (todo). while(true){ fileArrayList.add(fileIn.readLine()); } }catch(IOException e){ fileArrayList.removeAll(fileArrayList); fileIn.close(); return fileArrayList; //returned empty. Dealt with in calling code. } } Netbeans complains that it "cannot find symbol fileIn" in the catch block, but I want to ensure that in the case of an IOException that the Reader gets closed. How can I do that without the ugliness of a second try/catch construct around the first? Any tips or pointers as to best practise in this situation is appreciated,

  Read the article

• Enlist a table's columns in other component

  - by bungrudi

  The main goal is to have a dropdown menu where each of its menuItems represents one column of a <rich:extendedDataTable />. Above the table I have this: <rich:dropDownMenu value="Column visibility" submitMode="none" direction="bottom-right"> <c:forEach var="columnConfigVO" items="#{gridConfigurationManager.getColumnConfigs(listId)}"> <rich:menuItem value="columnConfigVO.columnId" /> </c:forEach> </rich:dropDownMenu> And then bellow that I have the usual <rich:extendedDataTable /> with its columns. I register the table columns to gridConfigurationManager component by overriding beforeRenderResponse() in ExtendedDataTable class. The problem is that <c:forEach /> is executing before renderResponse phase, thus gridConfigurationManager.getColumnConfigs(listId) return empty. The question is, how do I register the columns in gridConfigurationManager component before <c:forEach /> start executing? Or, anyone know a different approach to accomplish this? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Confirm bug Magento 1.4 'show/hide editor' in CMS

  - by latvian

  Hi When entering code in CMS static block(possible page as well) and in this code there is empty DIV tags such us: <a href="javascript:hide1(),show2(),hide3()"><div class="dropoff_button"></div></a> The DIV tags will be gone next time you open the block to edit. it will look as this <a href="javascript:hide1(),show2(),hide3()"> </a> without the div tags ...and saving again it modifies your code. I think it something to do with the 'show/hide editor'. By default it goes into the WYSIWYG editor, so when updating static block i don't see any other solution than 1."hide the editor' by clicking 'show/hide editor' 2.delete the old code from the editor 3. get code that doesn't miss the DIVs 4. Merge new code with code in 3 in some other editing software than magento 5. paste result in the magento editor, 6. Save Is this bug? What is your solution? Can i turn of WYSIWYG editor?

  Read the article

• Click behaviour - Difference in IE and FF ?!

  - by OlliD

  Hey folks, i just came to the conclusion that a project i am currently working on might have a "logical" error in functionality. Currently I'am using server technology with PHP/MySQL and JQuery. Within the page there's a normal link reference with tag <a href="contentpage?page=xxx">next step</a> The pain point now seems to be the given jquery click event on the same element. The intension was to save the (current) content of the page (- form elements) via another php script using the php session command. For any reason, IE can handle the click event of Jquery right before executing the standard html command, that reloads the current page again with the new page parameter. By using FF the behaviour is different. I assume, that FF first execute the html command and afterwards execute the javascript code which handles the click event. Therefore the resultset here is wrong respectivly empty. My question now is whether you made the same experience and how you handled / wordarrounded this problem. I'd be thankful fur any of your tips or further feedback. Maybe you also have a solution on how to rethink about the current architecture. Regards, Oliver

  Read the article

• How not to lose binding source updates?

  - by Fyodor Soikin

  Suppose I have a modal dialog with a textbox and OK/Cancel buttons. And it is built on MVVM - i.e. it has a ViewModel object with a string property that the textbox is bound to. Say, I enter some text in the textbox and then grab my mouse and click "OK". Everything works fine: at the moment of click, the textbox loses focus, which causes the binding engine to update the ViewModel's property. I get my data, everybody's happy. Now suppose I don't use my mouse. Instead, I just hit Enter on the keyboard. This also causes the "OK" button to "click", since it is marked as IsDefault="True". But guess what? The textbox doesn not lose focus in this case, and therefore, the binding engine remains innocently ignorant, and I don't get my data. Dang! Another variation of the same scenario: suppose I have a data entry form right in the main window, enter some data into it, and then hit Ctrl+S for "Save". Guess what? My latest entry doesn't get saved! This may be somewhat remedied by using UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged, but that is not always possible. One obvious case would be the use of StringFormat with binding - the text keeps jumping back into "formatted" state as I'm trying to enter it. And another case, which I have encountered myself, is when I have some time-consuming processing in the viewmodel's property setter, and I only want to perform it when the user is "done" entering text. This seems like an eternal problem: I remember trying to solve it systematically from ages ago, ever since I've started working with interactive interfaces, but I've never quite succeeded. In the past, I always ended up using some sort of hacks - like, say, adding an "EnsureDataSaved" method to every "presenter" (as in "MVP") and calling it at "critical" points, or something like that... But with all the cool technologies, as well as empty hype, of WPF, I expected they'd come up with some good solution.

  Read the article

• JQuery DataTables link item

  - by rogcg

  I'm trying to link the items from a specific column, but each one will be linked for a different id from the json string. Unfortunately I can't find a way to do this using the API (I know there is a lot of ways to do that without using the API ), but I'm looking for a way to link a item from a column (each one with a link for a specific id). So here is my code, I use getJSON to get the JSON from the server, and I load the data from this JSON to the table like this: $.getJSON("/method/from/server/", function(data) { var total = 0; $("#table_body").empty(); var oTable = $('#mytable').dataTable( { "sPaginationType" : "full_numbers", "aaSorting": [[ 0, "asc" ]] }); oTable.fnClearTable(); $.each(data, function(i, item) { oTable.fnAddData( [ item.contact_name, item.contact_email ] ); }); }); What I want to do, is for each row, link the contact_name to its id, which is also in the JSON, and can be accessed inside this $.each loop by using item.contact_id. Is there a way to do this using DataTables API, if yes, could you explain me and provide a good resource that will help me with this? Thanks.

  Read the article

• How do I insert null fields with Perl's DBD::Pg?

  - by User1

  I have a Perl script inserting data into Postgres according to a pipe delimited text file. Sometimes, a field is null (as expected). However, Perl makes this field into an empty string and the Postgres insert statement fails. Here's a snippet of code: use DBI; #Connect to the database. $dbh=DBI-connect('dbi:Pg:dbname=mydb','mydb','mydb',{AutoCommit=1,RaiseError=1,PrintError=1}); #Prepare an insert. $sth=$dbh-prepare("INSERT INTO mytable (field0,field1) SELECT ?,?"); while (<){ #Remove the whitespace chomp; #Parse the fields. @field=split(/\|/,$_); print "$_\n"; #Do the insert. $sth-execute($field[0],$field[1]); } And if the input is: a|1 b| c|3 EDIT: Use this input instead. a|1|x b||x c|3|x It will fail at b|. DBD::Pg::st execute failed: ERROR: invalid input syntax for integer: "" I just want it to insert a null on field1 instead. Any ideas? EDIT: I simplified the input at the last minute. The old input actually made it work for some reason. So now I changed the input to something that will make the program fail. Also note that field1 is a nullable integer datatype.

  Read the article

• Populate table fields on query execution

  - by Jason

  I'm trying to build an ASP site that populates a Table based on the results of a selection in a ListBox. In order to do this, I've created a GridView table inside a div element. Currently the default behavior is to show all the items in the specified table in sortable order. However, I'd like to refine this further to allow for display of matches based on the results from the ListBox selection, but am not sure how to execute this. The ListBox fires off a OnSelectionChanged event to the method defined below and the GridView element is defined as <asp:GridView ID="dataListings" runat="server" AllowSorting="True" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataSourceID="LinqDataSource1" OnDataBinding="ListBox1_SelectedIndexChanged"> protected void ListBox1_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { int itemSelected = selectTopics.SelectedIndex; string[] listing = null; switch (itemSelected)//assign listing the array of course numbers { case 0: break; case 1: listing = arts; break; case 2: listing = currentEvents; break; .... More cases here default: listing = arts; break; } using (OLLIDBDataContext odb = new OLLIDBDataContext()) { var q = from c in odb.tbl_CoursesAndWorkshops where listing.Contains(c.tbl_Course_Description.tbl_CoursesAndWorkshops.course_workshop_number) select c; dataListings.DataSource = q; dataListings.DataBind(); } } However, this method never gets fired. I can see a request being made when changing the selection, but setting a breakpoint at the method declaration does nothing at all. Based on this, setup, I have three related questions What do I need to modify to get the OnSelectionChanged event handler to fire? How can I alter the GridView area to be empty on page load? How do I send the results from the dataListings.DataBind() execution to show in the GridView?

  Read the article

• Using block around a static/singleton resource reference

  - by byte

  This is interesting (to me anyway), and I'd like to see if anyone has a good answer and explanation for this behavior. Say you have a singleton database object (or static database object), and you have it stored in a class Foo. public class Foo { public static SqlConnection DBConn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BAR"].ConnectionString); } Then, lets say that you are cognizant of the usefulness of calling and disposing your connection (pretend for this example that its a one-time use for purposes of illustration). So you decide to use a 'using' block to take care of the Dispose() call. using (SqlConnection conn = Foo.DBConn) { conn.Open(); using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand()) { cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.CommandText = "SP_YOUR_PROC"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } conn.Close(); } This fails, with an error stating that the "ConnectionString property is not initialized". It's not an issue with pulling the connection string from the app.config/web.config. When you investigate in a debug session you see that Foo.DBConn is not null, but contains empty properties. Why is this?

  Read the article

• Jquery Dialog - Is there a way to open it without registering it using .dialog?

  - by Raja

  This is my problem. I have a page with multiple tabs. I load those tabs dynamically and one of those tabs is a message container (mail). Every time I click a folder link (Inbox, Sent Mail etc) I reload just that tab alone with appropriate content. I use Jquery dialog to pick contacts and I have to load contacts everytime. Since I reload the whole tab content every time JQuery Dialog registers (or creates) the whole div content. To avoid this I did this: if ($("#ui-dialog-title-divContacts").length == 0) { //if dialog data is not created then make dialog $("#divContacts").dialog({ bgiframe: true, resizable: false, autoOpen: false, height: 600, width: 425, modal: true, overlay: { backgroundColor: '#000', opacity: 0.5 }, buttons: { Cancel: function () { //basically do nothing $(this).dialog("close"); }, 'Done': function () { $("#divTo").empty().html($("#divSelectedContacts").html()); $(this).dialog("close"); } } }); } I went to generated viewsource in FF and found that only one instance is being created. My problem now is it is not showing the dialog. Is there a way by which I can open this dialog without registering it. Any help is much appreciated.

  Read the article

• How to define 2-bit numbers in C, if possible?

  - by Eddy

  For my university process I'm simulating a process called random sequential adsorption. One of the things I have to do involves randomly depositing squares (which cannot overlap) onto a lattice until there is no more room left, repeating the process several times in order to find the average 'jamming' coverage %. Basically I'm performing operations on a large array of integers, of which 3 possible values exist: 0, 1 and 2. The sites marked with '0' are empty, the sites marked with '1' are full. Initially the array is defined like this: int i, j; int n = 1000000000; int array[n][n]; for(j = 0; j < n; j++) { for(i = 0; i < n; i++) { array[i][j] = 0; } } Say I want to deposit 5*5 squares randomly on the array (that cannot overlap), so that the squares are represented by '1's. This would be done by choosing the x and y coordinates randomly and then creating a 5*5 square of '1's with the topleft point of the square starting at that point. I would then mark sites near the square as '2's. These represent the sites that are unavailable since depositing a square at those sites would cause it to overlap an existing square. This process would continue until there is no more room left to deposit squares on the array (basically, no more '0's left on the array) Anyway, to the point. I would like to make this process as efficient as possible, by using bitwise operations. This would be easy if I didn't have to mark sites near the squares. I was wondering whether creating a 2-bit number would be possible, so that I can account for the sites marked with '2'. Sorry if this sounds really complicated, I just wanted to explain why I want to do this.

  Read the article

• VBA does not run Powerpoint

  - by user1557188

  This is very frustrating, first lines of programming Powerpoint VBA after a long while .... Please help this is killing me Writing a small sub connecting to an action using name test Sub test() MSGBOX "this is a test " end sub I placed this in a module I just created and it works I copy the same test in named as a module and it does not work any more .... I'm trying to make PPT connect to events to do things on a per slide basis ..... using google.... this worked a few times ... but now nothing works any more. The simple test above fails since I renamed the module. As I further change the second routine to test1() ipv test None of the macros can be executed any more (module1 NOT CHNANGED) Module NAME..... contains the same code, except test1() ipv test. ... now all macro processing stops the color of text changes (as is clicked on it) but nothing gets obviously executed. Are things that unstable recenty in VBA for powerpoint 2010 how did I run: connect to empty slide using 3 lines test 1 test 2 test 3 on each of the lines I defined an action for each in different modules run: Go into slide show and on the first slide just click.... color changes but nothing happens any more Saved all closed restarted .... simply refuses except on first created pptm

  Read the article

• What is the best practice for including jQuery ext functions?

  - by Metropolis

  Hey everyone, Currently I have a file that I named JQuery.ext.js which I am including in all of my pages. Inside this file I have numerous functions that do things like the following, (function($) { /** * Checks to see is the value inside ele is blank * @param message string The message that needs to be displayed if the element is blank * @return bool */ $.fn.isEmpty = function(message) { var b_IsEmpty = false; //Loop through all elements this.each(function() { //Check to see if an empty value is found if($(this).val().length <= 0) { //If message is not blank if(message) { alert(message); $(this).focus().select(); } b_IsEmpty = true; return false; } return true; }); //Return false if the evaluation failed, otherwise return the jquery object so we can reuse it return (b_IsEmpty) ? true : false; }; /** * Checks to see if the value inside ele is numbers only * @param message string The message that needs to be displayed if the element is not numeric * @return bool */ $.fn.isNumeric = function(message) { var expression = /^[0-9]+$/; var b_IsNumeric = true; //Loop through elements checking each one this.each( function() { //Check to see if this value is not numeric if(!$(this).val().match(expression) && $(this).val().length > 0) { //If message is not blank if(message) { alert(message); $(this).focus().select(); } b_IsNumeric = false; } return b_IsNumeric; }); return b_IsNumeric; }; })(jQuery); Is there another way to do this? or is this the way most people do it? Thanks for any help, Metropolis

  Read the article

• Ajax request not receiving xml from Django

  - by amougeot

  I have a Django server which handles requests to a URL which will return some HTML for use in an image gallery. I can navigate to the URL and the browser will display the HTML that is returned, but I can't get that same HTML by doing an AJAX call (using jQuery) to the same URL. This is the view that generates the response: def gallery_images(request, gallery_name): return render_to_response('galleryimages.html', {'images': get_images_of_gallery(gallery_name)}, mimetype='text/xml') This is the 'galleryimages.html' template: {% for image in images %} <div id="{{image.name}}big"> <div class="actualImage" style="background-image:url({{image.image.name}});"> <h1>{{image.caption|safe}}</h1> </div> </div> {% endfor %} This is the jQuery call I am making: $("#allImages").load("http://localhost:8000/galleryimages/Web"); However, this loads nothing into my #allImages div. I've used firebug and ran jQuery's Ajax method .get("http://localhost:8000/galleryimages/Web") and firebug says that the response text is completely empty. When I check my Django server log, this is the entry I see for when I navigate to the URL manually, through my browser: [16/Jan/2010 17:34:10] "GET /galleryimages/Web HTTP/1.1" 200 215 This is the entry in the server log for when I make the AJAX call: [16/Jan/2010 17:36:19] "OPTIONS /galleryimages/Web HTTP/1.1" 200 215 Why does the AJAX request not get the xml that my Django page is serving?

  Read the article

• deserializing multiple types from a stream

  - by clanier9

  I have a card game program, and so far, the chat works great back and forth over the TCPClient streams between host and client. I want to make it do this with serializing and deserializing so that I can also pass cards between host and client. I tried to create a separate TCPClient stream for the passing of cards but it didn't work and figured it may be easier to keep one TCPClient stream that gets the text messages as well as cards. So I created a class, called cereal, which has the properties for the cards that will help me rebuild the card from an embedded database of cards on the other end. Is there a way to make my program figure out whether a card has been put in the stream or if it's just text in the stream so I can properly deserialize it to a string or to a cereal? Or should I add a string property to my cereal class and when that property is filled in after deserializing to the cereal, i'll know it's just text (if that field is empty after deserializing i'll know it's a card)? I'm thinking a try catch, where it tries to deserialize to a string, and if it fails it will catch and cast as a cereal. Or am I just way off base with this and should choose another route? I'm using visual studio 2011, am using a binaryformatter, and am new to serializing/deserializing.

  Read the article

• Sanitize input before executing at server in php

  - by Interfaith

  I want to let user input two variable, Name and Password in a form. I want to disable any XSS or script insert in the input values. I have the following code in the form method: <form name="form1" method="post" action="checkpw.php"> Your Name: <table> <tr><td><input class="text" name="name" onBlur="capitalize(this);" maxlength=12 type="text" /></td></tr> </table> Password: <table> <tr><td><input class="text" name="passwd" maxlength=8 type="password" /></td></tr> <tr><td align="center"><br/> <input class="text" type="submit" name="submitbt" value="Login" /> </td></tr> </table> and the following checkpw.php: <?php // Clean up the input values $post = filter_input_array(INPUT_POST, array( 'name' => FILTER_SANITIZE_STRING, 'pw' => FILTER_SANITIZE_STRING, )); if (is_null($post) || in_array(null, $post)) { header("location:login.php"); return; // missing fields (or failed filter) } // pw is the password sent from the form $pw=$_POST['passwd']; $name=$_POST['name']; if($pw == 'testpass'){ header("location:index.php"); } else { header("location:wrong.php"); } ?> Is this a secure way to ensure the form is sent to the server and executed ONLY after the input values have been sanitized? Also, the $name value i want to pass it to index.php file. I insert a code in the index.php as follow: <?php echo $name ?> But it's empty. Any idea how to resolve it?

  Read the article

• Is there a way to reload the page after <fb:like> is clicked?

  - by joon

  Hi, I'm wondering about this: I have a simple facebook-connect app that will only show certain content after you login and liked a certain page. It works (huzzah!) but I want to make it more user friendly by making it refresh automatically after you pressed the like button. Here's some code: <?php if ($me) { $pageid = -----------; $uid = $me['id']; $likeID = $facebook->api( array( 'method' => 'fql.query', 'query' => 'SELECT target_id FROM connection WHERE source_id = ' . $uid . ' AND target_id = ' . $pageid ) ); if ( empty($likeID) ) { // Person is LOGGED IN, but has NOT LIKED echo '<script src="MY WEBPAGE"></script><fb:like href="MY WEBPAGE" layout="box_count" show_faces="false" width="450"></fb:like>'; } else { // Person is LOGGED IN, and has LIKED, score! echo 'Download link'; } } else { // Person is NOT LOGGED IN, so we know NOTHING echo '<script src="MY WEBPAGE"></script><fb:like href="MY WEBPAGE" layout="box_count" show_faces="false" width="450"></fb:like>'; } ?> Is there anything I can do to this code (maybe in the fb:like tag?) that makes it reload the page after a like? Thanks.

  Read the article

• What's the best way to send user-inputted text via AJAX to Google App Engine?

  - by Cuga

  I'm developing in Google App Engine (python sdk) and I want to use jQuery to send an Ajax request to store an answer to a question. What is the best way to send this data to the server? Currently I have: function storeItem(question_id) { var answerInputControl = ".input_answer_"+question_id; var answer_text = $(answerInputControl).text(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "store_answer.html", data: "question="+question_id, success: function(responseText){ alert("Retrieved: " + responseText); } }); } This takes a question Id and provides it to the server via the query string. But on the server-side, I'm unable to access the content of the answer control which I want to store. Without Ajax, I'm able to perform this operation with the following: class StoreAnswers(webapp.RequestHandler): def post(self): question_id = self.request.get("question_id") answer_text = self.request.get("input_answer" + question_id) But when doing this call through Ajax, my answer_text is empty. Do I need to send the contents of this control as part of the data with the Ajax request? Do I add the control itself to the query string? Its contents? Does it matter that the content might be a few hundred characters long? Is this the most-recommended practice? If sending it as a query string, what's the best way to escape the content so that a malicious user doesn't harm the system?

  Read the article

• Trouble with StreamReader

  - by John

  Alright so here is what I have so far, List<string> lines = new List<string>(); using (StreamReader r = new StreamReader(f)) { string line; while ((line = r.ReadLine()) != null) { lines.Add(line); } } foreach (string s in lines) { NetworkStream stream = irc.GetStream(); writer.WriteLine(USER); writer.Flush(); writer.WriteLine("NICK " + NICK); writer.Flush(); writer.WriteLine("JOIN " + s); writer.Flush(); string trimmedString = string.Empty; CHANNEL = s; } Unfortunately when my IRC dummy enters a room with a password set it writes out the password, if I make it change channel with a command such as #lol test test being the password, since CHANNEL = s; it writes out the password with the command writer.WriteLine("PRIVMSG " + CHANNEL + " :" + "Hello"); That is the only way to write out to IRC so is there a way for the "CHANNEL" to only be the start of the text and just #lol so it doesn't write out the password? I hope you understand my problem.

  Read the article

• SQL Server: Can you help me with this query?

  - by rlb.usa

  I want to run a diagnostic report on our MS SQL 2008 database server. I am looping through all of the databases, and then for each database, I want to look at each table. But, when I go to look at each table (with tbl_cursor), it always picks up the tables in the database 'master'. I think it's because of my tbl_cursor selection : SELECT table_name FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_type = 'base table' How do I fix this? Here's the entire code: SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @table_count INT DECLARE @db_cursor VARCHAR(100) DECLARE database_cursor CURSOR FOR SELECT name FROM sys.databases where name<>N'master' OPEN database_cursor FETCH NEXT FROM database_cursor INTO @db_cursor WHILE @@Fetch_status = 0 BEGIN PRINT @db_cursor SET @table_count = 0 DECLARE @table_cursor VARCHAR(100) DECLARE tbl_cursor CURSOR FOR SELECT table_name FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_type = 'base table' OPEN tbl_cursor FETCH NEXT FROM tbl_cursor INTO @table_cursor WHILE @@Fetch_status = 0 BEGIN DECLARE @table_cmd NVARCHAR(255) SET @table_cmd = N'IF NOT EXISTS( SELECT TOP(1) * FROM ' + @table_cursor + ') PRINT N'' Table ''''' + @table_cursor + ''''' is empty'' ' --PRINT @table_cmd --debug EXEC sp_executesql @table_cmd SET @table_count = @table_count + 1 FETCH NEXT FROM tbl_cursor INTO @table_cursor END CLOSE tbl_cursor DEALLOCATE tbl_cursor PRINT @db_cursor + N' Total Tables : ' + CAST( @table_count as varchar(2) ) PRINT N'' -- print another blank line SET @table_count = 0 FETCH NEXT FROM database_cursor INTO @db_cursor END CLOSE database_cursor DEALLOCATE database_cursor SET NOCOUNT OFF

  Read the article

• Codeigniter Inputting session data from model for a simple authentication system

  - by user1616244

  Trying to put together a simple login authentication. Been at this for quite sometime, and I can't find where I'm going wrong. Pretty new to Codeigniter and OOP PHP. I know there are authentication libraries out there, but I'm not interested in using those. Model: function login($username, $password){ if ($this->db->table_exists($username)){ $this->db->where('username', $username); $this->db->where('password', $password); $query = $this->db->get($username); if($query->num_rows >= 1) { return true; $data = array( 'username' => $this->input->post('username'), 'login' => true ); $this->session->set_userdata($data); } } } Controller function __construct(){ parent::__construct(); $this->logincheck(); } public function logincheck(){ if ($this->session->userdata('login')){ redirect('/members'); } } If I just echo from the controller: $this-session-all_userdata(); I get an empty array. So the problem seems to be that the $data array in the model isn't being stored in the session.

  Read the article

• Ruby on Rails: Uploading a modifed site.

  - by Califer

  I'm having a heck of a time getting a site I modified to work correctly. I didn't set the site up originally, and since the person that set it up no longer works with me I had to learn ruby just to make some changes. I made all the changes in the development server and everything worked fine. Then I did a diff on the production and development and moved only my changes over. Unfortunately when I loaded my changes onto the production server I got a lot of errors. I've changed all of the permissions to 755, which took care being able to access anything at all, but after that I started getting a lot of 500 errors. Nothing showed up in the production.log file. I really have no clue what's going wrong except that perhaps things are not noticing the new changes. I moved the old site to a backup folder, and the new site crashes whenever it goes to anything that I've changed. In particular, I added a link to a new setup with an extra controller/model/view group. It works fine on development but in production it gives me a 404. Yes, I did copy all the files up. I even put everything back how it was, but the website is still showing the broken version of it. I checked the tmp/cache folder but it was empty. Running dispatch.fcgi shows the old site (which I expected) but it still shows the flawed new site when I connect through a browser. I've been tearing my hair out trying to get this to work. Any ideas as to how I can get this to work?

  Read the article

• nservicebus deleting subscription record after inserting it?

  - by Justin Holbrook

  I have been playing with nservicebus for a few weeks now and since everything was going well on my local machine I decided to try to set up a test environment and work on deployment. I am using the generic host that comes with nservicebus and was using the nservicebus.Integration profile when running locally, but would like to use Nservicebus.Production in the test environment. I set up a sql server 2008 database, made changes to my app.config and everything seemed to work fine. But after a few attempts, I noticed messages were not being picked up by my subscriber. I checked the subscription table and it was empty. Upon examination of the logs I noticed the following: 2010-05-06 15:07:57,416 [1] DEBUG NHibernate.Persister.Entity.AbstractEntityPers ister [(null)] <(null) - Insert 0: INSERT INTO [Subscription] (SubscriberEndpo int, MessageType) VALUES (?, ?) 2010-05-06 15:07:57,416 [1] DEBUG NHibernate.Persister.Entity.AbstractEntityPers ister [(null)] <(null) - Update 0: 2010-05-06 15:07:57,416 [1] DEBUG NHibernate.Persister.Entity.AbstractEntityPers ister [(null)] <(null) - Delete 0: DELETE FROM [Subscription] WHERE Subscriber Endpoint = ? AND MessageType = ? Why would it insert then delete my subscription right afterwards? To try to rule out a nhibernate dialect issue I tried switching my subscription storage to an oracle 10g database. It behaved exactly the same, it worked the first 2 times, then I started seeing my subscriptions being deleted right after they were inserted. Any ideas what is causing this behavior?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 856 857 858 859 860 861 862 863 864 865 866 867  | Next Page >