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• Performance degrades for more than 2 threads on Xeon X5355

  - by zoolii

  Hi All, I am writing an application using boost threads and using boost barriers to synchronize the threads. I have two machines to test the application. Machine 1 is a core2 duo (T8300) cpu machine (windows XP professional - 4GB RAM) where I am getting following performance figures : Number of threads :1 , TPS :21 Number of threads :2 , TPS :35 (66 % improvement) further increase in number of threads decreases the TPS but that is understandable as the machine has only two cores. Machine 2 is a 2 quad core ( Xeon X5355) cpu machine (windows 2003 server with 4GB RAM) and has 8 effective cores. Number of threads :1 , TPS :21 Number of threads :2 , TPS :27 (28 % improvement) Number of threads :4 , TPS :25 Number of threads :8 , TPS :24 As you can see, performance is degrading after 2 threads (though it has 8 cores). If the program has some bottle neck , then for 2 thread also it should have degraded. Any idea? , Explanations ? , Does the OS has some role in performance ? - It seems like the Core2duo (2.4GHz) scales better than Xeon X5355 (2.66GHz) though it has better clock speed. Thank you -Zoolii

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• Non distinct Unique ID in MySQL database table.

  - by Geoff

  First of, a simplified version: I am wondering if I can create a trigger to activate during INSERT (it's actually LOAD DATA INFILE) and NOT enter records for an RMA already in my table? I have a table that has no records that are unique. Some may be duplicates but there is one field that I can use to know if the data has been entered or not. For instance RMA Op Days --------------------- 213 Repair 0.10 213 Test 0.20 213 Repair 0.10 So I could do an index on the three columns together but as you see it's possible for an RMA to be in a step for the same amount of time twice so it's possible to have duplicate records. This data comes from a report that I cannot edit and this is all it provides. The key is that an RMA's data is only in the report once so if my database already has that RMA in it's records I want to skip the loading of that RMA's records from the report. By all means please let me know if that didn't make sense, I'll Explain as needed. I'm sure it's not uncommon but I couldn't find anything on the net.

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• Can iPad/iPhone Touch Points be Wrong Due to Calibration?

  - by Kristopher Johnson

  I have an iPad application that uses the whole screen (that is, UIStatusBarHidden is set true in the Info.plist file). The main window's frame is set to (0, 0, 768, 1024), as is the main view in that frame. The main view has multitouch enabled. The view has code to handle touches: - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { for (UITouch *touch in touches) { CGPoint location = [touch locationInView:nil]; NSLog(@"touchesMoved at location %@", NSStringFromCGPoint(location)); } } When I run the app in the simulator, it works pretty much as expected. As I move the mouse from one edge of the screen to the other, reported X values go from 0 to 767. Reported Y values go from 20 to 1023, but it is a known issue that the simulator doesn't report touches in the top 20 pixels of the screen, even when there is no status bar. Here's what's weird: When I run the app on an actual iPad, the X values go from 0 to 767 as expected, but reported Y values go from -6 to 1017. The fact that it seems to work properly on the simulator leads me to suspect that real devices' touchscreens are not perfectly calibrated, and mine is simply reporting values six pixels too low. Can anyone verify that this is the case? Otherwise, is there anything else that could account for the Y values being six pixels off from what I expect? (In a few days, I should have a second iPad, so I can test this with another device and compare the results.)

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• Browser: Continue gif animation after escape is pressed

  - by cottsak

  Firefox (and other browsers i believe) stop gif animation when you click the Stop button or invoke it via the Escape key. I have a text input that on change makes ajax requests to update other elements. As part of this ajaxyness i have an animated gif to show feedback. I also trap the escape key press in this input so as to clear the text field for better UX. My problem is after the escape key is pressed once, none of the ajax gifs animate anymore until the page is refreshed. Does anyone know a workaround? Stuff i've tried: I tried the e.stopPropagation(); and e.cancelBubble = true; in the function handling the e.keyCode == 27 and that didn't seem to work. I suspect that this stops trigging more js events and the browser catches the escape irrespective of js activity. I have the gif showing/hiding via adding/removing a css class so it's difficult to apply the "change gif url to reset" workaround. I dont even know if this works anyway - didn't test it. But it seems difficult. If anyone knows that this works and knows of an easy way to apply the hack with background-image: url(../images/ajax-loader_dotcirclel13x13.gif); css then please let me know.

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• Has form post behavior changed in modern browsers? (or How are double clicks handled by the browser)

  - by Alex Czarto

  Background: We are in the process of writing a registration/payment page, and our philosophy was to code all validation and error checking on the server side first, and then add client side validation as a second step (un-obstructive jQuery). We wanted to disable double clicks server side, so we wrote some locking, thread-safe code to handle simultaneous posts/race conditions. When we tried to test this, we realized that we could not cause a simultaneous post or race condition to occur. I thought that (in older browsers anyway) double clicking a submit button worked as follows: User double clicks submit button. Browser sends a post on the first click On the second click, browser cancels/ignores initial post, and initiates a second post (before the first post has returned with a response). Browser waits for second post to return, ignoring initial post response. I thought that from the server side it looked like this: Server gets two simultaneous post requests, executes and responds to them both (unaware that no one is listening to the first response). From our testing (FireFox 3.0, IE 8.0) this is what actually happens: User double clicks submit button Browser sends a post for the first click Browser queues up second click, but waits for the response from the first click. Response returns from first click (response is ignored?). Browser sends a post for the second click. So from a server side: Server receives a single post which it executes and responds to. Then, server receives a second request wich it executes and responds to. My question is, has this always worked this way (and I'm losing my mind)? Or is this a new feature in modern browsers that prevents simultaneous posts to be sent to the server? It seems that for server side double click prevention, we don't have to worry about simultaneous posts or race conditions. Only need to worry about queued up posts. Thanks in advance for any feedback / comments. Alex

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• How to run the HelloWorld ODE from the browser?

  - by tikky

  I develop a simple hello world project by using Eclipse IDE. I can run it from the IDE (Web Services - Test with Web Services Explorer). From that it work perfectly, but if I try to access the http://localhost:8080/ode/processes/HelloWorld/ It gives some exceptions. org.apache.axis2.AxisFault: The endpoint reference (EPR) for the Operation not found is /ode/processes/HelloWorld/ and the WSA Action = null at org.apache.axis2.engine.DispatchPhase.checkPostConditions(DispatchPhase.java:86) at org.apache.axis2.engine.Phase.invoke(Phase.java:308) at org.apache.axis2.engine.AxisEngine.invoke(AxisEngine.java:212) at org.apache.axis2.engine.AxisEngine.receive(AxisEngine.java:132) at org.apache.axis2.transport.http.util.RESTUtil.invokeAxisEngine(RESTUtil.java:125) at org.apache.axis2.transport.http.util.RESTUtil.processURLRequest(RESTUtil.java:119) at org.apache.axis2.transport.http.AxisServlet$RestRequestProcessor.processURLRequest(AxisServlet.java:799) at org.apache.axis2.transport.http.AxisServlet.doGet(AxisServlet.java:242) at org.apache.ode.axis2.hooks.ODEAxisServlet.doGet(ODEAxisServlet.java:62) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:617) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:290) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.invoke(StandardWrapperValve.java:233) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContextValve.invoke(StandardContextValve.java:191) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHostValve.invoke(StandardHostValve.java:128) at org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:102) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngineValve.invoke(StandardEngineValve.java:109) at org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:286) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:845) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.process(Http11Protocol.java:583) at org.apache.tomcat.util.net.JIoEndpoint$Worker.run(JIoEndpoint.java:447) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:729) What may be the issue and how to develop it as, input values through the web browser and get the output from it. Thank you.

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• My 3D object (opengl es) is disappearing behind the iPhone camera view

  - by KLC

  I have an augmented reality iPhone app that I am converting from Core Animation to OpenGL ES 1.1. I have added code that has been modified from the Apple OpenGL template. My problem is that my 3D object , when translating along the negative Z-axis (away from the user), appears to disappear into the camera view, until its completely gone. I have experimented with several solutions, but to no avail. What I have determined: Using the 3D icosahedron from Jeff Lamarche's blog here, the object starts it at 0,0,0 and then translates with decreasing z coordinates. By the time the z value reaches -2.0f, the object is gone. It appears as if it is disappearing behind the camera view. This is how I set my frustrum & viewport (unchanged from Apple's code) glMatrixMode(GL_PROJECTION); size = zNear * tanf(DEGREES_TO_RADIANS(fieldOfView) / 2.0); //Grab the size of the screen CGRect rect = self.bounds; glFrustumf(-size, size, -size / (rect.size.width / rect.size.height), size / (rect.size.width / rect.size.height), zNear, zFar); glViewport(0, 0, rect.size.width, rect.size.height); glMatrixMode(GL_MODELVIEW); glLoadIdentity(); What I have tried: The camera view is the main view and several other views are added to it as subviews, including the openGLView. I have commented those views out for test purposes. I have applied CATransforms to move the openGLView in the z direction -500 and +500, and done the same to the camera view. I have also changed the zFar in the above code to 1.0f, and it still disappears at z position of -2.0, which doesn't make sense (shouldn't it disappear at z=1.0?) My experimentation has got me more confused than when I started ( which usually means I am missing a key piece, but I can't figure out what). Thanks for your help.

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• Testing Finite State Machines

  - by Pondidum

  I have inherited a large and firaly complex state machine at work. It has 31 possbile states to be in. It has the following inputs: Enum: Current State (so 0 - 30) Enum: source (currently only 2 entries) Boolean: Request Boolean: type Enum: Status (3 states) Enum: Handling (3 states) Boolean: Completed The 31 States are really needed (big business process). Breaking into seperate state machines doesnt seem feasable - each state is distinct. I have written tests for one set of inputs (the most common set), with one test per input (all inputs constant, except for the State input): [Subject("Application Process States")] public class When_state_is_meeting2Requested : AppProcessBase { Establish context = () => { //Setup.... }; Because of = () => process.Load(jas, vac); It Current_node_should_be_meeting2Requested = () => process.CurrentNode.ShouldBeOfType<meetingRequestedNode>(); It Can_move_to_clientDeclined = () => Check(process, process.clientDeclined); It Can_move_to_meeting1Arranged = () => Check(process, process.meeting1Arranged); It Can_move_to_meeting2Arranged = () => Check(process, process.meeting2Arranged); It Can_move_to_Reject = () => Check(process, process.Reject); It Cannot_move_to_any_other_state = () => AllOthersFalse(process); } As no one is entirely sure on what the output should be for each state and set of inputs i have been starting to write tests for it, however on calculation i will need to write 4320 ( 30*2*2*2*3*3*2 ) tests for it. Does anyone have any suggestions on how i should go about testing this?

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• C# webservice async callback not getting called on HTTP 407 error.

  - by Ben

  Hi, I am trying to test the use-case of a customer having a proxy with login credentials, trying to use our webservice from our client. If the request is synchronous, my job is easy. Catch the WebException, check for the 407 code, and prompt the user for the login credentials. However, for async requests, I seem to be running into a problem: the callback is never getting called! I ran a wireshark trace and did indeed see that the HTTP 407 error was being passed back, so I am bewildered as to what to do. Here is the code that sets up the callback and starts the request: TravelService.TravelServiceImplService svc = new TravelService.TravelServiceImplService(); svc.Url = svcUrl; svc.CreateEventCompleted += CbkCreateEventCompleted; svc.CreateEventAsync(crReq, req); And the code that was generated when I consumed the WSDL: public void CreateEventAsync(TravelServiceCreateEventRequest CreateEventRequest, object userState) { if ((this.CreateEventOperationCompleted == null)) { this.CreateEventOperationCompleted = new System.Threading.SendOrPostCallback(this.OnCreateEventOperationCompleted); } this.InvokeAsync("CreateEvent", new object[] { CreateEventRequest}, this.CreateEventOperationCompleted, userState); } private void OnCreateEventOperationCompleted(object arg) { if ((this.CreateEventCompleted != null)) { System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs invokeArgs = ((System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs)(arg)); this.CreateEventCompleted(this, new CreateEventCompletedEventArgs(invokeArgs.Results, invokeArgs.Error, invokeArgs.Cancelled, invokeArgs.UserState)); } } Debugging the WS code, I found that even the SoapHttpClientProtocol.InvokeAsync method was not calling its callback as well. Am I missing some sort of configuration?

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• How to I pass parameters to Ruby/Python scripts from inside PHP?

  - by Roger

  Hi, everybody. I need to turn HTML into equivalent Markdown-structured text. From what I could discover, I have only two good choices: Python: Aaron Swartz's html2text.py Ruby: Singpolyma's html2markdown.rb As I am programming in PHP, I need to pass the HTML code, call the Ruby/Python Script and receive the output back. I started creating a simple test just to know if my server was configured to run both languages. PHP code: echo exec('./hi.rb'); Ruby code: #!/usr/bin/ruby puts "Hello World!" It worked fine and I am ready to go to the next step. Unfortunately, all I know is that the function is Ruby works like this: HTML2Markdown.new('<h1>HTMLcode</h1>').to_s I don't know how to make PHP pass the string (with the HTML code) to Ruby nor how to make the ruby script receive the variable and pass it back to PHP (after have parsed it into Markdown). Believe it or not: I know less of Python. A folk made a similar question here ("how to call ruby script from php?") but with no practical information to my case. Any help would be a joy - thanks. Rogério Madureira. atipico.com.br

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• App will not launch from drawer after phone is removed from car dock

  - by BigFwoosh

  I am creating a replacement Car Home app for Android 2.0+ devices. The app needs to launch when the phone is inserted into the car dock, as well as terminate when it is removed from the dock. It also needs to be able to be launched from the app drawer. I'm having a problem right now where once the phone is inserted and removed from the dock, I can no longer launch the app from the app drawer because every time I launch the app my BroadcastReceiver picks up a DOCK_EVENT action for some reason. I created a test project that only registers my BroadcastReceiver, and the same thing happens. Here's the code for the BroadcastReceiver: public class CarDockBroadcastReceiver extends BroadcastReceiver { /** * @see android.content.BroadcastReceiver#onReceive(Context,Intent) */ @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { // TODO Put your code here if(intent.getExtras().containsKey("android.intent.extra.DOCK_STATE")){ int state = intent.getExtras().getInt("android.intent.extra.DOCK_STATE",1); if(state == 0){ Log.i("Dock", "Removed from dock!"); ((Activity)context).finish(); } } } } My main Activity is as follows: public class MainActivity extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ CarDockBroadcastReceiver receiver; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); IntentFilter filter = new IntentFilter("android.intent.action.DOCK_EVENT"); receiver = new CarDockBroadcastReceiver(); registerReceiver(receiver, filter); } @Override protected void onDestroy() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub unregisterReceiver(receiver); super.onDestroy(); } } The main Activity has an intent filter for action.MAIN, category.LAUNCHER, category.DEFAULT, and category.CAR_DOCK. Any ideas on why this is happening?

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• ASP.NET MVC unit testing

  - by Simon Lomax

  Hi, I'm getting started with unit testing and trying to do some TDD. I've read a fair bit about the subject and written a few tests. I just want to know if the following is the right approach. I want to add the usual "contact us" facility on my web site. You know the thing, the user fills out a form with their email address, enters a brief message and hits a button to post the form back. The model binders do their stuff and my action method accepts the posted data as a model. The action method would then parse the model and use smtp to send an email to the web site administrator infoming him/her that somebody filled out the contact form on their site. Now for the question .... In order to test this, would I be right in creating an interface IDeliver that has a method Send(emailAddress, message) to accept the email address and message body. Implement the inteface in a concrete class and let that class deal with smtp stuff and actually send the mail. If I add the inteface as a parameter to my controller constructor I can then use DI and IoC to inject the concrete class into the controller. But when unit testing I can create a fake or mock version of my IDeliver and do assertions on that. The reason I ask is that I've seen other examples of people generating interfaces for SmtpClient and then mocking that. Is there really any need to go that far or am I not understanding this stuff?

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• debugging scaffolding contingent upon degbugging boolean (java)

  - by David

  Recently i've found myself writing a lot of methods with what i can only think to call debugging scaffolding. Here's an example: public static void printArray (String[] array, boolean bug) { for (int i = 0; i<array.lenght; i++) { if (bug) System.out.print (i) ; //this line is what i'm calling the debugging scaffolding i guess. System.out.println(array[i]) ; } } in this method if i set bug to true, wherever its being called from maybe by some kind of user imput, then i get the special debugging text to let me know what index the string being printed as at just in case i needed to know for the sake of my debugging (pretend a state of affairs exists where its helpful). All of my questions more or less boil down to the question: is this a good idea? but with a tad bit more objectivity: Is this an effective way to test my methods and debug them? i mean effective in terms of efficiency and not messing up my code. Is it acceptable to leave the if (bug) stuff ; code in place after i've got my method up and working? (if a definition of "acceptability" is needed to make this question objective then use "is not a matter of programing controversy such as ommiting brackets in an if(boolean) with only one line after it, though if you've got something better go ahead and use your definition i won't mind) Is there a more effective way to accomplish the gole of making debugging easier than what i'm doing? Anything you know i mean to ask but that i have forgotten too (as much information as makes sense is appreciated).

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• eclipse, one classpath for compiling, another for launching

  - by DragonFax

  example: For logging, my code uses log4j. but other jars my code is dependent upon, uses slf4j instead. So both jars must be in the build path. Unfortunately, its possible for my code to directly use (depend on) slf4j now, either by context-assist, or some other developers changes. I would like any use of slf4j to show up as an error, but my application (and tests) will still need it in the classpath when running. explanation: I'd like to find out if this is possible in eclipse. This scenario happens often for me. I'll have a large project, that uses alot of 3rd party libraries. And of course those 3rd party jars have their own dependencies as well. So I have to include all dependencies in the classpath ("build path" in eclipse) for the application and its tests to compile and run (from within eclipse). But I don't want my code to use all of those jars, just the few direct dependencies I've decided upon myself. So if my code accidentally uses a dependency of a dependency, I want it to show up as a compilation error. Ideally, as class not found, but any error would do. I know I can manually configure the classpath when running outside of eclipse, and even within eclipse I can modify the classpath for a specific class I'm running (in the run configurations), but thats not manageable if you run alot of individual test cases, or have alot of main() classes.

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• Why is this exception thrown in the visual studio C compiler?

  - by Shane Larson

  Hello. I am trying to get more adept and my C programming and I was attempting to test out displaying a character from the input stream while inside of the loop that is getting the character. I am using the getchar() method. I am getting an exception thrown at the time that the printf statement in my code is present. (If I comment out the printf line in this function, the exception is not thrown). Exception: Unhandled exception at 0x611c91ad (msvcr90d.dll) in firstOS.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x00002573. Here is the code... Any thoughts? Thank you. PS. I am using the stdio.h library. /*getCommandPromptNew - obtains a string command prompt.*/ void getCommandPromptNew(char s[], int lim){ int i, c; for(i=0; i < lim-1 && (c=getchar())!=EOF && c!='\n'; ++i){ s[i] = c; printf('%s', c); } }

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• Bring a subview to the top on mouseDown: AND keep receiving events (for dragging)

  - by d11wtq

  Ok, basically I have a view with a series of slightly overlapping subviews. When a subview is clicked, it moves to the top (among other things), by a really simple two-liner: -(void)mouseDown:(NSEvent *)theEvent { if (_selected) { // Don't do anything this subview is already in the foreground return; } NSView *superview = [self superview]; [self removeFromSuperview]; [superview addSubview:self position:NSWindowAbove relativeTo:nil]; } This works fine and seems to be the "normal" way to do this. The problem is that I'm now introducing some drag logic to the view, so I need to respond to -mouseDragged:. Unfortunately, since the view is removed from the view hierarchy and re-added in the process, I can have the view come to the foreground and be dragged in the same mouse action. It only drags if I leave go of the mouse and click on the view again, since the second click doesn't do any view hierarchy juggling. Is there anything I can do that will allow the view to move to the foreground like this, AND continue to receive the subsequent -mouseDragged: and -mouseUp: events that follow? I started along the lines of thinking of overriding -hitTest: in the superview and intercepting the mouseDown event in order to bring the view to the foreground before it actually receives the event. The problem here is, from within -hitTest:, how do I distinguish what type of event I'm actually performing the hit test for? I wouldn't want to move the subview to the foreground for other mouse events, such as mouseMoved etc.

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• Template Sort In C++

  - by wdow88

  Hey all, I'm trying to write a sort function but am having trouble figuring out how to initialize a value, and making this function work as a generic template. The sort works by: Find a pair =(ii,jj)= with a minimum value = ii+jj = such at A[ii]A[jj] If such a pair exists, then swap A[ii] and A[jj] else break; The function I have written is as follows: template <typename T> void sort(T *A, int size) { T min =453; T temp=0; bool swapper = true; while(swapper) { swapper = false; int index1 = 0, index2 = 0; for (int ii = 0; ii < size-1; ii++){ for (int jj = ii + 1; jj < size; jj++){ if((min >= (A[ii]+A[jj])) && (A[ii] > A[jj])){ min = (A[ii]+A[jj]); index1 = ii; index2 = jj; swapper = true; } } } if (!swapper) return; else { temp = A[index1]; A[index1] = A[index2]; A[index2] = temp; sort(A,size); } } } This function will successfully sort an array of integers, but not an array of chars. I do not know how to properly initialize the min value for the start of the comparison. I tried initializing the value by simply adding the first two elements of the array together (min = A[0] + A[1]), but it looks to me like for this algorithm it will fail. I know this is sort of a strange type of sort, but it is practice for a test, so thanks for any input.

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• How do you program a windows service in C# to start an application for a user?

  - by Swoop

  Is it possible to start a program so that it is available to a user with a windows service? I have been working with the Process.Start() in C#. I can get the service to kickoff some sort of process that appears in the Task Manager list under processes. However, the program nevers appears on the screen. By default, it runs under the user name "SYSTEM". I have adjusted the "Log On" option in the service manager to match the person logged into the computer, but this does not cause a window to appear either. I feel like I am either missing a simple setting, or need to take a different direction for this. Below is the code I have been working with to start up Firefox as a test app. private void startRunDap() { ProcessStartInfo startInfo = new ProcessStartInfo(); startInfo.FileName = "Firefox"; startInfo.WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Normal; startInfo.UseShellExecute = true; Process.Start(startInfo); //Process.Start("Firefox"); }

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• How to serialize data from processing.js to rails application ?

  - by railscoder

  Hi I am creating a simple canvas using processing.js , how to pass values from rails application to Processing.js void drawBox(int bx, int by, int bs, int bs){ strokeWeight(3); stroke(50,50,50); // Test if the cursor is over the box if (mouseX > bx-bs && mouseX < bx+bs && mouseY > by-bs && mouseY < by+bs) { bover = true; if(!locked) { fill(181,213,255); } } else { fill(255); bover = false; } fill(192); stroke(64); roundRect(bx, by,80,30,10,10); // put in text if (!isRight) { text("Box Value", x-size+5, y-5); //Here i need to pass value from my controller } else { text("Box Value", x+5, y-5); //Here i need to pass value from my controller } } Instead of static string "Box Value" , I need to pass the value from the ex @post.name through ajax

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• SEO: Where do I start?

  - by James

  Hi, I am primarily a software developer however I tend to delve in some web development from time to time. I have recently been asked to have a look at a friends website as they are wanting to improve their position in search engine results i.e. google/yahoo etc. I am aware there is no guarentee that their position will change, however, I do know there are techniques/ways to make your website more visible to search engine spiders and to consequently improve your position in the rankings i.e. performing SEO. Before I started looking at the SEO of the site I did the following prerequsite checks: Ran the website through the W3C Markup Validator and the W3C CSS Validator services. Looked through the markup code manually (check for meta tags etc) Performed a thorough cross browser compatibility test. From those checks, the following was evident: No SEO has been performed on the site before. The website has been developed using a visual editing tool such as dreamweaver (as it failed the validation services miserably and tables where being used everywhere!) The site is fairly cross browser compatibile (only some slight issues with IE8 which are easily resolved). How the site navigation is, isn't very search engine friendly (e.g. index.php?page=home) I can see right away a major improvement for SEO (or I at least think) would be to change the way the website is structured i.e. change from using dynamic pages such as "index.php?page=home" and actually having pages called "home.html". Other area's would be to add meta tags to identify keywords, and then sprinkling these keywords over the pages. As I am a rookie in this department, could anyone give me some advice on how I could perform thorough SEO on this website? Thanks in advance.

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• Qt support for VNC

  - by muchala123

  i want to test whether qt is supporting VNC or not. For that i have written a small layout program using Qt library. the source code for the layout program is as follows: layout.cpp #include <QApplication> #include <QHBoxLayout> #include <QSlider> #include <QSpinBox> int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { QApplication app(argc, argv); QWidget *window = new QWidget; window->setWindowTitle("Enter The Age of the person"); QSpinBox *spinBox = new QSpinBox; QSlider *slider = new QSlider(Qt::Horizontal); spinBox->setRange(0, 130); slider->setRange(0, 130); QObject::connect(spinBox, SIGNAL(valueChanged(int)), slider, SLOT(setValue(int))); QObject::connect(slider, SIGNAL(valueChanged(int)), spinBox, SLOT(setValue(int))); spinBox->setValue(35); QHBoxLayout *layout = new QHBoxLayout; layout->addWidget(spinBox); layout->addWidget(slider); window->setLayout(layout); window->show(); return app.exec(); } i want to run this as server application on my linux PC.For that what i configured Qt and installed like this. ./configure -qt-gfx-vnc make make install The program is working fine. But if i run the application as VNC server application like ./layout -qws -display VNC:0 i am encountering an error.it says that "_X11TransSocketINETConnect() can't get address for VNC:6000: Temporary failure in name resolution".. pls help me what i need to do. Thanks

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• onTouchListener togglebutton, ignores first press?

  - by Paul

  I have a togglebutton that should run code when I press it down and more code when I let go. However the first time I press and let go nothing happens. Every other time it is fine, why is this? I can see the method only runs the first time when I let go of the button (it does not trigger any onTouch part of the method though), how can I get around this, and have it work for the first press? public void pushtotalk3(final View view) { ((ToggleButton) view).setChecked(true); ((ToggleButton) view).setChecked(false); view.setOnTouchListener(new OnTouchListener() { @Override public boolean onTouch(View v, MotionEvent event) { //if more than one call, change this code int callId = 0; for (SipCallSession callInfo : callsInfo) { callId = callInfo.getCallId(); Log.e(TAG, "" + callInfo.getCallId()); } final int id = callId; switch (event.getAction()) { case MotionEvent.ACTION_DOWN: { //press ((ToggleButton) view).setBackgroundResource(R.drawable.btn_blue_glossy); ((ToggleButton) view).setChecked(true); OnDtmf(id, 17, 10); OnDtmf(id, 16, 9); return true; } case MotionEvent.ACTION_UP: { //release ((ToggleButton) view).setBackgroundResource(R.drawable.btn_lightblue_glossy); ((ToggleButton) view).setChecked(false); OnDtmf(id, 18, 11); OnDtmf(id, 18, 11); return true; } default: return false; } } }); } EDIT: the xml for the button: <ToggleButton android:id="@+id/PTT_button5" android:layout_width="0dp" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:text="@string/ptt5" android:onClick="pushtotalk5" android:layout_weight="50" android:textOn="Push To Talk On" android:textOff="Push To Talk Off" android:background="@drawable/btn_lightblue_glossy" android:textColor="@android:color/white" android:textSize="15sp" /> EDIT: hardware problem, can't test solutions atm.

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• Mac vs. Windows Browser Font Height Rendering Issue

  - by cdmckay

  I'm using a custom font and the @font-face tag. In Windows, everything looks great, regardless of whether it's Firefox, Chrome, or IE. On Mac, it's a different story. For some reason, the Mac font renderer thinks the font is a lot shorter than it is. For example, consider this test code (live example here): <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> <title>Webble</title> <style type="text/css"> @font-face { font-family: "Bubbleboy 2"; src: url("bubbleboy-2.ttf") format('truetype'); } body { font-family: "Bubbleboy 2"; font-size: 30px; } div { background-color: maroon; color: yellow; height: 100px; line-height: 100px; } </style> </head> <body> <div>The quick brown fox jumped over the lazy dog.</div> </body> </html> Open it on Windows Firefox and on Mac Firefox. Use your mouse to select it. On Windows, you'll notice it fully selects the font. On Mac, it only selects about half the font. If you look at what it is selecting, you'll see that that part has been centered, instead of the full height of the font. Is there anyway to fix this rather large discrepancy?

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• jaquer - hide if prev has class

  - by Tillebeck

  Hi I would like to hide all class="csc-content" where previous sibling is a h4 class="faq". UPDATE Error: I think this is wrong... the previous sibling is not h4. But I hope you get the point that all "answer" shall be hidden if the "question" has the class "faq" /UPDATE This is the html: <div id="centerCol-1"> <div id="c65" class="csc-default normal"> <div class="csc-header csc-header-n1"><h4 class="faq">FAQ question1</h4></div> <div class="csc-content active"><p class="bodytext">Answer1</p></div> </div> <div id="c67" class="csc-default normal"> <div class="csc-header csc-header-n2"><h4 class="faq">FAQ question2</h4></div> <div class="csc-content active"><p class="bodytext">Answer2</p></div> </div> <div id="c68" class="csc-default normal"> <div class="csc-header csc-header-n3"><h4>not FAQ</h4></div> <div class="csc-content active"><p class="bodytext">Not an answer, just normal content</p></div> </div> </div> jQuery should be something like: // find all outer divs with class csc-default in the div centerCol-1 // test if they contain a header div with an h4 class faq // go to next element and hide it. Error... this should be parents next element? $("#centerCol-1 .csc-default").find("h4").is(".faq").next(".csc-content").hide(); BR. Anders

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• How do I build a JSON object to send to an AJAX WebService?

  - by Ben McCormack

  After trying to format my JSON data by hand in javascript and failing miserably, I realized there's probably a better way. Here's what the code for the web service method and relevant classes looks like in C#: [WebMethod] public Response ValidateAddress(Request request) { return new test_AddressValidation().GenerateResponse( test_AddressValidation.ResponseType.Ambiguous); } ... public class Request { public Address Address; } public class Address { public string Address1; public string Address2; public string City; public string State; public string Zip; public AddressClassification AddressClassification; } public class AddressClassification { public int Code; public string Description; } The web service works great with using SOAP/XML, but I can't seem to get a valid response using javascript and jQuery because the message I get back from the server has a problem with my hand-coded JSON. I can't use the jQuery getJSON function because the request requires HTTP POST, so I'm using the lower-level ajax function instead: $.ajax({ type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", url: "http://bmccorm-xp/HBUpsAddressValidation/AddressValidation.asmx/ValidateAddress", data: "{\"Address\":{\"Address1\":\"123 Main Street\",\"Address2\":null,\"City\":\"New York\",\"State\":\"NY\",\"Zip\":\"10000\",\"AddressClassification\":null}}", dataType: "json", success: function(response){ alert(response); } }) The ajax function is submitting everything specified in data:, which is where my problem is. How do I build a properly formatted JSON object in javascript so I can plug it in to my ajax call like so: data: theRequest I'll eventually be pulling data out of text inputs in forms, but for now hard-coded test data is fine. How do I build a properly formatted JSON object to send to the web service?

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