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  • Kohana Auth Library Deployment

    - by Steve
    My Kohana app runs perfectly on my local machine. When I deployed my app to a server (and adjust the config files appropriately), I can no longer log into the app. I've traced through the app login routine on both my local version and the server version and they both agree with each other all the way through until you get to the auth.php controller logged_in() routine where suddenly, at line 140 - the is_object($this-user) test - the $user object no longer exists!?!?!? The login() function call that calls the logged_in() function successfully passes the following test, which causes a redirect to the logged_in() function. if(Auth::instance()->login($user, $post['password'])) Yes, the password and hash, etc all work perfectly. Here is the offending code: public function logged_in() { if ( ! is_object($this->user)) { // No user is currently logged in url::redirect('auth/login'); } etc... } As the code is the same between my local installation and the server, I reckon it must be some server setting that is messing with me. FYI: All the rest of the code works because I have a temporary backdoor available that allows me to use the application (view pages of tables, etc) without being logged in. Any ideas?

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  • Creating android app Database with big amount of data

    - by Thomas
    Hi all, The database of my application need to be filled with a lot of data, so during onCreate(), it's not only some create table sql instructions, there is a lot of inserts. The solution I chose is to store all this instructions in a sql file located in res/raw and which is loaded with Resources.openRawResource(id). It works well but I face to encoding issue, I have some accentuated caharacters in the sql file which appears bad in my application. This my code to do this : public String getFileContent(Resources resources, int rawId) throws IOException { InputStream is = resources.openRawResource(rawId); int size = is.available(); // Read the entire asset into a local byte buffer. byte[] buffer = new byte[size]; is.read(buffer); is.close(); // Convert the buffer into a string. return new String(buffer); } public void onCreate(SQLiteDatabase db) { try { // get file content String sqlCode = getFileContent(mCtx.getResources(), R.raw.db_create); // execute code for (String sqlStatements : sqlCode.split(";")) { db.execSQL(sqlStatements); } Log.v("Creating database done."); } catch (IOException e) { // Should never happen! Log.e("Error reading sql file " + e.getMessage(), e); throw new RuntimeException(e); } catch (SQLException e) { Log.e("Error executing sql code " + e.getMessage(), e); throw new RuntimeException(e); } The solution I found to avoid this is to load the sql instructions from a huge static final string instead of a file, and all accentutated characters appears well. But Isn't there a more elegant way to load sql instructions than a big static final String attribute with all sql instructions ? Thanks in advance Thomas

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  • How do you use boost iterators

    - by Neil G
    It worked, and then I added the typedefs so that I could have a const_sparse_iterator as well. Now, when I compile this and try to use sparse_iterator, it says: /Users/neilrg/nn/src/./core/sparse_vector.h:331: error: invalid use of incomplete type 'struct sparse_vector<A>::sparse_iterator' Here's the code. More code here. tempalte<typename T> class sparse_vector { // There is more code at my previous question, but this might be enough...? private: template<typename base_type> class sparse_iterator_private : public boost::iterator_adaptor< sparse_iterator_private<base_type> // Derived , base_type // Base , value_type // Value , boost::random_access_traversal_tag // CategoryOrTraversal > { private: struct enabler {}; // a private type avoids misuse public: sparse_iterator_private() : sparse_iterator_private<base_type>::iterator_adaptor_(0) {} explicit sparse_iterator_private(typename array_type::iterator&& p) : sparse_iterator_private<base_type>::iterator_adaptor_(p) {} private: friend class boost::iterator_core_access; reference dereference() const { return this->base()->value; } }; public: typedef sparse_iterator_private<typename array_type::iterator> sparse_iterator; typedef sparse_iterator_private<typename array_type::const_iterator> const_sparse_iterator; };

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  • JavaScript audio not playing outside of jQuery function

    - by user1814016
    I know the question title doesn't make much sense, but I can't think of a better way to put it. I am a newbie to jQuery and I'm using this code to fade in a <div> and play a sound: $(document).ready(function(){ $('#speech').fadeIn('medium', function() { play('msg_appear'); var sptx = $('<p class="stext">').text('There is nothing here.'); $('#speech').append(sptx); $('.stext').typeOut({marker: '', delay: 22}); }); }); This code runs fine however the sound plays after the fade-in is complete. I wanted it to play while it was fading in, so I tried placing the play() call outside of the fade-in function like this: $(document).ready(function(){ play('msg_appear'); $('#speech').fadeIn('medium', function() { However, now it's not playing at all. There's no errors on the JavaScript console so I'm unsure if it's a syntax error, and probably something obvious, but I don't know what. play() is a function I found to play audio, here it is if it matters at all. I placed it in the same file the above code is; right above the $(document).ready(). function play(sound) { if (window.HTMLAudioElement) { var snd = new Audio(''); if(snd.canPlayType('audio/ogg')) { snd = new Audio(sound + '.ogg'); } else if(snd.canPlayType('audio/mp3')) { snd = new Audio(sound + '.mp3'); } snd.play(); } else { alert('HTML5 Audio is not supported by your browser!'); } }

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  • Computation overhead in C# - Using getters/setters vs. modifying arrays directly and casting speeds

    - by Jeffrey Kern
    I was going to write a long-winded post, but I'll boil it down here: I'm trying to emulate the graphical old-school style of the NES via XNA. However, my FPS is SLOW, trying to modify 65K pixels per frame. If I just loop through all 65K pixels and set them to some arbitrary color, I get 64FPS. The code I made to look-up what colors should be placed where, I get 1FPS. I think it is because of my object-orented code. Right now, I have things divided into about six classes, with getters/setters. I'm guessing that I'm at least calling 360K getters per frame, which I think is a lot of overhead. Each class contains either/and-or 1D or 2D arrays containing custom enumerations, int, Color, or Vector2D, bytes. What if I combined all of the classes into just one, and accessed the contents of each array directly? The code would look a mess, and ditch the concepts of object-oriented coding, but the speed might be much faster. I'm also not concerned about access violations, as any attempts to get/set the data in the arrays will done in blocks. E.g., all writing to arrays will take place before any data is accessed from them. As for casting, I stated that I'm using custom enumerations, int, Color, and Vector2D, bytes. Which data types are fastest to use and access in the .net Framework, XNA, XBox, C#? I think that constant casting might be a cause of slowdown here. Also, instead of using math to figure out which indexes data should be placed in, I've used precomputed lookup tables so I don't have to use constant multiplication, addition, subtraction, division per frame. :)

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  • Converting string to a simple type

    - by zespri
    .Net framework contains a great class named Convert that allows conversion between simple types, DateTime type and String type. Also the class support conversion of the types implementing IConvertible interface. The class has been implemented in the very first version of .Net framework. There were a few things in the first .Net framework that were not done quite right. For example .Parse methods on simple types would throw an exception if the string couldn't be parsed and there would be no way to check if exception is going to be thrown in advance. A future version of .Net Framework removed this deficiency by introducing the TryParse method that resolved this problem. The Convert class dates back to time of the old Parse method, so the ChangeType method on this class in implemented old style - if conversion can't be performed an exception is thrown. Take a look at the following code: public static T ConvertString<T>(string s, T @default) { try { return (T)Convert.ChangeType(s, typeof(T), CultureInfo.InvariantCulture); } catch (Exception) { return @default; } } This code basically does what I want. However I would pretty much like to avoid the ugly try/catch here. I'm sure, that similar to TryParse, there is a modern method of rewriting this code without the catch-all. Could you suggest one?

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  • Python logging in Django

    - by Jeff
    I'm developing a Django app, and I'm trying to use Python's logging module for error/trace logging. Ideally I'd like to have different loggers configured for different areas of the site. So far I've got all of this working, but one thing has me scratching my head. I have the root logger going to sys.stderr, and I have configured another logger to write to a file. This is in my settings.py file: sviewlog = logging.getLogger('MyApp.views.scans') view_log_handler = logging.FileHandler('C:\\MyApp\\logs\\scan_log.log') view_log_handler.setLevel(logging.INFO) view_log_handler.setFormatter(logging.Formatter('%(asctime)s %(name)-12s %(levelname)-8s %(message)s')) sviewlog.addHandler(view_log_handler) Seems pretty simple. Here's the problem, though: whatever I write to the sviewlog gets written to the log file twice. The root logger only prints it once. It's like addHandler() is being called twice. And when I put my code through a debugger, this is exactly what I see. The code in settings.py is getting executed twice, so two FileHandlers are created and added to the same logger instance. But why? And how do I get around this? Can anyone tell me what's going on here? I've tried moving the sviewlog logger/handler instantiation code to the file where it's used (since that actually seems like the appropriate place to me), but I have the same problem there. Most of the examples I've seen online use only the root logger, and I'd prefer to have multiple loggers.

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  • All Callbacks on GUI Thread - Multithreading issues possible?

    - by miguel
    We have an external data provider which, in its construtor, takes a callback thread for returning data upon. There are some issues in the system which I am suspicious are related to threading, however, in theory they cannot be, due to the fact that the callbacks should all be returned on the same thread. My question is, does code like this require thread synchronisation? class Foo { ExternalDataProvider _provider; public Foo() { // This is the c'tor for the xternal data provider, taking a callback loop as param _provider = new ExternalDataProvider(UILoop); _provider.DataArrived += ExternalProviderCallbackMethod; } public ExternalProviderCallbackMethod(...) { //...(code omitted) var itemArray[] = new String[4] { "item1", "item2", "item3", "item4" }; for (int i = 0; i < itemArray.Length; i++) { string s = itemArray[i]; switch(s) { case "item1": DoItem1Action(); break; case "item2": DoItem2Action(); break; default: DoDefaultAction(); break; } //...(code omitted) } } } The issue is that, very infrequently, DoItem2Action is executingwhen DoItem1Action should be exectuing. Is it at all possible threading is at fault here? In theory, as all callbacks are arriving on the same thread, they should be serialized, right? So there should be no need for thread sync here?

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  • What makes you trust that a piece of open source software is not malicious?

    - by Daniel DiPaolo
    We developers are in a unique position when it comes to the ability to not only be skeptical about the capabilities provided by open source software, but to actively analyze the code since it is freely available. In fact, one may even argue that open source software developers have a social responsibility to do so to contribute to the community. But at what point do you as a developer say, "I better take a look at what this is doing before I trust using it" for any given thing? Is it a matter of trusting code with your personal information? Does it depend on the source you're getting it from? What spurred this question on was a post on Hacker News to a javascript bookmarklet that supposedly tells you how "exposed" your information on Facebook is as well as recommending some fixes. I thought for a second "I'd rather not start blindly running this code over all my (fairly locked down) Facebook information so let me check it out". The bookmarklet is simple enough, but it calls another javascript function which at the time (but not anymore) was highly compressed and undecipherable. That's when I said "nope, not gonna do it". So even though I could have verified the original uncompressed javascript from the Github site and even saved a local copy to verify and then run without hitting their server, I wasn't going to. It's several thousand lines and I'm not a total javascript guru to begin with. Yet, folks are using it anyway. Even (supposedly) bright developers. What makes them trust the script? Did they all scrutinize it line by line? Do they know the guy personally and trust him not to do anything bad? Do they just take his word? What makes you trust that a piece of open source software is not malicious?

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  • function working fine in IE but the same funtion is not working for mozilla 3.6

    - by anand-juventus
    function VisibleDiv(obj) { if (obj == BaseLog) { var objStyle = document.getElementById('DivCalls').style; if (objStyle.display == "block") objStyle.display = "none"; else objStyle.display = "block"; } else if (obj == ViewReports) { var objStyle = document.getElementById('DivReports').style; if (objStyle.display == "block") objStyle.display = "none"; else objStyle.display = "block"; } else if (obj ==Management) { var objStyle = document.getElementById('DivManage').style; if (objStyle.display == "block") objStyle.display = "none"; else objStyle.display = "block"; } <a href="#" id="BaseLog" class="TextHeader" onclick="VisibleDiv(this)">Base Log </a> in the above code is working in IE but not working in mozilla 3.6. I have checked that obj==BaseLog is not working in the above code. I have tried many options like event.srcelement window.event.srcelement but all in vain. when I debug the code ,I found that obj is having complete value for IE but the same obj is having all the names .ie. the name of tag,id and class for "Base Log" seperated by #. i.e a#BaseLog#TextHeader# Please suggest what shoud I do?

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  • WPF Event Handler in Another Class

    - by Nathan Tornquist
    I have built a series of event handlers for some custom WPF controls. The event handles format the text displayed when the user enters or leaves a textbox based on the type of data contained (Phone number, zip code, monetary value, etc.) Right now I have all of the events locally in the C# code directly attached to the xaml. Because I have developed a could controls, this means that the logic is repeated a lot, and if I want to change the program-wide functionality I would have to make changes everywhere the event code is located. I am sure there is a way to put all of my event handlers in a single class. Can anyone help point me in the correct direction? I saw this article: Event Handler located in different class than MainWindow But I'm not sure if it directly relates to what I'm doing. I would rather make small changes to the existing logic that I have, as it works, then rewrite everything into commands. I would essentially like to something like this if possible: LostFocus="ExpandedTextBoxEvents.TextBox_LostFocus" It is easy enough to do something like this: private void TextBoxCurrencyGotFocus(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ExpandedTextBoxEvents.TextBoxCurrencyGotFocus(sender, e); } private void TextBoxCurrencyLostFocus(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ExpandedTextBoxEvents.TextBoxCurrencyLostFocus(sender, e); } But that is less elegant.

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  • Garbage data from serial port.

    - by sasayins
    Hi I wrote a code in Linux platform that read the data in serial port, my code below: int fd; char *rbuff=NULL; struct termios new_opt, old_opt; int ret; fd = open("/dev/ttyS0", O_RDWR | O_NOCTTY); if( fd == -1 ) { printf("Can't open file: %s\n", strerror(errno)); return -1; } tcgetattr(fd, &old_opt); new_opt.c_cflag = B115200 | CS8 | CLOCAL | CREAD; new_opt.c_iflag = IGNPAR /*| ICRNL*/; new_opt.c_oflag = 0; new_opt.c_lflag = ICANON; tcsetattr(fd, TCSANOW, &new_opt); rbuff = malloc(NBUFF); printf("reading..\n"); memset(rbuff,0x00,NBUFF); ret = read(fd, rbuff, NBUFF); printf("value:%s",rbuff); if(ret == -1) { printf("Read error:%s\n",strerror(errno)); return -1; } tcsetattr(fd, TCSANOW, &old_opt); close(fd); My problem is the code above doesn't read the first data that was transmitted, then the second transmission the data is garbage, then the third is the normal data. Did I missed a setting in the serial port? Thanks.

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  • Android: Having trouble getting html from webpage

    - by Kyle
    Hi, I'm writing an android application that is supposed to get the html from a php page and use the parsed data from thepage. I've searched for this issue on here, and ended up using some code from an example another poster put up. Here is my code so far: HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpGet request = new HttpGet(url); try { Log.d("first","first"); HttpResponse response = client.execute(request); String html = ""; Log.d("second","second"); InputStream in = response.getEntity().getContent(); Log.d("third","third"); BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(in)); Log.d("fourth","fourth"); StringBuilder str = new StringBuilder(); String line = null; Log.d("fifth","fifth"); while((line = reader.readLine()) != null) { Log.d("request line",line); } in.close(); } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block Log.d("error", "error"); } Log.d("end","end"); } Like I said before, the url is a php page. Whenever I run this code, it prints out the first first message, but then prints out the error error message and then finally the end end message. I've tried modifying the headers, but I've had no luck with it. Any help would be greatly appreciated as I don't know what I'm doing wrong. Thanks!

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  • Static Analyzer says I have a leak....why?

    - by Walter
    I think this code should be fine but Static Analyzer doesn't like it. I can't figure out why and was hoping that someone could help me understand. The code works fine, the analyzer result just bugs me. Coin *tempCoin = [[Coin alloc] initalize]; self.myCoin = tempCoin; [tempCoin release]; Coin is a generic NSObject and it has an initalize method. myCoin is a property of the current view and is of type Coin. I assume it is telling me I am leaking tempCoin. In my view's .h I have set myCoin as a property with nonatomic,retain. I've tried to autorelease the code as well as this normal release but Static Analyzer continues to say: 1. Method returns an Objective-C object with a +1 retain count (owning reference) 2. Object allocated on line 97 is no longer referenced after this point and has a retain count of +1 (object leaked) Line 97 is the first line that I show.

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  • Multi Player game using Nodejs and Socket IO

    - by Kishorevarma
    I am trying out multi player racing game using Node and Socket IO ,express . So I have tried simple example to see the latency between node server and the clients. I have a draggable image in client . when I move the image ienter code heren one client ,it has to move in all clients. so basically when I am moving the image I am sending the image position to the node server in a json format , then from there I am broadcasting to all clients. there is a ~approx 300ms latency from the time. following are the results. Client 1 sending data to server at : 286136 (timestamp) Server received at : 286271 Client2 received data at : 286470 Client3 received data at : 286479 Client4 received data at : 286487 Client5 received data at : 286520 the latency between move from client1 to client5 is 384ms. its too hight for a racing game .. here is my server code. var app = require('express').createServer(); var io = require('socket.io'); var http = require('http'); var http_server = http.createServer(); var server = http.createServer(app); server.listen(3000); var socket = io.listen(server,{ log: false }); socket.sockets.on('connection', function (client) { client.on('message', function (data){ console.log("data arrived to server",new Date().getTime()); // Below both statements are giving same latency between the client 1 and client 5 client.broadcast.emit('message',data); //socket.sockets.emit('message',data); }); }); 1) Is there any way to optimize the server code to reduce the latency? 2) is this expected latency using node and websockets ? 3) is socket io can't broadcast the data asynchronously (I mean at a same time) ? Thanks Kishorevarma

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  • Releasing Autopool crashes on iOS 4.0 (and only on 4.0)

    - by samsam
    Hi there. I'm wondering what could cause this. I have several methods in my code that i call using performSelectorInBackground. Within each of these methods i have an Autoreleasepool that is being alloced/initialized at the beginning and released at the end of the method. this perfectly works on iOS 3.1.3 / 3.2 / 4.2 / 4.2.1 but it fataly crashes on iOS 4.0 with a EXC_BAD_ACCESS Exception that happens after calling [myPool release]. After I noticed this strange behaviour I was thinking about rewriting portions of my code and to make my app "less parallel" in case that the client os is 4.0. After I did that, the next point where the app crashed was within the ReachabilityCallback-Method from Apples Reachability "Framework". well, now I'm not quite sure what to do. The things i do within my threaded methods is pretty simple xml parsing (no cocoa calls or stuff that would affect the UI). After each method finishes it posts a notification which the coordinating-thread listens to and once all the parallelized methods have finished, the coordinating thread calls viewcontrollers etc... I have absolutely no clue what could cause this weird behaviour. Especially because Apples Code fails as well. any help is greatly appreciated! thanks, sam

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  • How to Implement an Interface that Requires Duplicate Member Names in C#?

    - by Will Marcouiller
    I often have to implement some interfaces such as IEnumerable<T> in my code. Each time, when implementing automatically, I encounter the following: public IEnumerator<T> GetEnumerator() { // Code here... } public IEnumerator GetEnumerator1() { // Code here... } Though I have to implement both GetEnumerator() methods, they impossibly can have the same name, even if we understand that they do the same, somehow. The compiler can't treat them as one being the overload of the other, because only the return type differs. When doing so, I manage to set the GetEnumerator1() accessor to private. This way, the compiler doesn't complaint about not implementing the interface member, and I simply throw a NotImplementedException within the methods body. However, I wonder whether it is a good practice, or if I shall proceed differently, as perhaps a method alias or something like so. What is the best approach while implementing an interface such as IEnumerable<T> that requires the implementation of two different methods with the same name?

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  • When is Googling it wrong?

    - by Drahcir
    I've been going through Stack Overflow for quite a bit now and noticed certain people (usually experienced programmers) frown upon Googling (researching) certain problems. Since I myself tend to use Google quite a bit to solve certain programming related issues I found certain comments rather demoralising. Now some of you may have come here trigger happy to delete this post but I needed some clarification. I usually Google things that usually syntax related that I would have never figured out on my own. For example I once wondered how to access the properties of a class that I didn't have a direct relationship to. So after a bit of research I discovered reflection and got what I wanted. Now in another scenario is learning a new language, in my case Silverlight were it differs in certain aspects of .NET compared to say ASP.NET. A few weeks ago I had no idea how to load another Silverlight page (usercontrol) and had to Google my way to the solution which I found wasn't as simple as I had imagined. In scenario three is were I myself frown up, that is just stealing a huge chunk of code to avoid doing the work yourself, for example paging a HTML table using JavaScript, where one just copies and pastes the JavasSript code without as much as trying to understand how it works. I do admit I have done this once or twice before for trivial tasks that had very little time limit and weren't all that important but most of the time still have to throw away what I found because it took too much time to adapt it and get what I wanted out of it. In the last scenario, I sometimes have a piece of code that I would be really unhappy about, as in I find it sloppy or too overcomplicated and try to look on the Internet to see other ways to tackle the same problem, let's say filtering through a table. With the knowledge I acquire I learned new coding practices that help me work more efficiently like "Do not repeat yourself" and such. Now in your opinion when do you find it wrong to use Google (or any other researching tool) to find a solution to your problem?

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  • "Invalid Object Format Name" in Crystal Reports

    - by cmays90
    When working with Crystal Report Field Objects and attempting to set "EnableSuppress" to False or alter the position or width of a field object is generating an "Invalid Object Format Name" error. The debugger shows all my code running without error until attempting to actually load the report. At that point, it will run the first couple without problem, then it fails when messing with a field object, and none of the rest will run. The code is shown below. Everything that generates an error is a FieldObject, but not all fieldObjects generate errors. In the code below, everything in Section2 is a TextObject and everything in Section3 is a FieldObject. If condition = True Then 'Lines marked as runs ok, only run when a line that generates an error is not present before it. Report.Section2.ReportObjects("Text7").Left = 7830 'Runs ok Report.Section3.ReportObjects("Field4").Left = 8085 'Runs ok Report.Section2.ReportObjects("Text13").ObjectFormat.EnableSuppress = False 'Runs ok Report.Section3.ReportObjects("Field28").ObjectFormat.EnableSuppress = False 'error Report.Section2.ReportObjects("Text9").Left = 10830 'Runs ok Report.Section3.ReportObjects("Field23").Left = 10830 'error Report.Section3.ReportObjects("Field23").Width = 615 'error Report.Section2.ReportObjects("Text10").Left = 11445 'Runs ok Report.Section3.ReportObjects("Field25").Left = 11445 'Runs ok End If

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  • ExecuteNonQuery: Connection property has not been initialized

    - by 20151012
    I get an error in my code: The error point at dbcom.ExecuteNonQuery();. Code(connection) public admin_addemp() { InitializeComponent(); con = new OleDbConnection(@"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source=|DataDirectory|\EMPS.accdb;Persist Security Info=True"); con.Open(); ds.Tables.Add(dt); ds.Tables.Add(dt2); } Code (Save button) private void save_btn_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { OleDbCommand check = new OleDbCommand(); check.Connection = con; check.CommandText = "SELECT COUNT(*) FROM employeeDB WHERE ([EmployeeName]=?)"; check.Parameters.AddWithValue("@EmployeeName", tb_name.Text); if (Convert.ToInt32(check.ExecuteScalar()) == 0) { dbcom2 = new OleDbCommand("SELECT EmployeeID FROM employeeDB WHERE EmployeeID='" + tb_id.Text + "'", con); OleDbParameter param = new OleDbParameter(); param.ParameterName = tb_id.Text; dbcom.Parameters.Add(param); OleDbDataReader read = dbcom2.ExecuteReader(); if (read.HasRows) { MessageBox.Show("The Employee ID '" + tb_id.Text + "' already exist. Please choose another Employee ID."); read.Dispose(); read.Close(); } else { string q = "INSERT INTO employeeDB (EmployeeID, EmployeeName, IC, Address, State, " + " Postcode, DateHired, Phone, ManagerName) VALUES ('" + tb_id.Text + "', " + " '" + tb_name.Text + "', '" + tb_ic.Text + "', '" + tb_add1.Text + "', '" + cb_state.Text + "', " + " '" + tb_postcode.Text + "', '" + dateTimePicker1.Value + "', '" + tb_hp.Text + "', '" + cb_manager.Text + "')"; dbcom = new OleDbCommand(q, con); dbcom.ExecuteNonQuery(); MessageBox.Show("New Employee '" + tb_name.Text + "'- Successfuly Added."); } } else { MessageBox.Show("Employee name '" + tb_name.Text + "' already added into the database"); } ds.Dispose(); } I'm using Microsoft Access 2010 as my database and this is stand alone system. Please help me.

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  • Concrete examples of state sharing between multiple viewmodels (WPF MVVM)

    - by JohnMetta
    I have a WPF/Entity Framework (4.0) project with many objects. I'd like to build the application so that that I can have object selection state shared across viewmodels. For Example: We have Cars, Drivers, Passengers, and Cargo classes. We also have UserControls for CarList, DriverList, etc. and editor windows for CarEditor, DriverEditor, etc. Furthermore, we have viewmodels for all of these (CarListViewModel, DriverListViewModel, CargoEditorViewModel, etc). This all composes a dockable interface where the user can have multiple object lists, editors, and viewers open. What I want is a concrete code example of how to wireup multiple viewmodels so that selecting a car in the CarList will cause that car to go live in the CarEditorView, but also be selected in any other view for which the context is valid (such as a DriverByCarView- or just DriverList if there is a filter predicate). There are a number of suggestions and discussions based on this question. The two methods that seem to dominate are: 3018307: Discusses state sharing by mentioning a messaging subsystem 1159035: Discusses state sharing by using an enclosing viewmodel Is one of these approaches better than the other? Does anyone have a concrete example of either/both of these methods in the form of a write-up or small code project? I'm still learning WPF, so pointers to entry points for reading API fundamentals are appreciated, but looking at code examples is where I usually go. Thanks In case anyone is interested, here are some other similar discussions: 3816961: Discusses returning multiple viewmodels depending on object type (i.e. a collection of arbitrary types adhering to a specific interface) 1928130: Discusses whether it is a good idea to aggregate viewmodels as properties of other viewmodels (e.g. a MainWindow viewmodel composed of panel viewmodels) 1120061: Essentially discusses whether to have use a viewmodel-per-model strategy or a viewmodel-per-view-element strategy. 4244222: Discusses whether or not to nest the viewmodels when using a nested object hierarchy. 4429708: Discusses sharing collections between viewmodels directly, but doesn't go into detail. List item: Discusses managing multiple selections within a single viewmodel.

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  • help in selecting a row in a tableview and pushing that row into anotherview? sturgling on this sinc

    - by Madhu
    Hi, I have a list of about 5 items in a tableview which I bought them from a database and now when i am trying to push each of them into different views in DidSelectRow() what I am seeing is it is showing me all the views in all the categories.... here is the code I have written.... Here is the code written in cell for row at indexpath: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } BeautyQuotes *bQuote = (BeautyQuotes*)[mBeautyQ objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.text = bQuote.qBeauty; [cell setAccessoryType:UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator] ; return cell; and in didselectrow() i have written this code: id count1 = [mBeautyQ count]; while (count1--) { object = [mBeautyQ objectAtIndex:count1]; } [mBeautyQ release]; if([[object objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] isEqual : @"Beauty Quotes"]){ [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:NO]; BeautysubViewController *subBeauty = [[BeautysubViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"BeautysubViewController" bundle:nil]; //subBeauty.selected =[regions objectAtIndex:indexPath.row];(this is not working) [subBeauty setTitle:@"Beauty Quotes"]; NSLog(@"it is about push beauty subview controller"); [self.navigationController pushViewController:subBeauty animated:YES]; [subBeauty release]; } in this way i am pusing all the rows in to different views....but when I am pushing this into beautyquotes it is showing me all other views along with this.... struggling on this a lot please help me in dealing with this....

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  • PHP loop hanging/interspersed/threaded through HTML

    - by sandyv
    I can't figure out how to say what I'm talking about which is a big part of why I'm stuck. In PHP I often see code like this html <?php language construct that uses brackets { some code; ?> more html <?php some more code; } ?> rest of html Is there any name for this? Having seen this lead me to try it out so here is a concrete example whose behavior doesn't make sense to me <div id="content"> <ul id="nav"> <?php $path = 'content'; $dir = dir($path); while(false !== ($file = $dir->read())) { if(preg_match('/.+\.txt/i', $file)) { echo "<li>$file</li>"; ?> </ul> <?php echo file_get_contents($path . '/' . $file); } } ?> </div> Which outputs roughly <div><ul><li></li></ul><li></li>...</div> instead of <div><ul><li></li>...</ul></div> which is what I thought would happen and what I want to happen.

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  • Help me make a jquery AJAXed divs' links work like an iframe.

    - by Dave
    I want to make a few divs on the same page work similar to iframes. Each will load a URL which contains links. When you click on those links I want an AJAX request to go out and replace the div's html with new html from the page of the clicked link. It will be very similar to surfing a page inside an iframe. Here is my code to initially load the divs (this code works): onload: $.ajax({ url: "http://www.foo.com/videos.php", cache: false, success: function(html){ $("#HowToVideos").replaceWith(html); } }); $.ajax({ url: "http://www.foo.com/projects.php", cache: false, success: function(html){ $("#HowToProjects").replaceWith(html); } }); This is a sample of code that I'm not quite sure how to implement but explains the concept. Could I get some help with some selectors(surround in ?'s) and or let me know what is the correct way of doing this? I also want to display a loading icon, which I need to know where the right place to place the function is. $(".ajaxarea a").click(function(){ var linksURL = this.href; // var ParentingAjaxArea = $(this).closest(".ajaxarea");; $.ajax({ url: linksURL, cache: false, success: function(html){ $(ParentingAjaxArea).replaceWith(html); } }); return false; }); $(".ajaxarea").ajaxStart(function(){ // show loading icon });

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  • How to validate an array in a PHP form?

    - by SlAcKeR
    I'm fairly new to php and was wondering how do I validate the array for the states and where do I place the php code at? I already did the address part but I'm stuck at the states part. Here is the validation code. if (isset($_POST['contact_info_submitted'])) { // Handle the form. $address = mysqli_real_escape_string(htmlentities($_POST['address'])); } Here is the form code. <li><label for="address-1">Address 1: </label><input type="text" name="address-1" id="address-1" size="25" class="input-size" value="<?php if (isset($_POST['address'])) echo $_POST['address']; ?>" /></li> <li><label for="state-province">State/Province: </label> <?php echo '<select name="state-province" id="state-province">' . "\n"; foreach($state_options as $option) { if ($option == $state) { echo '<option value="' . $option . '" selected="selected">' . $option . '</option>' . "\n"; } else { echo '<option value="'. $option . '">' . $option . '</option>'."\n"; } } echo '</select>'; ?> </li>

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