Search Results

Search found 88909 results on 3557 pages for 'inline code'.

Page 870/3557 | < Previous Page | 866 867 868 869 870 871 872 873 874 875 876 877  | Next Page >

  • VB .Net - Reflection: Reflected Method from a loaded Assembly executes before calling method. Why?

    - by pu.griffin
    When I am loading an Assembly dynamically, then calling a method from it, I appear to be getting the method from Assembly executing before the code in the method that is calling it. It does not appear to be executing in a Serial manner as I would expect. Can anyone shine some light on why this might be happening. Below is some code to illustrate what I am seeing, the code from the some.dll assembly calls a method named PerformLookup. For testing I put a similar MessageBox type output with "PerformLookup Time: " as the text. What I end up seeing is: First: "PerformLookup Time: 40:842" Second: "initIndex Time: 45:873" Imports System Imports System.Data Imports System.IO Imports Microsoft.VisualBasic.Strings Imports System.Reflection Public Class Class1 Public Function initIndex(indexTable as System.Collections.Hashtable) As System.Data.DataSet Dim writeCode As String MessageBox.Show("initIndex Time: " & Date.Now.Second.ToString() & ":" & Date.Now.Millisecond.ToString()) System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(5000) writeCode = RefreshList() End Function Public Function RefreshList() As String Dim asm As System.Reflection.Assembly Dim t As Type() Dim ty As Type Dim m As MethodInfo() Dim mm As MethodInfo Dim retString as String retString = "" Try asm = System.Reflection.Assembly.LoadFrom("C:\Program Files\some.dll") t = asm.GetTypes() ty = asm.GetType(t(28).FullName) 'known class location m = ty.GetMethods() mm = ty.GetMethod("PerformLookup") Dim o as Object o = Activator.CreateInstance(ty) Dim oo as Object() retString = mm.Invoke(o,Nothing).ToString() Catch Ex As Exception End Try return retString End Function End Class

    Read the article

  • calll html button onclick event from asp server side login authenticate event

    - by CraigJSte
    Need to programmatically click an html button from a login event (code behind? the html button sends variables to Flash using method: no response - with no postback and uses ExternalInterface API via javascript. Going from SWF ASPX is great, but need to send User.Identity to SWF from ASPX via javascript after authenticate with login event which am having impossible time getting to work... (calling HTML event from Login button) tried scripting in javascript to login event with no luck, possibly because postback clears SWF variables - so perhaps keeping separate (login then html send) would work... Here is my relevant code: function sendToActionScript(value) { swfobject.getObjectById("Property").sendToActionScript(value); } </script> <object ..// SWF File embedded> </object <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Login id="login1" OnAuthenticate="login1_Authenticate"/> </form> <form id="form" onsubmit="return false;"> <input type="text" name="input" id="input" value="" runat="server" /> <button id="btnInput" runat="server" causesvalidation="false" visible="true" style="width: 51px" onclick="sendToActionScript(this.form.input.value);" >Send</button><br /> </form> // CODE BEHIND protected void Login1_Authenticate(object sender, AuthenticateEventArgs e) { // do something to get User Id and Role //bind the string (user or role) to input.value //then call the HTML button onclick event to send it to SWF file. //which I could put in separate function and call from Login_Authenticate } Can anyone help me I am out of ideas. Craig

    Read the article

  • Which is better Java programming practice for looping up to an int value: a converted for-each loop

    - by Arvanem
    Hi folks, Given the need to loop up to an arbitrary int value, is it better programming practice to convert the value into an array and for-each the array, or just use a traditional for loop? FYI, I am calculating the number of 5 and 6 results ("hits") in multiple throws of 6-sided dice. My arbitrary int value is the dicePool which represents the number of multiple throws. As I understand it, there are two options: Convert the dicePool into an array and for-each the array: public int calcHits(int dicePool) { int[] dp = new int[dicePool]; for (Integer a : dp) { // call throwDice method } } Use a traditional for loop. public int calcHits(int dicePool) { for (int i = 0; i < dicePool; i++) { // call throwDice method } } I apologise for the poor presentation of the code above (for some reason the code button on the Ask Question page is not doing what it should). My view is that option 1 is clumsy code and involves unnecessary creation of an array, even though the for-each loop is more efficient than the traditional for loop in Option 2. Thanks in advance for any suggestions you might have.

    Read the article

  • Creating an Admin directory in Rails

    - by matsko
    I've been developing the CMS backend for a website for a few weeks now. The idea is to craft everything in the backend first so that it can manage the database and information that will be displayed on the main website. As of now, I currently have all my code setup in the normal rails MVC structure. So the users admin is /users and videos is /videos. My plans are to take the code for this and move it to a /admin directory. So the two controllers above would need to be accessed by /admin/users and /admin/videos. I'm not sure how todo the ruote (adding the /admin as a prefix) nor am I sure about how to manage the logic. What I'm thinking of doing is setting up an additional 'middle' controller that somehow gets nested between the ApplicationControler and the targetted controller when the /admin directory is accessed. This way, any additional flags and overloaded methods can be spawned for the /admin section only (I believe I could use a filter too for this). If that were to work, then the next issue would be separating the views logic (but that would just be renaming folders and so on). Either I do it that way or I have two rails instances that share the MVC code between them (and I guess the database too), but I fear that would cause lots of duplication errors. Any ideas as to how I should go about doing this? Many thanks!

    Read the article

  • Creating and using a static lib in xcode

    - by Alasdair Morrison
    I am trying to create a static library in xcode and link to that static library from another program. So as a test i have created a BSD static C library project and just added the following code: //Test.h int testFunction(); //Test.cpp #include "Test.h" int testFunction() { return 12; } This compiles fine and create a .a file (libTest.a). Now i want to use it in another program so I create a new xcode project (cocoa application) Have the following code: //main.cpp #include <iostream> #include "Testlib.h" int main (int argc, char * const argv[]) { // insert code here... std::cout << "Result:\n" <<testFunction(); return 0; } //Testlib.h extern int testFunction(); I right clicked on the project - add - existing framework - add other Selected the .a file and it added it into the project view. I always get this linker error: Build TestUselibrary of project TestUselibrary with configuration Debug Ld build/Debug/TestUselibrary normal x86_64 cd /Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary setenv MACOSX_DEPLOYMENT_TARGET 10.6 /Developer/usr/bin/g++-4.2 -arch x86_64 -isysroot /Developer/SDKs/MacOSX10.6.sdk -L/Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/build/Debug -L/Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/../Test/build/Debug -F/Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/build/Debug -filelist /Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/build/TestUselibrary.build/Debug/TestUselibrary.build/Objects-normal/x86_64/TestUselibrary.LinkFileList -mmacosx-version-min=10.6 -lTest -o /Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/build/Debug/TestUselibrary Undefined symbols: "testFunction()", referenced from: _main in main.o ld: symbol(s) not found collect2: ld returned 1 exit status I am new to macosx development and fairly new to c++. I am probably missing something fairly obvious, all my experience comes from creating dlls on the windows platform. I really appreciate any help.

    Read the article

  • Display a input type=file over another input type=file

    - by Kevin Sedgley
    WARNING: Lengthy description coming up! I have written an uploader based upon APC progress uploader for PHP. This works fine and dandy, but the script as a whole (apc etc) is intended to be used only for those with Javascript. To achieve this, I have searched for any input type=file, and replaced these with an absolutely positioned form that appears over the original area where the old file input area was. The reasons for this are so the new uploader can submit to a hidden in page IFrame has to be in a seperate <form> in order to submit to the APC reciever to display the progress upload bar. allows it to be used within any form with an input type=file throughout the site I have used JQuery to do this, with the following code: Original HTML form code: <div><input type="file" name="media" id="media" /></div> Find position of div block code: // get the parent div, and properties thereof parentDiv = $(this).closest('div'); w = $(parentDiv).width(); h = $(parentDiv).height(); loc = $(parentDiv).offset(); Locate new block over old block: $('#_sender').appendTo('body').css({left:loc.left,top:loc.top,position:'absolute',zIndex:400,height:h,width:w}).show(); This works fine, and shows over the old block OK. The problem: When other elements in the DOM before or above it change (in this case a "tree view" selector is pushing the old block down) the new upload form gets moved over other elements. Is there a JQuery (or JS) method for changing this upon DOM change? Some kind of .onchange for the page?! Or an .onmove for the original block? Thanks in advance you lovely people Before DOM change: . After: .

    Read the article

  • Can't override "From" address in MailMessage class using .config login credentials

    - by Jeff
    I'm updating some existing code that sends a simple email using .Net's SMTP classes. Sample code is below. The SMTP host is google and login info is contained in the App.config as shown below (obviously not real login info :)). The problem I'm having, and I haven't been able to find any answers Googling, is that I can NOT override the display of the "from" email address that's contained in the "username" attribute off the Network element in the config in the delivered email. In the line below that explicitly sets the From property off the myMailMessage object, that value, "[email protected]" does NOT display when the email is received. It still shows as "[email protected]" from the Network tag. However, the From name "Sparky" does appear in the email. I've tried adding a custom "From" header to the Header property of the myMailMessage but that didn't work either. Is there anyway to login to the smtp server, as shown below using the Network tag credentials, but in the actual email received override the From email address that's displayed? Sample code: MailMessage myMailMessage = new MailMessage(); myMailMessage.Subject = "My New Mail"; myMailMessage.Body = "This is my test mail to check"; myMailMessage.From = new MailAddress("[email protected]", "Sparky"); myMailMessage.To.Add(new MailAddress("[email protected]", "receiver name")); SmtpClient mySmtpClient = new SmtpClient(); mySmtpClient.Send(myMailMessage); in App.config: <system.net> <mailSettings> <smtp deliveryMethod="Network" from="[email protected]"> <network host="smtp.gmail.com" port="587" userName="[email protected]" password="mypassword" defaultCredentials="false"/> </smtp> </mailSettings> </system.net>

    Read the article

  • Emailing smtp with Python error

    - by jakecar
    I can't figure out why this isn't working. I'm trying to send an email from my school email address with this code I got online. The same code works for sending from my GMail address. Does anyone know what this error means? The error occurs after waiting for about one and a half minutes. import smtplib FROMADDR = "FROM_EMAIL" LOGIN = "USERNAME" PASSWORD = "PASSWORD" TOADDRS = ["TO_EMAIL"] SUBJECT = "Test" msg = ("From: %s\r\nTo: %s\r\nSubject: %s\r\n\r\n" % (FROMADDR, ", ".join(TOADDRS), SUBJECT) ) msg += "some text\r\n" server = smtplib.SMTP('OUTGOING_SMTP', 587) server.set_debuglevel(1) server.ehlo() server.starttls() server.login(LOGIN, PASSWORD) server.sendmail(FROMADDR, TOADDRS, msg) server.quit() And here's the error I get: Traceback (most recent call last): File "emailer.py", line 13, in server = smtplib.SMTP('OUTGOING_SMTP', 587) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/smtplib.py", line 239, in init (code, msg) = self.connect(host, port) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/smtplib.py", line 295, in connect self.sock = self._get_socket(host, port, self.timeout) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/smtplib.py", line 273, in _get_socket return socket.create_connection((port, host), timeout) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/socket.py", line 514, in create_connection raise error, msg socket.error: [Errno 60] Operation timed out

    Read the article

  • Adding a UIPickerView over a UITabBarController

    - by Kai
    I'm trying to have a UIPickerView slide from the bottom of the screen (over the top of a tab bar) but can't seem to get it to show up. The actual code for the animation is coming from one of Apple's example code projects (DateCell). I'm calling this code from the first view controller (FirstViewController.m) under the tab bar controller. - (IBAction)showModePicker:(id)sender { if (self.modePicker.superview == nil) { [self.view.window addSubview:self.modePicker]; // size up the picker view to our screen and compute the start/end frame origin for our slide up animation // // compute the start frame CGRect screenRect = [[UIScreen mainScreen] applicationFrame]; CGSize pickerSize = [self.modePicker sizeThatFits:CGSizeZero]; CGRect startRect = CGRectMake(0.0, screenRect.origin.y + screenRect.size.height, pickerSize.width, pickerSize.height); self.modePicker.frame = startRect; // compute the end frame CGRect pickerRect = CGRectMake(0.0, screenRect.origin.y + screenRect.size.height - pickerSize.height, pickerSize.width, pickerSize.height); // start the slide up animation [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.3]; // we need to perform some post operations after the animation is complete [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; self.modePicker.frame = pickerRect; // shrink the vertical size to make room for the picker CGRect newFrame = self.view.frame; newFrame.size.height -= self.modePicker.frame.size.height; self.view.frame = newFrame; [UIView commitAnimations]; // add the "Done" button to the nav bar self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = self.doneButton; }} Whenever this action fires via a UIBarButtonItem that lives in a UINavigationBar (which is all under the FirstViewController) nothing happens. Can anyone please offer some advice?

    Read the article

  • What programming hack from your past are you most ashamed of?

    - by LeopardSkinPillBoxHat
    We've all been there (usually when we are young and inexperienced). Fixing it properly is too difficult, too risky or too time-consuming. So you go down the hack path. Which hack from your past are you most ashamed of, and why? I'm talking about the ones where you would be really embarrassed if someone could attribute the hack to you (quite easily if you are using revision control software). One hack per answer please. Mine was shortly after I started in my first job. I was working on a legacy C system, and there was this strange defect where a screen view failed to update properly under certain circumstances. I wasn't familiar with how to use the debugger at this time, so I added traces into the code to figure out what was going on. Then I realised that the defect didn't occur anymore with the traces in the code. I slowly backed out the traces one-by-one, until I realised that only a single trace was required to make the problem go away. My logic now would tell me that I was dealing with some sort of race-condition or timing related issue that the trace just "hid under the rug". But I checked in the code with the following line, and all was well: printf(""); Which hacks are you ashamed of?

    Read the article

  • Using FBML in a ruby sinatra app

    - by Gearóid
    Hi, I'm building an application in ruby using the sinatra framework and am having trouble with rendering some fbml elements. I'm currently trying to render an fb:multi-friend-selector so the user can select which friends they want to invite. However, when I write the following in my code: <fb:fbml> <fb:request-form action="/inviteFriends" method="POST" invite="true" type="MY APP" content="Invite Friends" > <fb:multi-friend-selector showborder="false" actiontext="Invite your friends to use YOUR APP NAME."> </fb:request-form> </fb:fbml> Nothing renders with the text above. I've included the regular facebook xsds for the taglibs in my html tag and have tested fbml on the page using the following code: <fb:name useyou="false" uid="USER_ID" linked="false"/> This code works correctly and displays the user's name. I've tried a simple example like that on http://wiki.developers.facebook.com/index.php/Fb:random but again nothing is rendered in the browser. Do I need to include some special javascript or anything? I would greatly appreciate some help with this. Thanks in advance -gearoid.

    Read the article

  • Is it approproate it use django signals withing the same app

    - by Alex Lebedev
    Trying to add email notification to my app in the cleanest way possible. When certain fields of a model change, app should send a notification to a user. Here's my old solution: from django.contrib.auth import User class MyModel(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey(User) field_a = models.CharField() field_b = models.CharField() def save(self, *args, **kwargs): old = self.__class__.objects.get(pk=self.pk) if self.pk else None super(MyModel, self).save(*args, **kwargs) if old and old.field_b != self.field_b: self.notify("b-changed") # Sevelar more events here # ... def notify(self, event) subj, text = self._prepare_notification(event) send_mail(subj, body, settings.DEFAULT_FROM_EMAIL, [self.user.email], fail_silently=True) This worked fine while I had one or two notification types, but after that just felt wrong to have so much code in my save() method. So, I changed code to signal-based: from django.db.models import signals def remember_old(sender, instance, **kwargs): """pre_save hanlder to save clean copy of original record into `old` attribute """ instance.old = None if instance.pk: try: instance.old = sender.objects.get(pk=instance.pk) except ObjectDoesNotExist: pass def on_mymodel_save(sender, instance, created, **kwargs): old = instance.old if old and old.field_b != instance.field_b: self.notify("b-changed") # Sevelar more events here # ... signals.pre_save.connect(remember_old, sender=MyModel, dispatch_uid="mymodel-remember-old") signals.post_save.connect(on_mymodel_save, sender=MyModel, dispatch_uid="mymodel-on-save") The benefit is that I can separate event handlers into different module, reducing size of models.py and I can enable/disable them individually. The downside is that this solution is more code and signal handlers are separated from model itself and unknowing reader can miss them altogether. So, colleagues, do you think it's worth it?

    Read the article

  • Java 2D Resize

    - by jon077
    I have some old Java 2D code I want to reuse, but was wondering, is this the best way to get the highest quality images? public static BufferedImage getScaled(BufferedImage imgSrc, Dimension dim) { // This code ensures that all the pixels in the image are loaded. Image scaled = imgSrc.getScaledInstance( dim.width, dim.height, Image.SCALE_SMOOTH); // This code ensures that all the pixels in the image are loaded. Image temp = new ImageIcon(scaled).getImage(); // Create the buffered image. BufferedImage bufferedImage = new BufferedImage(temp.getWidth(null), temp.getHeight(null), BufferedImage.TYPE_INT_RGB); // Copy image to buffered image. Graphics g = bufferedImage.createGraphics(); // Clear background and paint the image. g.setColor(Color.white); g.fillRect(0, 0, temp.getWidth(null),temp.getHeight(null)); g.drawImage(temp, 0, 0, null); g.dispose(); // j2d's image scaling quality is rather poor, especially when // scaling down an image to a much smaller size. We'll post filter // our images using a trick found at // http://blogs.cocoondev.org/mpo/archives/003584.html // to increase the perceived quality.... float origArea = imgSrc.getWidth() * imgSrc.getHeight(); float newArea = dim.width * dim.height; if (newArea <= (origArea / 2.)) { bufferedImage = blurImg(bufferedImage); } return bufferedImage; } public static BufferedImage blurImg(BufferedImage src) { // soften factor - increase to increase blur strength float softenFactor = 0.010f; // convolution kernel (blur) float[] softenArray = { 0, softenFactor, 0, softenFactor, 1-(softenFactor*4), softenFactor, 0, softenFactor, 0}; Kernel kernel = new Kernel(3, 3, softenArray); ConvolveOp cOp = new ConvolveOp(kernel, ConvolveOp.EDGE_NO_OP, null); return cOp.filter(src, null); }

    Read the article

  • How to properly logout of facebook

    - by Gublooo
    hey guys This is a repeated question and I have followed both the suggestions provided in these links: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1386557/how-to-log-out-users-using-facebook-connect-in-php-and-zend/1386749#1386749 http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1546277/trouble-logging-out-of-a-facebook-connect-site-and-destroying-sessions The issue is - the code works 90% of the time. Thats the weird part. Out of the 100 times I've logged in and out - I've experienced this problem 5-6 times and 2 of my beta test users have reported the same issue. So when it works- if u click the logout link - u get the facebook popup saying - you being logged out - when it does'nt work - absolutely nothing happens - the page does not refresh - it just sits on that page doing nothing. This is the javascript code that gets called on clicking logout function logout() { FB.Connect.get_status().waitUntilReady(function(status) { switch(status) { case FB.ConnectState.connected: FB.Connect.logoutAndRedirect("http://www.example.com/login/logout"); break; case FB.ConnectState.userNotLoggedIn: window.location = "http://www.example.com/login/logout"; break; } }); return false; } This is the php code: $this-_auth-clearIdentity(); $face = Zend_Registry::get('facebook'); $fb = new Facebook($face['appapikey'], $face['appsecret']); //$fb-clear_cookie_state(); $fb-expire_session(); Anyone experienced such sporadic issues. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Exposing a .Net Service

    - by Dave
    I have written a Windows Service in .Net and I want to expose the classes to be called by other .Net code. Specifically, I have an API that I want to expose via a DLL that will be placed in the GAC, and I want the DLL in the GAC to use the classes of the .Net Windows Service. I need this architecture as the code in the Windows Service needs to be run as a different user/account as the caller of the API (the account would be created at install time). My plan was to expose the Windows Service classes via COM (regasm.exe to register and tlbexp.exe to create the type library), and then call the classes in the GAC DLL via COM (imported via tlbimp.exe). However I get the following error from tlbimp: TlbImp : error TI0000 : System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException - Type library '' was exported from a CLR assembly and cannot be re- imported as a CLR assembly. This implies to me that my method is not going to easily work. I can only think that I might need a C++ DLL as a bridge for my GAC DLL to invoke the COM calls, but this seems like a nasty solution. I am basically looking for suggestions. Does anyone know how to expose classes of a Windows Service written in .Net to other .Net code?

    Read the article

  • Android:Playing bigger size audio wav sound file produces crash

    - by user187532
    Hi Android experts, I am trying to play the bigger size audio wav file(which is 20 mb) using the following code(AudioTrack) on my Android 1.6 HTC device which basically has less memory. But i found device crash as soon as it executes reading, writing and play. But the same code works fine and plays the lesser size audio wav files(10kb, 20 kb files etc) very well. P.S: I should play PCM(.wav) buffer sound, the reason behind why i use AudioTrack here. Though my device has lesser memory, how would i read bigger audio files bytes by bytes and play the sound to avoid crashing due to memory constraints. private void AudioTrackPlayPCM() throws IOException { String filePath = "/sdcard/myWav.wav"; // 8 kb file byte[] byteData = null; File file = null; file = new File(filePath); byteData = new byte[(int) file.length()]; FileInputStream in = null; try { in = new FileInputStream( file ); in.read( byteData ); in.close(); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } int intSize = android.media.AudioTrack.getMinBufferSize(8000, AudioFormat.CHANNEL_CONFIGURATION_MONO, AudioFormat.ENCODING_PCM_8BIT); AudioTrack at = new AudioTrack(AudioManager.STREAM_MUSIC, 8000, AudioFormat.CHANNEL_CONFIGURATION_MONO, AudioFormat.ENCODING_PCM_8BIT, intSize, AudioTrack.MODE_STREAM); at.play(); at.write(byteData, 0, byteData.length); at.stop(); at.release(); } Could someone guide me please to play the AudioTrack code for bigger size wav files?

    Read the article

  • Is 1/0 a legal Java expression?

    - by polygenelubricants
    The following compiles fine in my Eclipse: final int j = 1/0; // compiles fine!!! // throws ArithmeticException: / by zero at run-time Java prevents many "dumb code" from even compiling in the first place (e.g. "Five" instanceof Number doesn't compile!), so the fact this didn't even generate as much as a warning was very surprising to me. The intrigue deepens when you consider the fact that constant expressions are allowed to be optimized at compile time: public class Div0 { public static void main(String[] args) { final int i = 2+3; final int j = 1/0; final int k = 9/2; } } Compiled in Eclipse, the above snippet generates the following bytecode (javap -c Div0) Compiled from "Div0.java" public class Div0 extends java.lang.Object{ public Div0(); Code: 0: aload_0 1: invokespecial #8; //Method java/lang/Object."<init>":()V 4: return public static void main(java.lang.String[]); Code: 0: iconst_5 1: istore_1 // "i = 5;" 2: iconst_1 3: iconst_0 4: idiv 5: istore_2 // "j = 1/0;" 6: iconst_4 7: istore_3 // "k = 4;" 8: return } As you can see, the i and k assignments are optimized as compile-time constants, but the division by 0 (which must've been detectable at compile-time) is simply compiled as is. javac 1.6.0_17 behaves even more strangely, compiling silently but excising the assignments to i and k completely out of the bytecode (probably because it determined that they're not used anywhere) but leaving the 1/0 intact (since removing it would cause an entirely different program semantics). So the questions are: Is 1/0 actually a legal Java expression that should compile anytime anywhere? What does JLS say about it? If this is legal, is there a good reason for it? What good could this possibly serve?

    Read the article

  • Is it valid to use unsafe struct * as an opaque type instead of IntPtr in .NET Platform Invoke?

    - by David Jeske
    .NET Platform Invoke advocates declaring pointer types as IntPtr. For example, the following [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern IntPtr SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, UInt32 Msg, Int32 wParam, Int32 lParam); However, I find when interfacing with interesting native interfaces, that have many pointer types, flattening everything into IntPtr makes the code very hard to read and removes the typical typechecking that a compiler can do. I've been using a pattern where I declare an unsafe struct to be an opaque pointer type. I can store this pointer type in a managed object, and the compiler can typecheck it form me. For example: class Foo { unsafe struct FOO {}; // opaque type unsafe FOO *my_foo; class if { [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe FOO* get_foo(); [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe void do_something_foo(FOO *foo); } public unsafe Foo() { this.my_foo = if.get_foo(); } public unsafe do_something_foo() { if.do_something_foo(this.my_foo); } While this example may not seem different than using IntPtr, when there are several pointer types moving between managed and native code, using these opaque pointer types for typechecking is a godsend. I have not run into any trouble using this technique in practice. However, I also have not seen an examples of anyone using this technique, and I wonder why. Is there any reason that the above code is invalid in the eyes of the .NET runtime? My main question is about how the .NET GC system treats "unsafe FOO *my_foo". Is this pointer something the GC system is going to try to trace, or is it simply going to ignore it? My hope is that because the underlying type is a struct, and it's declared unsafe, that the GC would ignore it. However, I don't know for sure. Thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Magento failure.phtml, get the order total

    - by Kieran
    Hello. One of the projects I work on has the failure page and success page in magento as exactly the same and requires some tracking code on both. The tracking code requires the order ID and the amount being ordered. The issue I'm having is trying to get the order total on the failure page. The methods built into the block class Mage_Checkout_Block_Onepage_Failure are getRealOrderId(), getErrorMessage() and getContinueShoppingUrl(), so no help there. I found some code to do what I want on the success page but it doesn't work for the failure page. <?php $orderId = $this->getRealOrderId(); $order = Mage::getSingleton('sales/order'); $order->load($orderId); $_totalData = $order->getData(); $_grand = $_totalData['grand_total']; ?> I dumped $order and $_totalData. $_totalData just an empty array and $order an empty Mage_Sales_Model_Order instance. Does anyone have any suggestions for where to get the grand total of what is being purchased? Regards, Kieran (I'm also having issues testing the success page as I can't get to it, even putting in the correct test card details on the dev server - but I'll find a way around this)

    Read the article

  • Background worker not working right

    - by vbNewbie
    I have created a background worker to go and run a pretty long task that includes creating more threads which will read from a file of urls and crawl each. I tried following it through debugging and found that the background process ends prematurely for no apparent reason. Is there something wrong in the logic of my code that is causing this. I will try and paste as much as possible to make sense. While Not myreader.EndOfData Try currentRow = myreader.ReadFields() Dim currentField As String For Each currentField In currentRow itemCount = itemCount + 1 searchItem = currentField generateSearchFromFile(currentField) processQuerySearch() Next Catch ex As Microsoft.VisualBasic.FileIO.MalformedLineException Console.WriteLine(ex.Message.ToString) End Try End While This first bit of code is the loop to input from file and this is what the background worker does. The next bit of code is where the background worker creates threads to work all the 'landingPages'. After about 10 threads are created the background worker exits this sub and skips the file input loop and exits the program. Try For Each landingPage As String In landingPages pgbar.Timer1.Stop() If VisitedPages.Contains(landingPage) Then Continue For Else Dim thread = New Thread(AddressOf processQuery) count = count + 1 thread.Name = "Worm" & count thread.Start(landingPage) If numThread >= 10 Then For Each thread In ThreadList thread.Join() Next numThread = 0 Continue For Else numThread = numThread + 1 SyncLock ThreadList ThreadList.Add(thread) End SyncLock End If End If Next

    Read the article

  • strategy for choosing proper object and proper method

    - by zerkms
    in the code below at first if statements block (there will be more than just "worker" condition, joined with else if) i select proper filter_object. After this in the same conditional block i select what filter should be applied by filter object. This code is silly. public class Filter { public static List<data.Issue> fetch(string type, string filter) { Filter_Base filter_object = new Filter_Base(filter); if (type == "worker") { filter_object = new Filter_Worker(filter); } else if (type == "dispatcher") { filter_object = new Filter_Dispatcher(filter); } List<data.Issue> result = new List<data.Issue>(); if (filter == "new") { result = filter_object.new_issues(); } else if (filter == "ended") { result = filter_object.ended_issues(); } return result; } } public class Filter_Base { protected string _filter; public Filter_Base(string filter) { _filter = filter; } public virtual List<data.Issue> new_issues() { return new List<data.Issue>(); } public virtual List<data.Issue> ended_issues() { return new List<data.Issue>(); } } public class Filter_Worker : Filter_Base { public Filter_Worker(string filter) : base(filter) { } public override List<data.Issue> new_issues() { return (from i in data.db.GetInstance().Issues where (new int[] { 4, 5 }).Contains(i.RequestStatusId) select i).Take(10).ToList(); } } public class Filter_Dispatcher : Filter_Base { public Filter_Dispatcher(string filter) : base(filter) { } } it will be used in some kind of: Filter.fetch("worker", "new"); this code means, that for user that belongs to role "worker" only "new" issues will be fetched (this is some kind of small and simple CRM). Or another: Filter.fetch("dispatcher", "ended"); // here we get finished issues for dispatcher role Any proposals on how to improve it?

    Read the article

  • Is there an event that raises after a View/PartialView executes in ASP.NET MVC 2 RC2?

    - by sabanito
    I have the following problem: We have an ASP.NET MVC 2 RC 2 application that programmatically impersonates an AD Account that the user specifies at logon. This account is used to access the DB. At first we had the impersonating code in the begin_request and we were undoing the impersonation at the end_request, but when we tried to use IIS 7.5 in integrated mode, we learned that it's not possible to impersonate in the Global.asax so we tried different things. We have succesfully moved our code from the BeginRequest to the ActionExecuting event and the EndRequest to the ResultExecuted, and now, about 80% of our code works. We've just discovered that since we're passing the Entity Framework objects as models for our views, there's this remaining 20% that won't work because some Navigation Properties are not loaded when the view begins it's execution, so we're getting connection exceptions from Sql Server. Is there any event or method that executes AFTER the view, so we can undo the impersonation in it? We thought ResultExecuted will do just that, but it doesn't. We've been told that passing the plain Entities into the view as models is not a good idea, but we have A LOT of views that may have this problem and there's not automated way to know it. If some of you could explain why it's not a good idea, maybe we can convince the team to fix it!

    Read the article

  • How to use sessions in PDO?

    - by Byakugan
    I am still redoing and getting rid of old mysql_* commands in my code. I tried to transfer my session login form old code and this is what I got so far: public function login($user, $password) { if (!empty($user) && !empty($password)) { $password = $web->doHash($user, $password); // in this function is (return sha1(strtoupper($user).':'.strtoupper($password)) $stmt = $db_login->prepare("SELECT * FROM account WHERE username=:user AND pass_hash=:password"); $stmt->bindValue(':user', $user, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->bindValue(':password', $password, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->execute(); $rows = $stmt->rowCount(); if ($rows > 0) { $results_login = $stmt->fetch(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC); $_SESSION['user_name'] = $results_login['username']; $_SESSION['user_id'] = $results_login['id']; return true; } else { return false; } } else { return false; } } After that I am using checks if user logged on site: public function isLogged() { return (!empty($_SESSION['user_id']) && !empty($_SESSION['user_name'])); } But it seems - this function returns always empty because $_SESSION does not exists in PDO? And of course logout is used in this form on my sites: public function logout() { unset($_SESSION['user_id']); unset($_SESSION['user_name']); } But I think PDO has different way of handling session? I did not find any so what is it can i somehow add $_SESSION in PDO withou changing code much? I am using variables $_SESSION['user_name'] and $_SESSION['user_id'] in all over my web project. Summary: 1) How to use sessions in PDO correctly? 2) What is difference between using $stmt->fetch(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC); and $stmt->fetchAll(); Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Problems using Maven to initialize a local thoughtsite (App Engine sample) project in Eclipse

    - by ovr
    This sample app ("thoughtsite") for App Engine contains a pom.xml in its trunk: http://code.google.com/p/thoughtsite/source/browse/#svn/trunk I ran mvn eclipse:eclipse and also tried using m2eclipse to import this source code into an Eclipse project. But I end up with this error despite the fact that I have the Google App Engine plugin and the Google App Engine SDK installed: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.ExceptionInInitializerError at com.google.appengine.tools.info.SdkImplInfo.<clinit>(SdkImplInfo.java:19) at com.google.appengine.tools.util.Logging.initializeLogging(Logging.java:36) at com.google.appengine.tools.development.DevAppServerMain.main(DevAppServerMain.java:82) Caused by: java.lang.RuntimeException: Unable to discover the Google App Engine SDK root. This code should be loaded from the SDK directory, but was instead loaded from file:~/.m2/repository/com/google/appengine/appengine-tools-sdk/1.3.0/appengine-tools-sdk-1.3.0.jar. Specify -Dappengine.sdk.root to override the SDK location. at com.google.appengine.tools.info.SdkInfo.findSdkRoot(SdkInfo.java:106) at com.google.appengine.tools.info.SdkInfo.<clinit>(SdkInfo.java:24) ... 3 more When I go into the project settings under "Google" and try to set it to use the default App Engine SDK it always reverts to trying to use Maven's App Engine SDK instead. No idea how to get this project working.

    Read the article

  • Showing image in place of flash to iphones and ipads

    - by poindexter
    I want to detect user-agent on load and if the visitor is viewing on an iPhone or iPad I want to display this code: <?php get_header(); ?> <div class="flash"> <img src="/wp-content/themes/iq-iphone/main-page-image.png"/> </div> If it's a regular visitor I want to display this code: <?php get_header(); ?> <div class="flash"> <script type="text/javascript"> AC_FL_RunContent( 'codebase','http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=7,0,19,0','width','924','height','316','src','<?php bloginfo('template_directory');?>/images/featurePanel','quality','high','pluginspage','http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer','movie','<?php bloginfo('template_directory');?>/images/featurePanel','wmode','transparent' ); //end AC code </script> <noscript> <object classid="clsid:D27CDB6E-AE6D-11cf-96B8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=7,0,19,0" width="924" height="316"> <param name="movie" value="<?php bloginfo('template_directory');?>/images/featurePanel.swf" /> <param name="quality" value="high" /> <param name="wmode" value="transparent" /> <embed src="<?php bloginfo('template_directory');?>/images/featurePanel.swf" quality="high" pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" width="924" height="316"></embed> </object> </noscript> </div> Any ideas? Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 866 867 868 869 870 871 872 873 874 875 876 877  | Next Page >