Search Results

Search found 88909 results on 3557 pages for 'inline code'.

Page 873/3557 | < Previous Page | 869 870 871 872 873 874 875 876 877 878 879 880  | Next Page >

  • ASP MVC.Net 3 RC2 bug ?

    - by Jarek Waliszko
    Hello, so far I've been using ASP.Net 3 BETA. Everything was working fine till the update to RC2 version. Of course I've read ScottGu's article about RC2. My problem is following. Basically I have 2 controllers: public class DynamicPageController : Controller { public ActionResult Redirect(string resource, int? pageNumber, int? id) { } } public class SystemController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { } } In the Globals.asax I have routes like this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.MapRoute( "SystemRoute", "System/{action}", new { controller = "System", action = "Index" } ); routes.MapRoute( "PageRoute", "{resource}/{id}/{pageNumber}", new { controller = "DynamicPage", action = "Redirect", resource = UrlParameter.Optional, pageNumber = UrlParameter.Optional, id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); } In the code, I have simple link creation: System.Web.Mvc.UrlHelper u = new System.Web.Mvc.UrlHelper(context); string url = u.Action("Index", "System"); and the url is "/my_app/System" in both versions (BETA and RC2) But the code below (the syntax is the same as above, only controller and action names are different): string url = u.Action("Redirect", "DynamicPage", new RouteValueDictionary(new { resource = "Home" })); gives url which is null in RC2. It should be (and in fact in BETA was) "/my_app/Home" Why ? Is it a bug ? How can I create url for my "DynamicPage" controller ? Regards BTW: From where can I now download ASP.Mvc BETA version along with ASP.Net Web Pages 1.0 installers ? Since RC2 announcement I have problems finding mentioned 2 installers. Normally I would upgrade my code but this issue described above makes me stay with BETA for a while, since I have no time for migration and testing everything now.

    Read the article

  • Translating CURL to FLEX HTTPRequests

    - by Joshua
    I am trying to convert from some CURL code to FLEX/ActionScript. Since I am 100% ignorant about CURL and 50% ignorant about Flex and 90% ignorant on HTTP in general... I'm having some significant difficulty. The following CURL code is from http://code.google.com/p/ga-api-http-samples/source/browse/trunk/src/v2/accountFeed.sh I have every reason to believe that it's working correctly. USER_EMAIL="[email protected]" #Insert your Google Account email here USER_PASS="secretpass" #Insert your password here googleAuth="$(curl https://www.google.com/accounts/ClientLogin -s \ -d Email=$USER_EMAIL \ -d Passwd=$USER_PASS \ -d accountType=GOOGLE \ -d source=curl-accountFeed-v2 \ -d service=analytics \ | awk /Auth=.*/)" feedUri="https://www.google.com/analytics/feeds/accounts/default\ ?prettyprint=true" curl $feedUri --silent \ --header "Authorization: GoogleLogin $googleAuth" \ --header "GData-Version: 2" The following is my abortive attempt to translate the above CURL to AS3 var request:URLRequest=new URLRequest("https://www.google.com/analytics/feeds/accounts/default"); request.method=URLRequestMethod.POST; var GoogleAuth:String="$(curl https://www.google.com/accounts/ClientLogin -s " + "-d [email protected] " + "-d Passwd=secretpass " + "-d accountType=GOOGLE " + "-d source=curl-accountFeed-v2" + "-d service=analytics " + "| awk /Auth=.*/)"; request.requestHeaders.push(new URLRequestHeader("Authorization", "GoogleLogin " + GoogleAuth)); request.requestHeaders.push(new URLRequestHeader("GData-Version", "2")); var loader:URLLoader=new URLLoader(); loader.dataFormat=URLLoaderDataFormat.BINARY; loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, GACompleteHandler); loader.addEventListener(IOErrorEvent.IO_ERROR, GAErrorHandler); loader.addEventListener(SecurityErrorEvent.SECURITY_ERROR, GAErrorHandler); loader.load(request); This probably provides you all with a good laugh, and that's okay, but if you can find any pity on me, please let me know what I'm missing. I readily admit functional ineptitude, therefore letting me know how stupid I am is optional.

    Read the article

  • AJAX problem-onreadystate does not work

    - by blackmage
    I am having a problem where my AJAX code does not get past the onreadtstate. The if( XMLHttpRequestObject) works fine, but the other part does not. The code is below: enter code here function getXmlHttpRequestObject() { if (window.XMLHttpRequest && !(window.ActiveXObject)) { XMLHttpRequestObject= new XMLHttpRequest(); return XMLHttpRequestObject; } else if (window.ActiveXObject) { try{ XMLHttpRequestObject=new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); return XMLHttpRequestObject; }catch(exception1){ try{ XMLHttpRequestObject= new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); return XMLHttpRequestObject; }catch(exception2){ }//end exception 2 }//end exception 1 }//end if else else{ document.getElementById('ajax_status').innerHTML='Status: Cound not create XmlHttpRequest Object.' + 'Consider upgrading your browser.'; } }//end function getXmlHttpRequestObject() { function loadJavascript( src, url ){ XMLHttpRequestObject=getXmlHttpRequestObject(); if( XMLHttpRequestObject){ //an alert will work here XMLHttpRequestObject.onreadystatechange = function() { alert("Here"); //Nothing at this pint works if (XMLHttpRequestObject.readyState == 4 && XMLHttpRequestObject.status == 200) { includeJavaScript( sId, url, oXmlHttp.responseText ); } } } }//end LoadJavaScript Does anyone have an idea of what can be going wrong?

    Read the article

  • Configuring Displays for Different Mobile Devices

    - by Mike
    Does anyone know a way to have specific CSS style sheets based on the type of Mobile Device? I have been researching it a few days now and haven't found anything except this snippet of code for iPhones. <link media="only screen and (max-device-width: 480px)" href="iPhone.css" type="text/css" rel="stylesheet" /> This works great for iPhones, but on all other mobile devices (android, blackberry, Nokia), it's still displaying the same as my site. I tried: <link media="handheld" href="iPhone.css" type="text/css" rel="stylesheet" /> but that didn't seem to have any effect on the other mobile devices. So I'm not sure how to reach the blackberry's/androids/nokia's without effect the code of my actual site. I'm building my site using the PHP framework CodeIgniter and I looked into this code which is suppose to be able to tell if it is being looked at through a mobile device or browser. if ($this->agent->is_browser()) { $agent = $this->agent->browser().' '.$this->agent->version(); } elseif ($this->agent->is_mobile()) { $agent = $this->agent->mobile(); } else { $agent = 'Unidentified User Agent'; } The only problem is that the newer phones we are building on render the site as a browser and not as a mobile (I think, I've only tested the iphone because it's all I have at the moment). So does anyone have any work arounds for the other phone platforms?

    Read the article

  • Help with my PHP template class

    - by blerh
    I want to separate the output of HTML from my program code in my projects, so I wrote a very simple database class. <?php class Template { private $template; function load($filePath) { if(!$this->template = file_get_contents($filePath)) $this->error('Error: Failed to open <strong>' . $filePath . '</strong>'); } function replace($var, $content) { $this->template = str_replace("{$var}", $content, $this->template); } function display() { echo $this->template; } function error($errorMessage) { die('die() by template class: <strong>' . $errorMessage . '</strong>'); } } ?> The thing I need help with is the display() method. Say for example I use this code: $tplObj = new Template(); $tplObj->load('index.php'); $tplObj->replace('{TITLE}', 'Homepage'); $tplObj->display(); And the index.php file is this: <html> <head> <title>{TITLE}</title> </head> <body> <h1>{TITLE}</h1> <?php if($something) { echo '$something is true'; } else { echo '$something is false'; } ?> </body> </html> I'm just wondering if the PHP code in there would be run? Or would it just be sent to the browser as plaintext? I was using eval() in my template class but I hate that function :P Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Masspay and MySql

    - by Mike
    Hi, I am testing Paypal's masspay using their 'MassPay NVP example' and I having difficulty trying to amend the code so inputs data from my MySql database. Basically I have user table in MySql which contains email address, status of payment (paid,unpaid) and balance. CREATE TABLE `users` ( `user_id` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL auto_increment, `email` varchar(100) collate latin1_general_ci NOT NULL, `status` enum('unpaid','paid') collate latin1_general_ci NOT NULL default 'unpaid', `balance` int(10) NOT NULL default '0', PRIMARY KEY (`user_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM AUTO_INCREMENT=6 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 COLLATE=latin1_general_ci Data : 1 [email protected] paid 100 2 [email protected] unpaid 11 3 [email protected] unpaid 20 4 [email protected] unpaid 1 5 [email protected] unpaid 20 6 [email protected] unpaid 15 I then have created a query which selects users with an unpaid balance of $10 and above : $conn = db_connect(); $query=$conn->query("SELECT * from users WHERE balance >='10' AND status = ('unpaid')"); What I would like to is for each record returned from the query for it to populate the code below: Now the code which I believe I need to amend is as follows: for($i = 0; $i < 3; $i++) { $receiverData = array( 'receiverEmail' => "[email protected]", 'amount' => "example_amount",); $receiversArray[$i] = $receiverData; } However I just can't get it to work, I have tried using mysqli_fetch_array and then replaced "[email protected]" with $row['email'] and "example_amount" with row['balance'] in various methods of coding but it doesn't work. Also I need it to loop to however many rows that were retrieved from the query as <3 in the for loop above. So the end result I am looking for is for the $nvpStr string to pass with something like this: $nvpStr = "&EMAILSUBJECT=test&RECEIVERTYPE=EmailAddress&CURRENCYCODE=USD&[email protected]&L_Amt=11&[email protected]&L_Amt=11&[email protected]&L_Amt=20&[email protected]&L_Amt=20&[email protected]&L_Amt=15"; Thanks

    Read the article

  • Checkbox does not change when clicked directly on it

    - by Matt McCormick
    I have a table of data and have one checkbox per row for the user to select the item. I'm using the following jQuery code to allow the user to select the item by clicking anywhere in the row: $("tbody tr").click(function() { var checkbox = $(this).find(':checkbox'); checkbox.attr('checked', !checkbox.attr('checked')); }); The problem is if I click directly on the checkbox, nothing happens. ie. if the checkbox is not checked, it remains unchecked. If I click anywhere else in the row, the checkbox changes status. I'm thinking that the jQuery code is causing the action to be performed twice. If I click on the checkbox, the checkbox will change but then the jQuery code for clicking on the row will be performed and the checkbox will be changed back. Not sure if that is actually happening but that is my guess. How can I get a checkbox to be toggled when a user clicks on a row and the same thing if they click directly on the checkbox?

    Read the article

  • PySide Qt script doesn't launch from Spyder but works from shell

    - by Maxim Zaslavsky
    I have a weird bug in my project that uses PySide for its Qt GUI, and in response I'm trying to test with simpler code that sets up the environment. Here is the code I am testing with: http://stackoverflow.com/a/6906552/130164 When I launch that from my shell (python test.py), it works perfectly. However, when I run that script in Spyder, I get the following error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "/home/test/Desktop/test/test.py", line 31, in <module> app = QtGui.QApplication(sys.argv) RuntimeError: A QApplication instance already exists. If it helps, I also get the following warning: /usr/lib/pymodules/python2.6/matplotlib/__init__.py:835: UserWarning: This call to matplotlib.use() has no effect because the the backend has already been chosen; matplotlib.use() must be called *before* pylab, matplotlib.pyplot, or matplotlib.backends is imported for the first time. Why does that code work when launched from my shell but not from Spyder? Update: Mata answered that the problem happens because Spyder uses Qt, which makes sense. For now, I've set up execution in Spyder using the "Execute in an external system terminal" option, which doesn't cause errors but doesn't allow debugging, either. Does Spyder have any built-in workarounds to this?

    Read the article

  • Storing User Information in Session with aspNetMembershipProvider

    - by Muhammad Adeel Zahid
    Hi Everyone, i m developing an application in .NET mvc2. i m using aspnetMembershipProvider for User registration and related activities. i need some custom information about user that i stored in a separate table (sysUser for example) and linked it to aspnetUser table through foreign key. after Login i need to fetch user's credentials from sysUser table and push it to the session. For this Account controller's Logon method seemed best to me and i pasted following code in my Logon ActionResult if (!ValidateLogOn(userName, password)) { return View(); } FormsAuth.SignIn(userName, rememberMe); ApplicationRepository _ApplicationRepository = new ApplicationRepository(); MembershipUser aspUser = Membership.GetUser(userName); SessionUser CurrentUser = _ApplicationRepository.GetUserCredentials(aspUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString()); //Session["CurrentUser"] = CurrentUser; if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(returnUrl)) { return Redirect(returnUrl); } else { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } The code is working perfectly for me and put my desired information in the session but the thing is that if a user selects Remember me and on his next visit he won't have to Log in and i would not find my desired information in the Session. Can anyone guide me where should i put my code that stores the user information in the session. any Help is Highly appreciated Regards Adeel

    Read the article

  • Problem in encoding and decoding the string in Iphone sdk

    - by monish
    HI Guys, Here I am having a problem In encoding/decoding the strings. Actually I had a string which I am encoding it using the base64.which was working fine. And now I need to decode the string that was encoded before and want to print it. I code I written as: I imported the base64.h and base64.m files into my application which contains the methods as: + (NSData *) dataWithBase64EncodedString:(NSString *) string; - (id) initWithBase64EncodedString:(NSString *) string; - (NSString *) base64EncodingWithLineLength:(unsigned int) lineLength; And the code in my view controller where I encode the String is: - (id)init { if (self = [super init]) { // Custom initialization userName = @"Sekhar"; password = @"Bethalam"; } return self; } -(void)reloadView { NSString *authStr = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@:%@",userName,password]; NSData *authData = [authStr dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]; NSString *authValue = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", [authData base64EncodingWithLineLength:30]]; NSLog(authValue); //const char *str = authValue; //NSString *decStr = [StringEncryption DecryptString:authValue]; //NSLog(decStr); //NSData *decodeData = [NSData decode:authValue]; //NSString *decStr = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",decodeData]; //NSStr //NSLog(decStr); } -(void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { [self reloadView]; } and now I want to decode the String that I encoded. But I dont know How to do that.can anyone suggest me with code how to get it. Anyone's help will be much appreciated. Thank you, Monish.

    Read the article

  • send email C# using smtp server with username password authentification

    - by KK
    I have a piece of code that sends email.. heres the code This is not working for me. This a remote smtp service ... and i double checked that email web access works fine .. i can login using the gui, recieve and send emails. But when i try to do it through code .. it fails with the message ... {System.Net.Mail.SmtpException: The SMTP server requires a secure connection or the client was not authenticated. The server response was: 5.7.0 No AUTH command has been given. Can anybody advise ... and also they dont have EWS exposed ie.e exchange web service ./.. this is the way to go .. port is 25 and no SSL or TLS Button b = sender as Button; try { MailMessage msg = new MailMessage(senderEmail, recieverEmail, "afdasfas", "safasfa"); //MailMessage msg = new MailMessage(senderEmail, recieverEmail, subject, subject); System.Net.Mail.SmtpClient mailclient = new System.Net.Mail.SmtpClient(EmailSmtpServer, outgoingPort); System.Net.NetworkCredential auth = new System.Net.NetworkCredential(senderEmail, senderPassword); mailclient.Host = EmailSmtpServer; mailclient.UseDefaultCredentials = false; mailclient.Credentials = auth; mailclient.Send(msg); MessageBox.Show(b.Content + ":WORKED"); } catch (Exception e4) { MessageBox.Show(b.Content + ": " +e4.Message); MessageBox.Show(b.Content + ": " + e4.StackTrace); }

    Read the article

  • aspnet_compiler -fixednames does not work?

    - by Terrence
    I am unable to get the -fixednames switch to create dlls for the cs code behind files. The files in the bin folder are compiled aspx pages, but the code behind files are all compiled into one large websitename.dll file. Here is my command with switches. aspnet_compiler -v / -p E:\Source\DotNet4\mysolution\website -f -d -fixednames E:\Source\DotNet4\CompiledWebSite This produces many files in the bin folder. website.dll and website.pdb (contains code behind) myform1.aspx.643c7876.dll (compiled aspx layout ui) I have tested this over and over to make sure I am not missing anything. The test is place a label on myform1.aspx, and in the codebehind populate the label with some text. Compile the website with the above switches and deploy the website. Make a change to the myform1 codebehind and change the label text. Compile and only deploy the myform1.aspx.643c7876.dll to the website. Result: label is still the same. Now deploy the website.dll and pdb and the label changes. Can anyone tell me how to get -fixednames to create sinle dlls for codebehind?

    Read the article

  • jquery question for events

    - by OM The Eternity
    I have to copy the text from one text box to another using checkbox through jquery I have applied jquery event in my code, it works partially correct.. code is as follows: <html> <head> <script src="js/jquery.js" ></script> </head> <body> <form> <input type="text" name="startdate" id="startdate" value=""/> <input type="text" name="enddate" id="enddate" value=""/> <input type="checkbox" name="checker" id="checker" /> </form> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#startdate").change(function(o){ if($("#checker").is(":checked")){ $("#enddate").val($("#startdate").val()); } }); }); </script> </body> </html> this code works as follows, I always have checkbox checked by default hence whenever i insert the start date and then tab, the start date gets copied to enddate. My Problem but now if uncheck the checkbox and change the start date and then recheck the check box, the start date is not copied, Now what should be done in this situation.. please help me....

    Read the article

  • Zend_Validate_Abstract custom validator not displaying correct error messages.

    - by Jeremy Dowell
    I have two text fields in a form that I need to make sure neither have empty values nor contain the same string. The custom validator that I wrote extends Zend_Validate_Abstract and works correctly in that it passes back the correct error messages. In this case either: isEmpty or isMatch. However, the documentation says to use addErrorMessages to define the correct error messages to be displayed. in this case, i have attached ->addErrorMessages(array("isEmpty"=>"foo", "isMatch"=>"bar")); to the form field. According to everything I've read, if I return "isEmpty" from isValid(), my error message should read "foo" and if i return "isMatch" then it should read "bar". This is not the case I'm running into though. If I return false from is valid, no matter what i set $this-_error() to be, my error message displays "foo", or whatever I have at index[0] of the error messages array. If I don't define errorMessages, then I just get the error code I passed back for the display and I get the proper one, depending on what I passed back. How do I catch the error code and display the correct error message in my form? The fix I have implemented, until I figure it out properly, is to pass back the full message as the errorcode from the custom validator. This will work in this instance, but the error message is specific to this page and doesn't really allow for re-use of code. Things I have already tried: I have already tried validator chaining so that my custom validator only checks for matches: ->setRequired("true") ->addValidator("NotEmpty") ->addErrorMessage("URL May Not Be Empty") ->addValidator([*customValidator]*) ->addErrorMessage("X and Y urls may not be the same") But again, if either throws an error, the last error message to be set displays, regardless of what the error truly is. I'm not entirely sure where to go from here. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Javascript not showing up on Facebook Application's Profile Tab

    - by prateekdayal
    Hi, This may sound very noobish but I have tried to read the forum posts and docs on javascript behavior on Facebook's profile tabs. I understand that profile tabs don't support referencing external javascript but even my inline tags are not showing up on profile pages. In fact I am trying the fbjs-swf bridge and the code needed to instantiate the swf does not show up on the page <fb:fbjs_bridge/> <div id="swfContainer"></div> <script> var swf = document.createElement('fb:swf'); swf.setId('my_swf_id'); swf.setWidth('630'); swf.setHeight('520'); swf.setSWFSrc('http://www.muziboo.com/swf/player4-2.swf'); document.getElementById('swfContainer').appendChild(swf); document.getElementById('my_swf_id').callSWF('asMethod', 'one', 'two'); </script> I see a swf embedded (the one for the fbjs bridge) but I don't see any script tag containing the above javascript code. What am I missing? I can see the javascript code on canvas page though Thanks

    Read the article

  • Ext JS 4: Show all columns in Ext.grid.Panel as custom option

    - by MacGyver
    Is there a function that can be called on an Ext.grid.Panel in ExtJS that will make all columns visible, if some of them are hidden by default? Whenever an end-user needs to show the hidden columns, they need to click each column. Below, I have some code to add a custom menu option when you select a field header. I'd like to execute this function so all columns show. As an example below, I have 'Project ID' and 'User Created' hidden by default. By choosing 'Select All Columns' would turn those columns on, so they show in the list view. listeners: { ... }, afterrender: function() { var menu = this.headerCt.getMenu(); menu.add([{ text: 'Select All Columns', handler: function() { var columnDataIndex = menu.activeHeader.dataIndex; alert('custom item for column "'+columnDataIndex+'" was pressed'); } }]); } } }); =========================== Answer (with code): Here's what I decided to do based on Eric's code below, since hiding all columns was silly. afterrender: function () { var menu = this.headerCt.getMenu(); menu.add([{ text: 'Show All Columns', handler: function () { var columnDataIndex = menu.activeHeader.dataIndex; Ext.each(grid.headerCt.getGridColumns(), function (column) { column.show(); }); } }]); menu.add([{ text: 'Hide All Columns Except This', handler: function () { var columnDataIndex = menu.activeHeader.dataIndex; alert(columnDataIndex); Ext.each(grid.headerCt.getGridColumns(), function (column) { if (column.dataIndex != columnDataIndex) { column.hide(); } }); } }]); }

    Read the article

  • Loading UITableView form UIView

    - by Amarpreet
    Hi Guys, I am working on navigation based application in which i can navigate to many views starting from default UITableView which is starting view in application template. I have added another UIView and added tableView control on that UIView. I am calling that view form one of the many views on a button click. Its showing the view but not populating the data in the table. And I also want to handle the event when user taps on the cell of the table of that view. Below is the Code I am using on button click: if(self.lstView == nil) { ListViewController *viewController = [[ListViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ListViewController" bundle:nil]; self.lstView = viewController; [viewController release]; } [self.navigationController pushViewController:lstView animated:YES]; self.lstView.title = @"Select";//@"System"; [self.lstView.tblList.dataSource fillList]; Below is the fillList function code: -(NSArray *)fillList { NSArray *tempArray = [[[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"Item 1" , @"Item 2" , nil]autorelease]; return tempArray; } I am pretty new in Iphone programming and don't have much understanding. Helping with detailed description and code will be highly appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • is this uibutton autoreleased ?

    - by dubbeat
    HI This is just a question to check my sanity really. I'm hunting memory leaks that show up in instruments but not the static analyzer. In one spot the analyzer is pointing to this block of code UIButton *randomButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect ]; randomButton.frame = CGRectMake(205, 145, 90, 22); // size and position of button [randomButton setTitle:@"Random" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; randomButton.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; randomButton.adjustsImageWhenHighlighted = YES; [randomButton addTarget:self action:@selector(getrandom:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [self.view addSubview:randomButton]; For some reason I thought the above code would auto release the button because I'm not calling init or alloc? If I add [randombutton release] at the bottom of the code my button fails to show. Could somebody describe to me the correct way to release a button from memory that is created in the above way? Or would I be better off making the button a class variable and sticking the release in the dealloc method?

    Read the article

  • Error with Property Validation in Form Submission in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Maxim Z.
    I have a simple form on an ASP.NET MVC site that I'm building. This form is submitted, and then I validate that the form fields aren't null, empty, or improperly formatted. However, when I use ModelState.AddModelError() to indicate validation errors from my controller code, I get an error when my view is re-rendered. In Visual Studio, I get that the following line is highlighted as being the location of the error: <%=Html.TextBox("Email")%> The error is the following: NullReferenceException was unhandled by user code - object reference not set to an instance of an object. My complete code for that textbox is the following: <p> <label for="Email">Your Email:</label> <%=Html.TextBox("Email")%> <%=Html.ValidationMessage("Email", "*") %> </p> Here's how I'm doing that validation in my controller: try { System.Net.Mail.MailAddress address = new System.Net.Mail.MailAddress(email); } catch { ModelState.AddModelError("Email", "Should not be empty or invalid"); } return View(); Note: this applies to all of my fields, not just my Email field, as long as they are invalid.

    Read the article

  • How to use DLL reference with an ActiveX <object> via JavaScript

    - by John Factorial
    My question: how can I set an ActiveX object's property via JavaScript to an enum value found in a non-ActiveX DLL? Problem description: I am instantiating an ActiveX object with the following object tag: <object classid="clsid:F338193D-2491-4D7B-80CE-03487041A278" id="VideoCapture1" width="500" height="500"></object> (This is the guid for the 3rd party ActiveX I'm using, "VisioForge_Video_Capture_4.VFVideoCapture4X") I have example C# code for using this ActiveX, which I am porting to JavaScript. Code like this works just fine: VideoCapture1.Debug_Mode = true; var devcount = VideoCapture1.Video_CaptureDevices_GetCount(); var devs = []; for (var i =0; i < devcount; ++i) { devs[devs.length] = VideoCapture1.Video_CaptureDevices_GetItem(i); } ... etc ... However, VideoCapture1 has some settings which refer to a DLL enum, like so (C# code): VideoCapture1.Mode = VisioForge_Video_Capture_4.TxVFMode.Mode_Video_Preview; I can see in Visual Web Developer that TxVFMode.Mode_Video_Preview is value 1 in the enum. However, the following JS does not appear to set the Mode properly: VideoCapture1.Mode = 1; Does anyone know how I can set VideoCapture1.Mode to the enum value found in the TxVFMode? PS: In Visual Web Developer, when I "Go to definition" on TxVFMode, I get the Guid for the enum. I thought I could create an with this Guid or instantiate a VisioForge_Video_Capture_4.TxVFMode in JS, but neither gives me a usable object.

    Read the article

  • Python Post Upload JPEG to Server?

    - by iJames
    It seems like this answer has been provided a bunch of times but in all of it, I'm still getting errors from the server and I'm sure it has to do with my code. I've tried HTTP, and HTTPConnection from httplib and both create quite different terminal outputs in terms of formatting/encoding so I'm not sure where the problem lies. Does anything stand out here? Or is there just a better way? Pieced together from an ancient article because I really needed to understand the basis of creating the post: http://code.activestate.com/recipes/146306-http-client-to-post-using-multipartform-data/ Note, the jpeg is supposed to be "unformatted". The pseudocode: boundary = "somerandomsetofchars" BOUNDARY = '--' + boundary CRLF = '\r\n' fields = [('aspecialkey','thevalueofthekey')] files = [('Image.Data','mypicture.jpg','/users/home/me/mypicture.jpg')] bodylines = [] for (key, value) in fields: bodylines.append(BOUNDARY) bodylines.append('Content-Disposition: form-data; name="%s"' % key) bodylines.append('') bodylines.append(value) for (key, filename, fileloc) in files: bodylines.append(BOUNDARY) bodylines.append('Content-Disposition: form-data; name="%s"; filename="%s"' % (key, filename)) bodylines.append('Content-Type: %s' % self.get_content_type(fileloc)) bodylines.append('') bodylines.append(open(fileloc,'r').read()) bodylines.append(BOUNDARY + '--') bodylines.append('') #print bodylines content_type = 'multipart/form-data; boundary=%s' % BOUNDARY body = CRLF.join(bodylines) #conn = httplib.HTTP("www.ahost.com") # In both this and below, the file part was garbling the rest of the body?!? conn = httplib.HTTPConnection("www.ahost.com") conn.putrequest('POST', "/myuploadlocation/uploadimage") headers = { 'content-length': str(len(body)), 'Content-Type' : content_type, 'User-Agent' : 'myagent' } for headerkey in headers: conn.putheader(headerkey, headers[headerkey]) conn.endheaders() conn.send(body) response = conn.getresponse() result = response.read() responseheaders = response.getheaders() It's interesting in that the real code I've implemented seems to work and is getting back valid responses, but the problem it it's telling me that it can't find the image data. Maybe this is particular to the server, but I'm just trying to rule out that I'm not doing some thing exceptionally stupid here. Or perhaps there's other methodologies for doing this more efficiently. I've not tried poster yet because I want to make sure I'm formatting the POST correctly first. I figure I can upgrade to poster after it's working yes?

    Read the article

  • Python print statement prints nothing with a carriage return

    - by Jonathan Sternberg
    I'm trying to write a simple tool that reads files from disc, does some image processing, and returns the result of the algorithm. Since the program can sometimes take awhile, I like to have a progress bar so I know where it is in the program. And since I don't like to clutter up my command line and I'm on a Unix platform, I wanted to use the '\r' character to print the progress bar on only one line. But when I have this code here, it prints nothing. # Files is a list with the filenames for i, f in enumerate(files): print '\r%d / %d' % (i, len(files)), # Code that takes a long time I have also tried: print '\r', i, '/', len(files), Now just to make sure this worked in python, I tried this: heartbeat = 1 while True: print '\rHello, world', heartbeat, heartbeat += 1 This code works perfectly. What's going on? My understanding of carriage returns on Linux was that it would just move the line feed character to the beginning and then I could overwrite old text that was written previously, as long as I don't print a newline anywhere. This doesn't seem to be happening though. Also, is there a better way to display a progress bar in a command line than what I'm current trying to do?

    Read the article

  • How to add validation errors in the validation collection asp.net mvc?

    - by johndoe
    Inside my controller's action I have the following code: public ActionResult GridAction(string id) { if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(id)) { // add errors to the errors collection and then return the view saying that you cannot select the dropdownlist value with the "Please Select" option } return View(); UPDATE: if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(id)) { // add error ModelState.AddModelError("GridActionDropDownList", "Please select an option"); return RedirectToAction("Orders"); } } UPDATE 2: Here is my updated code: @Html.DropDownListFor(x => x.SelectedGridAction, Model.GridActions,"Please Select") @Html.ValidationMessageFor(x => x.SelectedGridAction) The Model looks like the following: public class MyInvoicesViewModel { private List<SelectListItem> _gridActions; public int CurrentGridAction { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Please select an option")] public string SelectedGridAction { get; set; } public List<SelectListItem> GridActions { get { _gridActions = new List<SelectListItem>(); _gridActions.Add(new SelectListItem() { Text = "Export to Excel", Value = "1"}); return _gridActions; } } } And here is my controller action: public ActionResult GridAction(string id) { if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(id)) { // add error ModelState.AddModelError("SelectedGridAction", "Please select an option"); return RedirectToAction("Orders"); } return View(); } Nothing happens! I am totally lost on this one! UPDATE 3: I am now using the following code but still the validation is not firing: public ActionResult GridAction(string id) { var myViewModel= new MyViewModel(); myViewModel.SelectedGridAction = id; // id is passed as null if (!ModelState.IsValid) { return View("Orders"); }

    Read the article

  • singleton factory connection pdo

    - by Scarface
    Hey guys I am having a lot of trouble trying to understand this and I was just wondering if someone could help me with some questions. I found some code that is supposed to create a connection with pdo. The problem I was having was having my connection defined within functions. Someone suggested globals but then pointed to a 'better' solution http://stackoverflow.com/questions/130878/global-or-singleton-for-database-connection. My questions with this code are. PS I cannot format this code on this page so see the link if you cannot read What is the point of the connection factory? What goes inside new ConnectionFactory(...) When the connection is defined $db = new PDO(...); why is there no try or catch (I use those for error handling)? Does this then mean I have to use try and catch for every subsequent query? class ConnectionFactory { private static $factory; public static function getFactory() { if (!self::$factory) self::$factory = new ConnectionFactory(...); return self::$factory; } private $db; public function getConnection() { if (!$db) $db = new PDO(...); return $db; } } function getSomething() { $conn = ConnectionFactory::getFactory()-getConnection(); . . . }

    Read the article

  • CSS styles are not applied to elements added to JavaFX component tree

    - by pazabo
    I have applied CSS style to JavaFX components and it looks like everything is working fine except one situation: when I add JavaFX components to component tree on-the-fly their CSS styles are not applied. For example following code: package test; import javafx.stage.Stage; import javafx.scene.Scene; import javafx.scene.shape.Rectangle; import javafx.scene.input.MouseEvent; import javafx.util.Math; import javafx.scene.paint.Color; function getRect(): Rectangle { return Rectangle { x: 230 * Math.random() y: 60 * Math.random() width: 20, height: 20 styleClass: "abc" } } def stage: Stage = Stage { scene: Scene { width: 250, height: 80 stylesheets: "{__DIR__}main.css" content: [ Rectangle { x: 0, y: 0, width: 250, height: 80 fill: Color.WHITE onMouseClicked: function (evt: MouseEvent): Void { insert getRect() into stage.scene.content; } } getRect() ] } } with following stylesheet: .abc { fill: red; } in main.css file (both in test package) display red square on white background, but after clicking the main rectangle black (not red) squares are added to scene. I noticed that: Components added dynamically look just like style information was not applied. If you set their style in JavaFX code then everything works fine. After changing stylesheets property (so that it points to another valid stylesheet) the objects already added render properly. Does anyone know the solution to this problem? I could of course put all the properties into JavaFX code or provide another stylesheet (for every existing stylesheed) that would contain the same data and change stylesheet right after adding any component, but I would like to find some elegant solution. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 869 870 871 872 873 874 875 876 877 878 879 880  | Next Page >