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  • get property from XML using PHP

    - by Adnan
    Hello, I am using PHP's SimpleXML to get some values out of the following XML; - <entry> <id>http://www.google.com/m8/feeds/contacts/email_address%40gmail.com/base/0</id> <updated>2010-01-14T22:06:26.565Z</updated> <category scheme="http://schemas.google.com/g/2005#kind" term="http://schemas.google.com/contact/2008#contact" /> <title type="text">Customer Name</title> <link rel="http://schemas.google.com/contacts/2008/rel#edit-photo" type="image/*" href="http://www.google.com/m8/feeds/photos/media/email_address%40gmail.com/0/34h5jh34j5kj3444" /> <link rel="self" type="application/atom+xml" href="http://www.google.com/m8/feeds/contacts/email_address%40gmail.com/full/0" /> <link rel="edit" type="application/atom+xml" href="http://www.google.com/m8/feeds/contacts/email_address%40gmail.com/full/0/5555" /> <gd:email rel="http://schemas.google.com/g/2005#other" address="[email protected]" primary="true" /> </entry> I can get the title with: $xml = new SimpleXMLElement($response_h1); foreach ($xml->entry as $entry) { echo $entry->title, '<br />'; } But how to get the address="[email protected]" property?

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  • ASIHTTPRequest POST splits up header + data?

    - by chris.o.
    Hi, I am using ASIHTTPRequest to POST data to a remote server on iPhone 4.2.1. When I make the following post request to our server, I get a 400 response (I removed the IP address): NSString dataString = @"data1=00&data2=00&data3=00"; ASIHTTPRequest *request = [ASIHTTPRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:[NSString stringWithFormat:<ipremoved>]]]; [request appendPostData:[dataString dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; [request setRequestMethod:@"POST"]; [request addRequestHeader:@"User-Agent" value:@"iphone app"]; [request addRequestHeader:@"Content-Type" value:@"application/octet-stream"]; request.delegate = self; [request startAsynchronous]; When I send the same data using curl, I receive a 200 response: curl -H "User-Agent: iphone app" -H "Accept:" -H "Content-Type:application/octet-stream" --data-ascii "data1=00&data2=00&data3=00" --location <ipremoved> -v My colleague is stating that, in the failure case, the ASIHTTPRequest requires two socket reads: one for the header and one for the data. Apparently the server is not presently equipped to parse this correctly, so I am trying to work around it. If I setup a proxy between iPhone and my Mac and run Paros (to see packets), the problem goes away. Paros combine the header and data so that it is all acquired by the server in a single socket read. I've tried a few things suggested in other posts including disabling persistent connections, but I am not having any luck. I've also tried doing a ASIHTTPFormRequest, but the server does not like the generated data format. Any suggestions would be appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Removing all assemblies from <compilation><assemblies> in ASP.NET 4 web.config

    - by Merritt
    I removed all the 'add' elements in the compilation/assemblies element. So initially in my application's root web.config file: <compilation debug="true" targetFramework="4.0"> <assemblies> <add assembly="System.Web.Abstractions, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> <add assembly="System.Web.Routing, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> <add assembly="System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> <add assembly="System.Web.DynamicData, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> <add assembly="System.Data.Linq, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=B77A5C561934E089"/> <add assembly="System.Web.Entity, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=B77A5C561934E089"/> <add assembly="System.Data.Entity, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089"/> </assemblies> </compilation> Now it looks like: <compilation debug="true" targetFramework="4.0"> <assemblies> </assemblies> </compilation> And my application still works. The project file still has all the references I removed, but this section appears to be unused during compilation (inside visual studio). What is going on?

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  • How to publish an ASP.NET MVC website

    - by Luke Puplett
    Hello -- I've a site that I'd like to publish to a co-located live server. I'm finding this simple task quite hard. My problems begin with the Web Deploy tool (1.1) giving me a 401 Unauthorized as the adminstrator because port :8172 comes up in the errors and this port is blocked - but the documentation says "The default ListenURL is http://+:80/MsDeployAgentService"! I'm loathe to open another port and I've little patience these days so I thought bu66er it, I'll create a Web Deploy package and import it into IIS on the server over RDP. I notice first that Visual Studio doesn't use a dialog box to gather settings, or use my Publish profiles but seems to use a tab in the project properties, although I think these are ignored when importing the package anyway? I'm now sitting in the import wizard with Application Path and Connection String. I've cleared the conn string as I think this is for some ASP stuff I don't use but when I enter nothing in the Application Path, the wizard barks at me saying that basically I'm a weirdo because most people publish to folders beneath the root site. Now, I want my site to be site.com/Home/About and not site.com/subfolder/Home/About and I think being an MVC routed site that a subfolder will introduce other headaches. Should I go ahead and use the root? Finally, I also want to publish a web service to www.site.com/services/soap which I think IIS can handle. While typing this question, Amazon have delivered my IIS 7 Resource Kit, and I've been scouring the internet but actually I'm getting more confused. Comment here seems to show consensus opinion that Publish isn't for production sites and that real men roll their own. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/260525/asp-net-website-publish-vs-web-deployment-project ...I guess this was pre- Web Deployment Tool era? I'm going to experiment on a spare box for now but any assistance is welcome. Luke

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  • Request for the permission of type 'System.Web.AspNetHostingPermission' failed when compiling web si

    - by ahsteele
    I have been using Windows 7 for a while but have not had to work with a particular legacy intranet application since my upgrade. Unfortunately, this application is setup as an ASP.NET Website project hosted on a remote server. When I have the website open in Visual Studio 2008 and try to debug it I get the following compiler error: Request for the permission of type 'System.Web.AspNetHostingPermission' failed To resolve this issue on Windows Vista machines, I would change the machine's .NET Security Configuration trust level to full for the local intranet (fix outlined here). I believe this configuration utility relied upon the mscorcfg.msc which from some cursory research appears to be apart of the .NET 2.0 SDK. I have tried to follow the instructions from this Microsoft Support article running the command below to no avail. Drive:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\caspol.exe -m -ag 1 -url "file:////\\computername\sharename\*" FullTrust -exclusive on Presently, I have the following .NET and ASP.NET components installed on my machine Microsoft .NET Compact Framework 2.0 SP2 Microsoft .NET Compact Framework 3.5 Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Client Profile Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Extended Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Multi-Targeting Pack Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 1.0 Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 - Visual Studio 2008 Tools Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 - Visual Studio 2010 Tools Do I need to install the .NET 2.0 SDK? Am I issuing the caspol command incorrectly? Is there something else that I am missing?

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  • Relative Uri works for BitmapImage, but not for MediaPlayer?

    - by Thomas Stock
    This will be simple for you guys: var uri = new Uri("pack://application:,,,/LiftExperiment;component/pics/outside/elevator.jpg"); imageBitmap = new BitmapImage(); imageBitmap.BeginInit(); imageBitmap.UriSource = uri; imageBitmap.EndInit(); image.Source = imageBitmap; = Works perfectly on a .jpg with Build Action: Content Copy to Output Directory: Copy always MediaPlayer mp = new MediaPlayer(); var uri = new Uri("pack://application:,,,/LiftExperiment;component/sounds/DialingTone.wav"); mp.Open(uri); mp.Play(); = Does not work on a .wav with the same build action and copy to output. I see the file in my /debug/ folder.. MediaPlayer mp = new MediaPlayer(); var uri = new Uri(@"E:\projects\LiftExp\_solution\LiftExperiment\bin\Debug\sounds\DialingTone.wav"); mp.Open(uri); mp.Play(); = Works perfectly.. So, how do I get the sound to work with a relative path? Why is it not working this way? Let me know if you want more code or screenshots. Thanks.

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  • No long-running conversations - IllegalArgumentException: Stack must not be null

    - by Markos Fragkakis
    Hi all, I have a very simple application with just 2 pages on WebLogic 10.3.2 (11g), Seam 2.2.0.GA. I have a command button in each, which makes a redirect-after-post to the other. This works well, as I see the URL of the current page I am seeing in the address bar. BUT, even though I have no long-running conversations defined, after a random number of clicks, and - I think - after a random number of seconds (~10s - 60s) I get the lovely exception at the end of this post. Now, if I have understood how temporary conversations work when redirecting this happens: When I first see my application, the url is http://localhost:7001/myapp When I click the button in pageA.xhtml, I end up in "pageB.xhtml?cid=26". This is normal because Seam extends the temporary conversation of the first request to last until the renderResponse phase of the redirect. So, it uses the cid (Conversation Id) of the extended temporary conversation to find any propagated parameters. When I click the button in pageB.xhtml, I end up in pageA.xhtml?cid=26 The same cid was given to the new extended temporary conversation. This is normal because the conversation ended at the end of the previous redirect-after-post, and not the number 26 is free to use as a cid. Is this all correct? If yes, why does this happen: If I re-type the applications home address (showing pageA) and re-click, I end up in pageB.xhtml?cid=29, which is a different number than 26. But 26 has ended after the previous RenderResponse phase, befire I re-types the url. Why is it not used instead of 29? So, to sup up, 2 questions: Why do I get the exception, even though I have not started any long-running conversations? What happens exactly with the cid? On what basis does it change? Cheers,

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  • Give WPF design mode default objects

    - by Janko R
    In my application I have <Rectangle.Margin> <MultiBinding Converter="{StaticResource XYPosToThicknessConverter}"> <Binding Path="XPos"/> <Binding Path="YPos"/> </MultiBinding> </Rectangle.Margin> The Data Context is set during runtime. The application works, but the design window in VS does not show a preview but System.InvalidCastException. That’s why I added a default object in the XYPosToThicknessConverter which is ugly. class XYPosToThicknessConverter : IMultiValueConverter { public object Convert(object[] values, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { // stupid check to give the design window its default object. if (!(values[0] is IConvertible)) return new System.Windows.Thickness(3, 3, 0, 0); // useful code and exception throwing starts here // ... } } My Questions: What does VS/the process that builds the design window pass to XYPosToThicknessConverter and what is way to find it out by myself. How do I change my XAML code, so that the design window gets its default object and is this the best way to handle this problem? I’m using VS2010RC with Net4.0

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  • ASP.NET MembershipProvider and StructureMap

    - by Ben
    I was using the default AspNetSqlMembershipProvider in my application. Authentication is performed via an AuthenticationService (since I'm also supporting other forms of membership like OpenID). My AuthenticationService takes a MembershipProvider as a constructor parameter and I am injecting the dependency using StructureMap like so: For<MembershipProvider>().Use(Membership.Provider); This will use the MembershipProvider configured in web.config. All this works great. However, now I have rolled my own MembershipProvider that makes use of a repository class. Since the MembershipProvider isn't exactly IoC friendly, I added the following code to the MembershipProvider.Initialize method: _membershipRepository = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IMembershipRepository>(); However, this raises an exception, like StructureMap hasn't been initialized (cannot get instance of IMembershipRepository). However, if I remove the code and put breakpoints at my MembershipProvider's initialize method and my StructureMap bootstrapper, it does appear that StructureMap is configured before the MembershipProvider is initialized. My only workaround so far is to add the above code to each method in the MembershipProvider that needs the repository. This works fine, but I am curious as to why I can't get my instance in the Initialize method. Is the MembershipProvider performing some internal initialization that runs before any of my own application code does? Thanks Ben

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  • Applying business logic to form elements in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Brettski
    I am looking for best practices in applying business logic to form elements in an ASP.NET MVC application. I assume the concepts would apply to most MVC patterns. The goal is to have all the business logic stem from the same place. I have a basic form with four elements: Textbox: for entering data Checkbox: for staff approval Checkbox: for client approval Button: for submitting form The textbox and two check boxes are fields in a database accessed using LINQ to SQL. What I want to do is put logic around the check boxes on who can check them and when. True table (little silly but it's an example): when checked || may check Staff || may check Client Staff | Client || Staff | Client || Staff | Client 0 0 || 1 0 0 1 0 1 || 0 0 0 1 1 0 || 1 0 0 1 1 1 || 0 0 0 1 There are to security roles, staff and client; a person's role determines who they are, the roles are maintained in the database alone with current state of the check boxes. So I can simply store the users roll in the view class and enable and disable check boxes based on their role, but this doesn't seem proper. That is putting logic in UI to control of which actions can be taken. How do I get most of this control down into the model? I mean I need to control which check boxes are enabled and then check the results in the model when the form is posted, so it seems the best place for it to originate. I am looking for a good approach to constructing this, something to follow as I build the application. If you know of some great references which explain these best practices that is really appreciated too.

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  • Error when instantiating .NET/COM interop class via classic ASP

    - by Lee D
    Hi all, I am having a problem when trying to instantiate a C# .NET class that's been exposed to COM in a classic ASP application. I've used tlbexp to generate a typelib and registered it in Component Services; now when trying to create the object as such: Server.CreateObject("The.Class.Name") I am getting the error: Server object error 'ASP 0177 : 80131534' Server.CreateObject Failed I've searched around online for information on this error, and found numerous discussions but no solution. The error code 0x80131534 apparently means "COR_E_TYPEINITIALIZATION, a type failed to initialize", which would suggest the problem would be in the constructor. The constructor of the class in question sets a private field to an instance of another class from the same assembly, and then reads some configuration settings from an XML file. This behaviour is unit tested and I've checked that the file exists; I can't see anything else that could be breaking in there. A few other points which may or may not be of use: A test .NET project referencing the DLL can instantiate the class just fine; however a test VB6 project referencing the TLB blows up with the same error. Both the DLL and the TLB are in the same location. This application is running locally, on Windows XP Professional SP3 and IIS 5.1. The .NET assembly is built with .NET Framework 2.0, although 3.5 is installed on the machine. I know other people who don't get this error on their builds, so I believe it may be something environmental. Any suggestions are welcome as I've been struggling to fix this for some time. Thanks in advance.

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  • AS3 "Loader" progress immediately goes to 100%

    - by Bart van Heukelom
    If you go to http://moederdagontbijtplacemat.nl/ you will see a progress bar. The application is loading a fairly large SWF from the server using the Loader class. Strangely enough, the progress bar immediately goes to 100% (but the loading still takes a while after that). The code is below, but you'll see it's basically too simple to break. It has worked when the application was on a different server, so I though maybe the new server wasn't sending the size of the large SWF in the http headers. Firebug does show a progress bar though, so that is not the case, the information should be available. It also works when I run the loader swf locally and change the URL (new URLRequest("Placemat.swf")) to the absolute URL of Placemat.swf on the server. var l:Loader = new Loader(); addChild(l); l.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(ProgressEvent.PROGRESS, function(e:ProgressEvent) { s.setProgress(e.bytesLoaded/e.bytesTotal); trace(Math.round(100 * e.bytesLoaded/e.bytesTotal), "%"); }); l.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, function() { removeChild(s); }); l.load(new URLRequest("Placemat.swf"));

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  • How to create X509 self signed certificate for use in Apache Tomcat

    - by DaveJohnston
    I have a Java application that runs on Windows Mobile devices using a 3rd Party JVM. The application communicates with an Apache Tomcat server over HTTP. We have also used HTTPS for some connections and the certificates were created using the Sun keytool utility. First a keystore was created using genkey, then the certificate exported using export and finally that was imported into another keystore using import. The file created by genkey was loaded into the Apache server and the keystore created using import was loaded into the JVM on the PDA. Everything works as expected. I am now working with a new JVM on the PDA and (for whatever reason) I have established that this JVM requires the keystore to be in X509 (DER) format. I started working on this about a month ago and had it working, but stupidly never wrote down the steps I took, and now I can't for the life of me remember what I did. I seem to remember using openssl but other than that I am totally lost. Anything I create now using openssl and try to load into Apache causes an error at startup (Invalid Keystore Format) so I am probably missing something out entirely. Does anyone have any ideas how I should be going about creating this self-signed X509 certificate that can be loaded into Apache server and JVM running on a PDA?

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  • Bluetooth on 2.0+

    - by awiden
    I'm doing bluetooth development for connecting with a PC. I've basicly used the BTChatExample and changed the UUID to the standard PC SPP-profile. Trying to close a bluetooth application during a blocking read, by closing the BluetoothSocket will leave the Bluetooth stack in a unusable state. This can only be fixed by disabling and enabling bluetooth and restarting the application. Checking logcat, you can see that some of the internal methods are failing, leaving a open port. Any information on this? First of all there seams to be differences on how bluetooth is implemented on N1 and HTC Legend/Desire both running 2.1, do you know anything about this? Connecting isn't 100% reliable, sometimes I get a warning saying ~PortSystemContext init: FAILED. This leaves bluetooth unusable, and restarting is needed. Am I right in assuming that SPP is the only profile supported for use with the APIs? That's what the docs on the BluetoothAdapter says. I would love to discuss issues on bluetooth with a developer and iron out these bugs so that Android can have good proper BT support it deserves.

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  • Right way to dispose Image/Bitmap and PictureBox

    - by kornelijepetak
    I am trying to develop a Windows Mobile 6 (in WF/C#) application. There is only one form and on the form there is only a PictureBox object. On it I draw all desired controls or whatever I want. There are two things I am doing. Drawing custom shapes and loading bitmaps from .png files. The next line locks the file when loading (which is an undesired scenario): Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap("file.png"); So I am using another way to load bitmap. public static Bitmap LoadBitmap(string path) { using (Bitmap original = new Bitmap(path)) { return new Bitmap(original); } } This is I guess much slower, but I don't know any better way to load an image, while quickly releasing the file lock. Now, when drawing an image there is method that I use: public void Draw() { Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(240,320); Graphics g = Graphics.FromImage(bmp); // draw something with Graphics here. g.Clear(Color.Black); g.DrawImage(Images.CloseIcon, 16, 48); g.DrawImage(Images.RefreshIcon, 46, 48); g.FillRectangle(new SolidBrush(Color.Black), 0, 100, 240, 103); pictureBox.Image = bmp; } This however seems to be some kind of a memory leak. And if I keep doing it for too long, the application eventually crashes. Therefor, I have X questions: 1.) What is the better way for loading bitmaps from files without locking the file? 2.) What objects needs to be manually disposed in the Draw() function (and in which order) so there's no memory leak and no ObjectDisposedException throwing? 3.) If pictureBox.Image is set to bmp, like in the last line of the code, would pictureBox.Image.Dispose() dispose only resources related to maintaining the pictureBox.Image or the underlying Bitmap set to it?

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  • Get JVM to grow memory demand as needed up to size of VM limit?

    - by Ira Baxter
    We ship a Java application whose memory demand can vary quite a lot depending on the size of the data it is processing. If you don't set the max VM (virtual memory) size, quite often the JVM quits with an GC failure on big data. What we'd like to see, is the JVM requesting more memory, as GC fails to provide enough, until the total available VM is exhausted. e.g., start with 128Mb, and increase geometrically (or some other step) whenever the GC failed. The JVM ("Java") command line allows explicit setting of max VM sizes (various -Xm* commands), and you'd think that would be designed to be adequate. We try to do this in a .cmd file that we ship with the application. But if you pick any specific number, you get one of two bad behaviors: 1) if your number is small enough to work on most target systems (e.g., 1Gb), it isn't big enough for big data, or 2) if you make it very large, the JVM refuses to run on those systems whose actual VM is smaller than specified. How does one set up Java to use the available VM when needed, without knowing that number in advance, and without grabbing it all on startup?

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  • flex and jsf access the same instance of bean

    - by David
    i integrate a flex app in a jsf-icefaces app (in a jspx site with the ice:outputmedia-tag) and want to access the same instance of a bean from flex by remote, that jsf inject. i already connect with blazeds to a java-bean. this bean - like all other beans - get other beans by injection of jsf, but when i access the bean by remote from flex it doesnt hold the injected beans (like localizer and accesmanager, both session scoped) and i can't connect to the jsf session (FacesContext.getCurrentInstance() is null). this is because flex create a new instance of the bean and it’s not the same current instance, that jsf inject, i think. i can connect from flex to the database by create a new entity manager in the java bean, but that's not what i want, because it's again another entity manager...i want persist and get data over the accessmanager-bean. i know exadel fiji and flamingo, but i couldn't work with fiji, because my jsf app include the icefaces components and then it doesn't work with richfaces which fiji needs. and flamingo work only with jboss seam and spring. is it right? i also read about the spring-flex-integration, but the jsf application did not create with spring and i don't want to integrate spring in such a large jsf app. yesterday i read about the FlexFactory interface. this interface i have to implement in my own Factory and set it in the service-config.xml of blazeds as a factory read this. i still implement my own factory but i only get application scoped beans over the servlet context which i get over FlexContext.getServletContext().getAttribute("Bean"); and not session scoped beans... i hope there is a chance to connect throw flex and jsf... thanks!

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  • AjaxControlToolkit TabContainer with weird rendering behavior

    - by sohum
    I've built a web application that contains a page that uses the AjaxControlToolkit's TabContainer/TabPanel objects. I've developed a custom stylesheet, as well. I'm developing using Visual Studio 2010. The following is the behavior of my application: VS2010 Development Server (localhost:XXXXX): Works as expected with the custom stylesheet. Local IIS: The TabContainer rendered but the stylesheet wasn't applied. I fixed this by doing a CTRL+F5. It seems that IIS caches stylesheets pretty aggressively. Remote Server: The TabContainer and TabPanel are completely hidden. Looking at the HTML, all of them have their visibility set to hidden. The way I got my files onto my remote server were as follows (I haven't yet set up WebDAV or remote publishing because the server is a Windows 7 box and as far as I am aware does not support FrontPage Extensions): The entire solution is under source code control (SVN). Checked in all pending changes (including projects, aspx files, css, AjaxControlToolkit binaries) Synced on the server. Rebuilt everything on server. Deployed to local IIS on server (which is externally accessible). Both on the local IIS on the server and the development server on the server, the TabContainers are completely hidden. Looking at the SVN status on the server project, only the "AjaxControlToolkit.dll" is under source-code control. All the locale-specific DLLs are not on the server. Could this be a potential issue? I'm not sure what's going on and would appreciate any help. Thanks!

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  • Getting started with SVG graphics objects in JSF 2.0 pages.

    - by AlanObject
    What I want to do is create web pages with interactive SVG content. I had this working as a Java desktop application using Batik to render my SVG and collect UI events like mouseclick. Now I want to use those SVG graphics files in my JSF (Primefaces) web application in the same way. Trying to get started, I found this didn't work: <h:graphicImage id="gloob" value="images/sprinkverks.svg" alt="Graphic Goes Here"/> I don't mind doing some reading to get up the learning curve. It was just a bit surprising that some google searches didn't turn up anything useful. What I did find suggested that I would have to do this with the f:verbatim tag as if I were hand-coding the HTML. I would then have to add some script to capture the SVG events and feed them back into the AJAX code. If I have to do all that I will, but I was hoping there would be an easier and automated way. So the questions are: How to get the image to render in the first place? How to get the DOM events from the SVG portion of the page back to the backing beans? Much thanks for any pointers.

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  • iPhone SDK 3.2 Universal App issue with .xib files

    - by Wesley
    Hello! So I am finding this process of universalizing my iPhone app to be a big headache! Am I alone in this? I sure hope not. Anyway, my question is regarding the .xib files for my universal application. I had my iPhone OS 3.1 running app all ready to make the universal switch. I went up to Project/Upgrade Current Target for iPad/Universal Application and it supposedly made my app have all the necessary iPad settings... So when I went to test it in 3.2 SDk, the screen was big, meaning the toolbar was sized correctly for the iPad, but the image that was being displayed was for the OS 3.1, meaning it was way small. So I then went to the iPad Source folder, changed the name of my MainViewController.xib file to MainViewController-iPad.xib, and inserted the bigger image I had prepared for the iPad, and it still didn't work correctly. Then, I went into my MainViewController.m file and changed the nib reference from MainViewController to MainViewController-iPad, and it worked! My only concern is that being that I had to "hard-code" it in, or force it to read from my -iPad file, is that going to present issues for the OS3.1 version? I can't go back and test the 3.1 version now for some reason, the option was removed from the Active SDK menu... If there is anyone out there that has experienced this, or has insight into what I am doing wrong, your help would be greatly appreciated. Thank you!

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  • ServerIdentity memory leak with IHttpAsyncHandler

    - by Anton
    I have a .NET web application that consists of a single HTTP handler class that implements IHttpAsyncHandler. All requests to this handler are handled asynchronously, though some requests are short-lived and some are long-lived (nothing over a few seconds). The problem is that memory consumption grows over time as requests are handled. All profiling results point to an unbounded growth of String objects held by instances of System.Runtime.Remoting.ServerIdentity. Every String value is different, but they all look similar to: /dd41c00e_1566_4702_b660_c81cdea18a43/vigefresi5pfv8n0ekddg57z_1154.rem There is nothing in my application that uses ServerIdentity directly, and unless I am mistaken, the ServerIdentity instances are proportional to the number of incoming requests. If this is an internal .NET structure, it looks like the CLR is not cleaning up after itself. What could be causing the leak? UPDATE A little less than half of the String objects are being held by System.Runtime.Remoting. The remaining String objects are being held by System.Runtime.Serialization and look similar to: +1sgess5rjcrgbmp3kqr6bmv_3474.rem Also, the problem only seems to occur when lots of simultaneous HTTP web requests arrive.

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  • Getting Indy Error "Could not bind socket. Address and port are already in use"

    - by M Schenkel
    I have developed a Delphi web server application (TWebModule). It runs as a ISAPI DLL on Apache under Windows. The application in turn makes frequent https calls to other web sites using the Indy TIdHTTP component. Periodically I get this error when using the TIdHTTP.get method: Could not bind socket. Address and port are already in use Here is the code: IdSSLIOHandlerSocket1 := TIdSSLIOHandlerSocketOpenSSL.create(nil); IdHTTP := TIdHTTP.create(nil); idhttp.handleredirects := True; idhttp.OnRedirect := DoRedirect; with IdSSLIOHandlerSocket1 do begin SSLOptions.Method := sslvSSLv3; SSLOptions.Mode := sslmUnassigned; SSLOptions.VerifyMode := []; SSLOptions.VerifyDepth := 2; end; with IdHTTP do begin IOHandler := IdSSLIOHandlerSocket1; ProxyParams.BasicAuthentication := False; Request.UserAgent := 'Test Google Analytics Interface'; Request.ContentType := 'text/html'; request.connection := 'keep-alive'; Request.Accept := 'text/html, */*'; end; try idhttp.get('http://www.mysite.com......'); except ....... end; IdHTTP.free; IdSSLIOHandlerSocket1.free; I have read about the reusesocket method, which can be set on both the TIdHttp and TIdSSLLIOHandlerSocketOpenSSL objects. Will setting this to rsTrue solve my problems? I ask because I have not been able to replicate this error, it just happens periodically. Other considerations: I know multiple instances of TWebModule are being spawned. Would wrapping all calls to TIdHttp.get within a TCriticalSection solve the problem?

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  • What is the scope of StaticResource within a WPF ResourceDictionary?

    - by Nicolas Webb
    I have a WPF ResourceDictionary with the following TextBlock: <TextBlock Visibility="{Binding Converter={StaticResource MyBoolProp ResourceKey=BoolToVis}}"> </TextBlock> The ResourceDictionary is included in App.xaml under MergedDictionaries: <Application.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="MyResourceDictionary.xaml"/> Within the App.xaml I have defined the BoolToVis converter (again, under Application.Resources) <BooleanToVisibilityConverter x:Key="BoolToVis" /> When I start my app up - I get the following XamlParseException: "Provide value on 'System.Windows.Markup.StaticResourceHolder' threw an exception." The InnerException is: "Cannot find resource named 'BoolToVis'. Resource names are case sensitive." I'm able to refer to this converter directly with App.xaml (in fact, the particular XAML declaration is identical) and within other UserControls with no problems. This particular bit of code also worked fine under the .NET 4.0 RC (and Beta2). This error only started happening when I upgraded to the .NET 4.0 RTM. I'm able to work around it by declaring another BooleanToVisibilityConverter within MyResourceDictionary.xaml and referring to it like so: <TextBlock Visibility="{Binding Converter={StaticResource MyBoolProp ResourceKey=BoolToVis2}}"> </TextBlock> Any reason why I should need to do this?

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  • How to setup prawn on heroku when installed as a git submodule

    - by brad
    I have a rails app that I am trying to deploy to heroku. This app generates pdfs using prawn. I installed prawn as a git submodule rather than as a gem as this is what is recommended on the prawn website (here). This has not worked well with heroku so far though. As stated on heroku's application constraints page submodules are not supported so I followed their instructions to track the submodule in the main project and tried again. This has not worked and when I access my application I get the following error: App failed to start An error happened during the initialization of your app. This may be due to a typo, wrong number of arguments, or calling a function that doesn’t exists. Check the stack trace below for specific details. Make sure the app is working locally in production mode, by running it with RAILS_ENV (for Rails apps) or RACK_ENV (for Sinatra or other rack apps) set to production. e.g. RAILS_ENV=production script/server. Original Error /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:in `gem_original_require': /disk1/home/slugs/208590_03c9c22_67f5/mnt/app/controllers/invoices_controller.rb:37: syntax error, unexpected ')' (SyntaxError) ).to_pdf(@invoice) (and then a whole lot more that I'll spare you from) The .to_pdf function described in the last line is called in a controller in exactly the way described in the prawn how-to that I linked to above so my interpretation of the error message is that prawn is not being installed/detected. Does anyone know how I can address this? I'm new to heroku so have little idea how to approach this. Is the submodule approach for prawn dead in the water from the get-go? Do I need to install it as a gem instead. I'd rather keep it as a submodule just because that works for now and I don't want to break it.

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  • How to prepopulate an Outlook MailItem and avoiding a com Exception from the object model guard

    - by torrente
    Hi, I work for a company that develops a CRM tool and offers integration with MS Office(2003 & 2007) from windows XP to 7. (I'm working using Win7) My task is to call an Outlook instance (using C#) from this CRM tool when the user wants to send an email and prepopulate with data of the CRM tool (email, recipient, etc..) All of this already works just fine. The problem I'm having is that Outlook's "object model guard" is throwing com Exception (Operation aborted (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80004004 (E_ABORT))) the moment I try to read a protected value from the mailItem (such as mail.bodyHTML). Example Snippet: using MSOutlook = Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook; //untrusted Instance _outlook = new MSOutlook.Application(); MSOutlook.MailItem mail = (MSOutlook.MailItem)_outlook.CreateItem(MSOutlook.OlItemType.olMailItem); //this where the Exception occurs string outlookStdHTMLBody = mail.HTMLBody; I've done quite a bit of reading and know that my Outlook Instance (derived by using new Application) is considered untrusted and therefore the "omg" kicks in. I do have a workaround for development: I'm running VS2010 as Administrator and if I run Outlook as Administrator as well - all is good. I suppose this is due to them having the same integrity levels(high) and the UAC(?) is not complaining. But that just ain't the way to go for deployment. Now the question is: Is there a way to obtain a trusted instance of Outlook so that I can avoid this exception? I've already read that when developing an Office Add-In using VSTO one can obtain a trusted Instance from the OnComplete event and/or using "ThisAddin" But I "merely" want to start an outlook instance and preopulate it, and do not want to develop an Add-In since this is not the requirement. And to make it clear - I have no problem with pop ups informing the user that outlook is being accessed - I just want to get rid of the exception! So how can I get around this problem using code? Any help is highly appreciated! Thomas

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