Search Results

Search found 50600 results on 2024 pages for 'application lifecycle'.

Page 874/2024 | < Previous Page | 870 871 872 873 874 875 876 877 878 879 880 881  | Next Page >

  • Best way to convert wpf triggers to silverlight?

    - by Stewart Armbrecht
    I have developed several custom controls in a wpf application that use triggers. what is the fastest way to convert the code so that I have a single code base that works both in the wpf application and the silverlight applicaiton. Here is a sample of the code: <Style x:Key="sButtonAction" TargetType="Button"> <!--<Setter Property="BitmapEffect" Value="{StaticResource BannerEffect}" />--> <Setter Property="Height" Value="25" /> <Setter Property="Margin" Value="4" /> <Setter Property="Cursor" Value="Hand" /> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="Button"> <Border x:Name="PART_Border" CornerRadius="10" BorderThickness="{StaticResource sBorderThicknessStandard}" BorderBrush="{StaticResource bColorBorder}" Background="{StaticResource ButtonActionBackground}"> <TextBlock x:Name="PART_TextBlock" Margin="5,2,5,2" HorizontalAlignment="Center" VerticalAlignment="Center" Foreground="White"> <ContentPresenter HorizontalAlignment="Center" VerticalAlignment="Center" /></TextBlock> </Border> <ControlTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsMouseOver" Value="True"> <Setter TargetName="PART_TextBlock" Property="Foreground" Value="#990000"></Setter> </Trigger> <Trigger Property="IsPressed" Value="True"> <Setter TargetName="PART_Border" Property="Background" Value="{StaticResource ButtonActionBackgroundSelected}"></Setter> </Trigger> </ControlTemplate.Triggers> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style>

    Read the article

  • How to use SSL3 instead of TLS in a particular HttpWebRequest?

    - by Anton Tykhyy
    My application has to talk to different hosts over https, and the default setting of ServicePointManager.SecurityProtocol = TLS served me well up to this day. Now I have some hosts which (as System.Net trace log shows) don't answer the initial TLS handshake message but keep the underlying connection open until it times out, throwing a timeout exception. I tried setting HttpWebRequest's timeout to as much as 5mins, with the same result. Presumably these hosts are waiting for an SSL3 handshake since both IE and Firefox are able to connect to these hosts after a 30-40 seconds' delay. There seems to be some fallback mechanism in .NET which degrades TLS to SSL3, but it doesn't kick in for some reason. FWIW, here's the handshake message my request is sending: 00000000 : 16 03 01 00 57 01 00 00-53 03 01 4C 12 39 B4 F9 : ....W...S..L.9.. 00000010 : A3 2C 3D EE E1 2A 7A 3E-D2 D6 0D 2E A9 A8 6C 03 : .,=..*z>......l. 00000020 : E7 8F A3 43 0A 73 9C CE-D7 EE CF 00 00 18 00 2F : ...C.s........./ 00000030 : 00 35 00 05 00 0A C0 09-C0 0A C0 13 C0 14 00 32 : .5.............2 00000040 : 00 38 00 13 00 04 01 00-00 12 00 0A 00 08 00 06 : .8.............. 00000050 : 00 17 00 18 00 19 00 0B-00 02 01 00 : ............ Is there a way to use SSL3 instead of TLS in a particular HttpWebRequest, or force a fallback? It seems that ServicePointManager's setting is global, and I'd really hate to have to degrade the security protocol setting to SSL3 for the whole application.

    Read the article

  • Posting xml from classic asp to asp.net

    - by Chris Dunaway
    I apologize if this has been asked before. I searched and didn't find anything that matched my situation. Also bear in mind I am fairly new to asp/asp.net development. My current project is a relatively simple e-commerce site. The customer will connect to the site, select products, input shipping and billing information, payment information (credit card) and submit the order. The project is being split into two parts: The store front which includes displaying the items and taking the customer's shipping and billing information and the payment site which will collect the customers credit card, compute tax, and save the order into the company's system. The reason that the site was split up, was that our side (payment side) already has facilities for credit card handling and tax computation. There may also be some regulatory issues that the store front side does not want to deal with (which we already do). I'm working on the payment portion of the app and I am using asp.net. The store front side is being written in classic asp (not my decision). Each part will be hosted on different servers. The problem I am having is transferring the contents of the "shopping cart" to our app so that we can collect the cc info and submit the order. We had thought that the classic asp could somehow post an xml fragment which contains the billing/shipping info and the items selected. Our side would display a summary of the order, securely collect the credit card info, and submit the order to our system. But I have been unable to post or send the xml from a classic asp on one server, to our asp.net application on another. It all works just fine when I test on the same server. How can I post (or otherwise transfer) the shopping cart data from classic asp to asp.net across server boundaries and transfer control to the asp.net application? As I said, I am new to web development, so this is proving quite a challenge for me. Thanks

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC, areas, routing and a controller factory.

    - by Kieron
    Hi, I've an interesting problem with some routing with an ASP.NET MVC app. I'm building a CMS and I've got a catch-all handler that takes the URL and checks to see if there's some matching content in a database. If so, it displays it, otherwise we get a 404. Now I've got all that working with some test data, I moved on to write a quick admin system. I thought I'd use some of the new Area functionality baked into MVC 2, so I've created an area called Admin with a controller called Home. Now however I have a problem of the default HomeController in the Admin Area is being returned when requesting the application root path. The problem is that there is no other HomeController for the 'root' application (the one hosting all of the areas), instead the root would be redirected to the my catch-all handler and populated from the database. So now the controller factory is returning the best matching controller, which it thinks is the admin area one, what I really need is for it to not match it at all - as it did previously. Apart from renaming the Admin HomeController to something else, is there another solution?

    Read the article

  • Debugger Visualizer, ElementHost, and Edit and Continue problems

    - by Frank Fella
    I recently wrote a custom Debugger Visualizer for Visual Studio 2008 for one of the custom types in my application. The UI for the visualizer is written in WPF and is hosted in an element host and shown using the IDialogVisualizerService windowService object. Everything works great, and my visualizer loads and shows the relevant information, but if try to "edit and continue" in my application after loading the visualizer, Visual Studio crashes with no useful error message. In trying to debug this I removed almost all of my code from the solution to the point where I was only serializing a string with the ObjectSource and displaying just an empty element host and I still get the crash on edit and continue. If I remove the element host and show a WinForms control or form there is no crash. Here is the Visualizer code: using System; using System.Drawing; using System.IO; using System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.Windows.Forms.Integration; using Microsoft.VisualStudio.DebuggerVisualizers; using ObjectVisualizerShared; using ObjectVisualizerUI; namespace ObjectVisualizer { public class Visualizer : DialogDebuggerVisualizer { protected override void Show(IDialogVisualizerService windowService, IVisualizerObjectProvider objectProvider) { try { Stream stream = objectProvider.GetData(); if (stream.Length > 0) { BinaryFormatter formatter = new BinaryFormatter(); VisualizerNode node = (VisualizerNode)formatter.Deserialize(stream); if (node != null) { VisualizerWindow window = new VisualizerWindow(node); ElementHost host = new ElementHost(); host.Child = window; host.Dock = DockStyle.Fill; host.Size = new Size(800, 600); windowService.ShowDialog(host); } } } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(string.Format("Error!\n{0}", ex), "Object Visualizer"); } } } } Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How to Select Items in Dropdown in Selenium

    - by Marcus Gladir
    Firstly, I have been trying to get the dropdown from this web page: http://solutions.3m.com/wps/portal/3M/en_US/Interconnect/Home/Products/ProductCatalog/Catalog/?PC_Z7_RJH9U5230O73D0ISNF9B3C3SI1000000_nid=RFCNF5FK7WitWK7G49LP38glNZJXPCDXLDbl This is the code I have: import urllib2 from bs4 import BeautifulSoup import re from pprint import pprint import sys from selenium import common from selenium import webdriver import selenium.webdriver.support.ui as ui from boto.s3.key import Key import requests url = 'http://solutions.3m.com/wps/portal/3M/en_US/Interconnect/Home/Products/ProductCatalog/Catalog/?PC_Z7_RJH9U5230O73D0ISNF9B3C3SI1000000_nid=RFCNF5FK7WitWK7G49LP38glNZJXPCDXLDbl' element_xpath = '//*[@id="Component1"]' driver = webdriver.PhantomJS() driver.get(url) element = driver.find_element_by_xpath(element_xpath) element_xpath = '/option[@value="02"]' all_options = element.find_elements_by_tag_name("option") for option in all_options: print("Value is: %s" % option.get_attribute("value")) option.click() source = driver.page_source.encode('utf-8', 'ignore') driver.quit() source = str(source) soup = BeautifulSoup(source, 'html.parser') print soup What prints out is this: Traceback (most recent call last): File "../../../../test.py", line 58, in <module> Value is: XX main() File "../../../../test.py", line 46, in main option.click() File "/home/eric/dev/octocrawler-env/local/lib/python2.7/site-packages/selenium-2.33.0-py2.7.egg/selenium/webdriver/remote/webelement.py", line 54, in click self._execute(Command.CLICK_ELEMENT) File "/home/eric/dev/octocrawler-env/local/lib/python2.7/site-packages/selenium-2.33.0-py2.7.egg/selenium/webdriver/remote/webelement.py", line 228, in _execute return self._parent.execute(command, params) File "/home/eric/dev/octocrawler-env/local/lib/python2.7/site-packages/selenium-2.33.0-py2.7.egg/selenium/webdriver/remote/webdriver.py", line 165, in execute self.error_handler.check_response(response) File "/home/eric/dev/octocrawler-env/local/lib/python2.7/site-packages/selenium-2.33.0-py2.7.egg/selenium/webdriver/remote/errorhandler.py", line 158, in check_response raise exception_class(message, screen, stacktrace) selenium.common.exceptions.ElementNotVisibleException: Message: u'{"errorMessage":"Element is not currently visible and may not be manipulated","request":{"headers":{"Accept":"application/json","Accept-Encoding":"identity","Connection":"close","Content-Length":"81","Content-Type":"application/json;charset=UTF-8","Host":"127.0.0.1:51413","User-Agent":"Python-urllib/2.7"},"httpVersion":"1.1","method":"POST","post":"{\\"sessionId\\": \\"30e4fd50-f0e4-11e3-8685-6983e831d856\\", \\"id\\": \\":wdc:1402434863875\\"}","url":"/click","urlParsed":{"anchor":"","query":"","file":"click","directory":"/","path":"/click","relative":"/click","port":"","host":"","password":"","user":"","userInfo":"","authority":"","protocol":"","source":"/click","queryKey":{},"chunks":["click"]},"urlOriginal":"/session/30e4fd50-f0e4-11e3-8685-6983e831d856/element/%3Awdc%3A1402434863875/click"}}' ; Screenshot: available via screen And the weirdest most infuriating bit of it all is that sometimes it actually all works out. I have no clue what's going on here.

    Read the article

  • Proper use of HTTP status codes in a "validation" server

    - by Romulo A. Ceccon
    Among the data my application sends to a third-party SOA server are complex XMLs. The server owner does provide the XML schemas (.xsd) and, since the server rejects invalid XMLs with a meaningless message, I need to validate them locally before sending. I could use a stand-alone XML schema validator but they are slow, mainly because of the time required to parse the schema files. So I wrote my own schema validator (in Java, if that matters) in the form of an HTTP Server which caches the already parsed schemas. The problem is: many things can go wrong in the course of the validation process. Other than unexpected exceptions and successful validation: the server may not find the schema file specified the file specified may not be a valid schema file the XML is invalid against the schema file Since it's an HTTP Server I'd like to provide the client with meaningful status codes. Should the server answer with a 400 error (Bad request) for all the above cases? Or they have nothing to do with HTTP and it should answer 200 with a message in the body? Any other suggestion? Update: the main application is written in Ruby, which doesn't have a good xml schema validation library, so a separate validation server is not over-engineering.

    Read the article

  • How do I pass a cookie to a Sinatra app using curl?

    - by Brandon Toone
    I'm using the code from the example titled "A Slightly Bigger Example" from this tutorial http://rubylearning.com/blog/2009/09/30/cookie-based-sessions-in-sinatra/ to figure out how to send a cookie to a Sinatra application but I can't figure out how to set the values correctly When I set the name to be "brandon" in the application it creates a cookie with a value of BAh7BiIJdXNlciIMYnJhbmRvbg%3D%3D%0A which is a url encoding (http://ostermiller.org/calc/encode.html) of the value BAh7BiIJdXNlciIMYnJhbmRvbg== Using that value I can send a cookie to the app correctly curl -b "rack.session=BAh7BiIJdXNlciIMYnJhbmRvbg==" localhost:9393 I'm pretty sure that value is a base64 encoding of the ruby hash for the session since the docs (http://rack.rubyforge.org/doc/classes/Rack/Session/Cookie.html) say The session is a Ruby Hash stored as base64 encoded marshalled data set to :key (default: rack.session). I thought that meant all I had to do was base64 encode {"user"=>"brandon"} and use it in the curl command. Unfortunately that creates a different value than BAh7BiIJdXNlciIMYnJhbmRvbg==. Next I tried taking the base64 encoded value and decoding it at various base64 decoders online but that results in strange characters (a box symbol and others) so I don't know how to recreate the value to even encode it. So my question is do you know what characters/format I need to get the proper base64 encoding and/or do you know of another way to pass a value using curl such that it will register as a proper cookie for a Sinatra app?

    Read the article

  • PackageMaker install script for rxtx

    - by vinzenzweber
    I am using PackageMaker to create an installer for my application. During installation I need to run a bash script to properly install rxtx, a JNI library for serial port communication. This library needs to have the directory /var/lock in place with user "root" and group "uucp". The installation script also needs to add the current user to the group "uucp" for the lib to be able to write to /var/lock. Now when I run my application installer the preinstall script is run as root. Therefore "whoami" returns root instead of the user who is actually running the installer. The result is that rxtx is not able to create lock files in /var/lock because the actual user was not added as a member to "uucp". How can I get the user while my script is run by the installer. Or is it better to set the permissions for /var/lock to a different group maybe? Any suggestions are welcome! !/bin/sh curruser=whoami logger "Setting permissions for /var/lock for user $curruser!" if [ ! -d /var/lock ] then logger "Creating /var/lock!" sudo mkdir /var/lock fi sudo chgrp uucp /var/lock sudo chmod 775 /var/lock MacOSX 10.5 and later use dscl if [ sudo dscl . -read /Groups/uucp GroupMembership | grep $curruser | wc -l = "0" ] then logger "Add user $curruser to /Groups/uucp!" sudo dscl . -append /Groups/uucp GroupMembership $curruser # to revert use: # sudo dscl . -delete /Groups/uucp GroupMembership $curruser else logger "GroupMembership of /var/lock not changed!" fi

    Read the article

  • Regression Testing and Deployment Strategy

    - by user279516
    I'd like some advice on a deployment strategy. If a development team creates an extensive framework, and many (20-30) applications consume it, and the business would like application updates at least every 30 days, what is the best deployment strategy? The reason I ask is that there seems to be a lot of waste (and risk) in using an agile approach of deploying changes monthly, if 90% of the applications don't change. What I mean by this is that the framework can change during the month, and so can a few applications. Because the framework changed, all applications should be regression-tested. If, say, 10 of the applications don't change at all during the year, then those 10 applications are regression-tested EVERY MONTH, when they didn't have any feature changes or hot fixes. They had to be tested simply because the business is rolling updates every month. And the risk that is involved... if a mission-critical application is deployed, that takes a few weeks, and multiple departments, to test, is it realistic to expect to have to constantly regression-test this application? One option is to make any framework updates backward-compatible. While this would mean that applications don't need to change their code, they would still need to be tested because the underlying framework changed. And the risk involved is great; a constantly changing framework (and deploying this framework) means the mission-critical app can never just enjoy the same code base for a long time. These applications share the same database, hence the need for the constant testing. I'm aware of TDD and automated tests, but that doesn't exist at the moment. Any advice?

    Read the article

  • Reading a WAV file into VST.Net to process with a plugin

    - by Paul
    Hello, I'm trying to use the VST.Net and NAudio frameworks to build an application that processes audio using a VST plugin. Ideally, the application should load a wav or mp3 file, process it with the VST, and then write a new file. I have done some poking around with the VST.Net library and was able to compile and run the samples (specifically the VST Host one). What I have not figured out is how to load an audio file into the program and have it write a new file back out. I'd like to be able to configure the properties for the VST plugin via C#, and be able to process the audio with 2 or more consecutive VSTs. Using NAudio, I was able to create this simple script to copy an audio file. Now I just need to get the output from the WaveFileReader into the VST.Net framework somehow. private void processAudio() { reader = new WaveFileReader("c:/bass.wav"); writer = new WaveFileWriter("c:/bass-copy.wav", reader.WaveFormat); int read; while ((read = reader.Read(buffer, 0, buffer.Length)) > 0) { writer.WriteData(buffer, 0, read); } textBox1.Text = "done"; reader.Close(); reader.Dispose(); writer.Close(); writer.Dispose(); } Please help!! Thanks References: http://vstnet.codeplex.com (VST.Net) http://naudio.codeplex.com (NAudio)

    Read the article

  • java.sql.Exception ClosedConnection

    - by john
    I am getting the following error: java.sql.SQLException: Closed Connection at oracle.jdbc.driver.DatabaseError.throwSqlException(DatabaseError.java:112) at oracle.jdbc.driver.DatabaseError.throwSqlException(DatabaseError.java:146) at oracle.jdbc.driver.DatabaseError.throwSqlException(DatabaseError.java:208) at oracle.jdbc.driver.PhysicalConnection.getMetaData(PhysicalConnection.java:1508) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.execution.SqlExecutor.moveToNextResultsSafely(SqlExecutor.java:348) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.execution.SqlExecutor.handleMultipleResults(SqlExecutor.java:320) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.execution.SqlExecutor.executeQueryProcedure(SqlExecutor.java:277) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.mapping.statement.ProcedureStatement.sqlExecuteQuery(ProcedureStatement.java:34) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.mapping.statement.GeneralStatement.executeQueryWithCallback(GeneralStatement.java:173) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.mapping.statement.GeneralStatement.executeQueryForList(GeneralStatement.java:123) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.impl.SqlMapExecutorDelegate.queryForList(SqlMapExecutorDelegate.java:614) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.impl.SqlMapExecutorDelegate.queryForList(SqlMapExecutorDelegate.java:588) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.impl.SqlMapSessionImpl.queryForList(SqlMapSessionImpl.java:118) at org.springframework.orm.ibatis.SqlMapClientTemplate$3.doInSqlMapClient(SqlMapClientTemplate.java:268) at org.springframework.orm.ibatis.SqlMapClientTemplate.execute(SqlMapClientTemplate.java:193) at org.springframework.orm.ibatis.SqlMapClientTemplate.executeWithListResult(SqlMapClientTemplate.java:219) at org.springframework.orm.ibatis.SqlMapClientTemplate.queryForList(SqlMapClientTemplate.java:266) at gov.hud.pih.eiv.web.authentication.AuthenticationUserDAO.isPihUserDAO(AuthenticationUserDAO.java:24) at gov.hud.pih.eiv.web.authorization.AuthorizationProxy.isAuthorized(AuthorizationProxy.java:125) at gov.hud.pih.eiv.web.authorization.AuthorizationFilter.doFilter(AuthorizationFilter.java:224) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:246) at I am really stumped and can't figure out what could be causing this error. I am not able to reproduce the error on my machine but on production it is coming a lot of times. I am using iBatis in the whole application so there are no chances of my code not closing connections. We do have stored procedures that run for a long time before they return results (around 15 seconds). does anyone have any ideas on what could be causing this? I dont think raising the # of connections on the application server will fix this issue buecause if connections were running out then we'd see "Error on allocating connections"

    Read the article

  • Java and tomcat vs ASP.NET and IIS

    - by Mark Cooper
    Until recently I'd considered myself to be a pretty good web programmer (coming up for 10yrs commercial experience on a variety of e-commerce, static and enterprise applications). I'm self taught and have always used the Microsoft product stack (ASP, ASP.NET)... My applications are always functional, relatively bug free, but have never been lightening quick. As a frequent web user I always found this to be the norm... how fast are the websites from the big tech players (eBay, Facebook, Microsoft, IBM, Dell, Telerik etc etc) - in truth none are particularly fast. I always attributed this to "the way things are with web apps"... ...then I cam across a product called Jira from atlasian and this has stopped me in my tracks... This application is fast, and I mean blindingly fast.. too fast to time the switches between pages, fully live content, lots of images and data and cross references etc etc... I run this on an intranet, with a large application DB, and this is running on a very normal server (single processor, SATA HDD, 8GB RAM). Am I missing something?? Are my programming techniques that bad?? I am wondering if this speed gain is down to it being written in Java and running on Tomcat. Does anyone have any benchmarks to compare JSP / ASP or Tomcat / IIS??? Thanks, Mark NOTE: this isn't a blatant plug for Jira. I don't work for them or have any affiliation to them... but I would like to be able to write applications like them :)

    Read the article

  • Selenium RC test - IE gives 403 error on Tomcat app, Tomcat root OK

    - by Ed Daniel
    I'm new to Selenium RC, having previously used Selenium IDE and only run tests in Firefox. I'm trying to get a basic test to run using Selenium RC through Eclipse; my test works OK in Firefox, and in Safari now that I've killed the pop-up blocker, but IE8 is causing a SeleniumException to be thrown, containing an "XHR ERROR" with a 403 response: com.thoughtworks.selenium.SeleniumException: XHR ERROR: URL = http://localhost:8080/pims Response_Code = 403 Error_Message = Forbidden at com.thoughtworks.selenium.HttpCommandProcessor.throwAssertionFailureExceptionOrError(HttpCommandProcessor.java:97) at com.thoughtworks.selenium.HttpCommandProcessor.doCommand(HttpCommandProcessor.java:91) at com.thoughtworks.selenium.DefaultSelenium.open(DefaultSelenium.java:335) at org.pimslims.seleniumtest.FirstTest.testNew(FirstTest.java:32) ... I can do a similar test on http:/ /localhost:8080 (space between the slashes here because SO thinks I'm spamming) and it's fine - I can make IE open that Tomcat default page and click a link. It's only if I try to open my application at http:/ /localhost:8080/pims that I see this error - and only in IE. I can open that URL in IE by typing it into the address bar. I was convinced that there's some setting in IE that's causing this, but I've tried everything I can think of. http:/ /localhost:8080 is in my Trusted Sites, and I've turned the security for that zone down to the minimum, allowed anything that looks related to popups, etc. If I try adding http:/ /localhost:8080/pims/ to Trusted Sites, IE says it's already there. I've also messed around with proxy settings, to no avail, but may have missed something obvious. I've tried starting the test with *iexplore, *iehta, and *iexploreproxy - all behave the same. Is there something I've missed? For reference, here is my test case - this works as is, in Firefox, opening the PIMS application's index page and clicking a link: public class FirstTest extends SeleneseTestCase { @Override public void setUp() throws Exception { this.setUp("http://localhost:8080/", "*firefox"); } public void testNew() throws Exception { final Selenium s = this.selenium; s.open("/pims"); s.click("logInOutLink"); s.waitForPageToLoad("30000"); } } Any help is greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Dealing with asynchronous control structures (Fluent Interface?)

    - by Christophe Herreman
    The initialization code of our Flex application is doing a series of asynchronous calls to check user credentials, load external data, connecting to a JMS topic, etc. Depending on the context the application runs in, some of these calls are not executed or executed with different parameters. Since all of these calls happen asynchronously, the code controlling them is hard to read, understand, maintain and test. For each call, we need to have some callback mechanism in which we decide what call to execute next. I was wondering if anyone had experimented with wrapping these calls in executable units and having a Fluent Interface (FI) that would connect and control them. From the top of my head, the code might look something like: var asyncChain:AsyncChain = execute(LoadSystemSettings) .execute(LoadAppContext) .if(IsAutologin) .execute(AutoLogin) .else() .execute(ShowLoginScreen) .etc; asyncChain.execute(); The AsyncChain would be an execution tree, build with the FI (and we could of course also build one without a FI). This might be an interesting idea for environments that run in a single threaded model like the Flash Player, Silverlight, JavaFX?, ... Before I dive into the code to try things out, I was hoping to get some feedback.

    Read the article

  • Can I make a "TCP packet modifier" using tun/tap and raw sockets?

    - by benhoyt
    I have a Linux application that talks TCP, and to help with analysis and statistics, I'd like to modify the data in some of the TCP packets that it sends out. I'd prefer to do this without hacking the Linux TCP stack. The idea I have so far is to make a bridge which acts as a "TCP packet modifier". My idea is to connect to the application via a tun/tap device on one side of the bridge, and to the network card via raw sockets on the other side of the bridge. My concern is that when you open a raw socket it still sends packets up to Linux's TCP stack, and so I couldn't modify them and send them on even if I wanted to. Is this correct? A pseudo-C-code sketch of the bridge looks like: tap_fd = open_tap_device("/dev/net/tun"); raw_fd = open_raw_socket(); for (;;) { select(fds = [tap_fd, raw_fd]); if (FD_ISSET(tap_fd, &fds)) { read_packet(tap_fd); modify_packet_if_needed(); write_packet(raw_fd); } if (FD_ISSET(raw_fd, &fds)) { read_packet(raw_fd); modify_packet_if_needed(); write_packet(tap_fd); } } Does this look possible, or are there other better ways of achieving the same thing? (TCP packet bridging and modification.)

    Read the article

  • How do I create a C# .NET Web Service that Posts items to a users Facebook Wall?

    - by Jourdan
    I'm currently toying around with the Clarity .NET Facebook API but am finding certain situations with authentication to be kind of limiting. I keep going through the tutorials but always end up hitting a brick wall with what I want to do. Perhaps I just cannot do it? I want to make a Web Service that takes in the require credentials (APIKey, SecretKey, UsersId (or Session Key?) and whatever else I would need), and then do various tasks: Post to users wall, add events etc. The problem I am having is this: The current documentation, examples and support provide a way to do this within the context of a Web site. Within this context, the required "connect" popup can be initiated and allow the user to authenticate and and connect the application. From that point on the Web can go on with its business to do what it needs to do. If I close the browser and come back to the page, I have to push the connect button again. Except this time, since I was already logged into facebook, I don't have to go through the whole connection process. But still ... How do applications like Tweetdeck get around this? They seemingly have you connect once, when you install their application, and you don't have to do it again. I would assume that this same idea would have to applied towards making a web service because: You don't know what context the user is in when making the Web service call. The web service methods being called could be coming from a Windows Form app, or code behind in a workflow.

    Read the article

  • WPF TextBox Interceping RoutedUICommands

    - by Joseph Sturtevant
    I am trying to get Undo/Redo keyboard shortcuts working in my WPF application (I have my own custom functionality implemented using the Command Pattern). It seems, however, that the TextBox control is intercepting my "Undo" RoutedUICommand. What is the simplest way to disable this so that I can catch Ctrl+Z at the root of my UI tree? I would like to avoid putting a ton of code/XAML into each TextBox in my application if possible. The following briefly demonstrates the problem: <Window x:Class="InputBindingSample.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:loc="clr-namespace:InputBindingSample" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Window.CommandBindings> <CommandBinding Command="loc:Window1.MyUndo" Executed="MyUndo_Executed" /> </Window.CommandBindings> <DockPanel LastChildFill="True"> <StackPanel> <Button Content="Ctrl+Z Works If Focus Is Here" /> <TextBox Text="Ctrl+Z Doesn't Work If Focus Is Here" /> </StackPanel> </DockPanel> </Window> using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Input; namespace InputBindingSample { public partial class Window1 { public static readonly RoutedUICommand MyUndo = new RoutedUICommand("MyUndo", "MyUndo", typeof(Window1), new InputGestureCollection(new[] { new KeyGesture(Key.Z, ModifierKeys.Control) })); public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void MyUndo_Executed(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("MyUndo!"); } } }

    Read the article

  • FileInputStream throws NullPointerException.

    - by Mohamed
    I am getting nullpointerexception, don't know what actually is causing it. I read from java docs that fileinputstream only throws securityexception so don't understand why this exception pops up. here is my code snippet. private Properties prop = new Properties(); private String settings_file_name = "settings.properties"; private String settings_dir = "\\.autograder\\"; public Properties get_settings() { String path = this.get_settings_directory(); System.out.println(path + this.settings_dir + this.settings_file_name); if (this.settings_exist(path)) { try { FileInputStream in = new FileInputStream(path + this.settings_dir + this.settings_file_name); this.prop.load(in); in.close(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } else { this.create_settings_file(path); try{ this.prop.load(new FileInputStream(path + this.settings_dir + this.settings_file_name)); }catch (IOException ex){ //ex.printStackTrace(); } } return this.prop; } private String get_settings_directory() { String user_home = System.getProperty("user.home"); if (user_home == null) { throw new IllegalStateException("user.home==null"); } return user_home; } and here is my stacktrace: C:\Users\mohamed\.autograder\settings.properties Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NullPointerException at autograder.Settings.get_settings(Settings.java:41) at autograder.Application.start(Application.java:20) at autograder.Main.main(Main.java:19) Java Result: 1 BUILD SUCCESSFUL (total time: 0 seconds) Line 41 is: this.prop.load(in);

    Read the article

  • COM access to classic ASP intrinsic objects

    - by wrench
    I'm converting a VB6 COM object that works with classic ASP to a c# .Net COM Object Interop_COMSVCS.ObjectContext objContext; Interop_COMSVCS.AppServer objAppServer; objAppServer = null; // need to initialize before using objAppServer = new Interop_COMSVCS.AppServer(); objContext = objAppServer.GetObjectContext(); oApplication = (Interop_ASP.Application)objContext["Application"]; oSession = (Interop_ASP.Session)objContext["Session"]; oResponse = (Interop_ASP.Response)objContext["Response"]; oRequest = (Interop_ASP.Request)objContext["Request"]; oSession works to store local information to.from ASP storage oResponse can do simple writes to the browser BUT any code like oRequest.Cookies["sessionId"] or oResponse.Cookies["sessionId"] doesn't provide any sort of read or write access. Any cast or conversion I trry to do tells me I'm dealing with an empty or null System Object. There doesn't seem to be any sort of syntax to get/set the cookie collection. With COM+ I've seesn soem articles that indcate a switch for Access to ASP Intrinsic Objects -- that seesm to describe my issue, but I'd rather not use COM+. There are also some articles that indicate if I was using ASP.NET I could use HttpContext and HttpRequest/Response, but that's a completely different set of data objects that don't seem to be available with classic ASP. I've been stuck on this fopr a few days. Any help appreciated.

    Read the article

  • C# Static constructors design problem - need to specify parameter

    - by Neil Dobson
    I have a re-occurring design problem with certain classes which require one-off initialization with a parameter such as the name of an external resource such as a config file. For example, I have a corelib project which provides application-wide logging, configuration and general helper methods. This object could use a static constructor to initialize itself but it need access to a config file which it can't find itself. I can see a couple of solutions, but both of these don't seem quite right: 1) Use a constructor with a parameter. But then each object which requires corelib functionality should also know the name of the config file, so this has to be passed around the application. Also if I implemented corelib as a singleton I would also have to pass the config file as a parameter to the GetInstance method, which I believe is also not right. 2) Create a static property or method to pass through the config file or other external parameter. I have sort of used the latter method and created a Load method which initializes an inner class which it passes through the config file in the constructor. Then this inner class is exposed through a public property MyCoreLib. public static class CoreLib { private static MyCoreLib myCoreLib; public static void Load(string configFile) { myCoreLib = new MyCoreLib(configFile); } public static MyCoreLib MyCoreLib { get { return myCoreLib; } } public class MyCoreLib { private string configFile; public MyCoreLib(string configFile) { this.configFile = configFile; } public void DoSomething() { } } } I'm still not happy though. The inner class is not initialized until you call the load method, so that needs to be considered anywhere the MyCoreLib is accessed. Also there is nothing to stop someone calling the load method again. Any other patterns or ideas how to accomplish this?

    Read the article

  • Flash Security Error Accessing URL with crossdomain.xml

    - by user163757
    Hello, I recently deployed a Flash application to a server, and am now experiencing errors when making HTTPService requests. I have put what I believe to be the most permissive crossdomain.xml possible in the wwwroot folder, and still get the errors. Interestingly enough, the error only seems to occur when the request is made from a direct user interaction (i.e. button click). The application makes other requests that are initiated by other means(i.e creationComplete) , and they seem to work as expected. Anyone see anything wrong with the crossdomain.xml, or have any other suggestions? ERROR MESSAGE [RPC Fault faultString="Security error accessing url" faultCode="Channel.Security.Error" faultDetail="Destination: DefaultHTTP"] at mx.rpc::AbstractInvoker/http://www.adobe.com/2006/flex/mx/internal%3A%3AfaultHandler() at mx.rpc::Responder/fault() at mx.rpc::AsyncRequest/fault() at DirectHTTPMessageResponder/securityErrorHandler() at flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEventFunction() at flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEvent() at flash.net::URLLoader/redirectEvent() <!DOCTYPE cross-domain-policy SYSTEM "http://www.macromedia.com/xml/dtds/cross-domain-policy.dtd"> <cross-domain-policy> <site-control permitted-cross-domain-policies="all" /> <allow-access-from domain="*" secure="false" /> <allow-http-request-headers-from domain="*" headers="*" secure="false" /> </cross-domain-policy>

    Read the article

  • WCF MessageHeaders in OperationContext.Current

    - by Nate Bross
    If I use code like this [just below] to add Message Headers to my OperationContext, will all future out-going messages contain that data on any new ClientProxy defined from the same "run" of my application? The objective, is to pass a parameter or two to each OpeartionContract w/out messing with the signature of the OperationContract, since the parameters being passed will be consistant for all requests for a given run of my client application. public void DoSomeStuff() { var proxy = new MyServiceClient(); Guid myToken = Guid.NewGuid(); MessageHeader<Guid> mhg = new MessageHeader<Guid>(myToken); MessageHeader untyped = mhg.GetUntypedHeader("token", "ns"); OperationContext.Current.OutgoingMessageHeaders.Add(untyped); proxy.DoOperation(...); } public void DoSomeOTHERStuff() { var proxy = new MyServiceClient(); Guid myToken = Guid.NewGuid(); MessageHeader<Guid> mhg = new MessageHeader<Guid>(myToken); MessageHeader untyped = mhg.GetUntypedHeader("token", "ns"); OperationContext.Current.OutgoingMessageHeaders.Add(untyped); proxy.DoOtherOperation(...); } In other words, is it safe to refactor the above code like this? bool isSetup = false; public void SetupMessageHeader() { if(isSetup) { return; } Guid myToken = Guid.NewGuid(); MessageHeader<Guid> mhg = new MessageHeader<Guid>(myToken); MessageHeader untyped = mhg.GetUntypedHeader("token", "ns"); OperationContext.Current.OutgoingMessageHeaders.Add(untyped); isSetup = true; } public void DoSomeStuff() { var proxy = new MyServiceClient(); SetupMessageHeader(); proxy.DoOperation(...); } public void DoSomeOTHERStuff() { var proxy = new MyServiceClient(); SetupMessageHeader(); proxy.DoOtherOperation(...); } Since I don't really understand what's happening there, I don't want to cargo cult it and just change it and let it fly if it works, I'd like to hear your thoughts on if it is OK or not.

    Read the article

  • Servlet receives null from Remote EJB3 Session Bean

    - by Hank
    I'm sure this is a beginner error... So I have a JEE6 application with entities, facades (implementing the persistence layer) and Stateless Session Beans (EJB3) with Remote interfaces (providing access to the entities via facades). This is working fine. Via the SLSB I can retrieve and manipulate entities. Now, I'm trying to do this from a Web Application (deployed on the same Glassfish, entity+interface definitions from JEE app imported as separate jar). I have a Servlet, that receives an instance of the SLSB injected. I get it to retrieve an entity, and the following happens (I can see it in the logs): the remote SLSB gets instantiated, its method called SLSB instantiates the facade, calls the 'get' method facade retrieves object from DB, returns it SLSB returns the object to the caller (all is good until here) calling servlet receives .. null !! What is going wrong? This should work, right? MyServlet: public class MyServlet extends HttpServlet { @EJB private CampaignControllerRemote campaignController; // remote SLSB protected void processRequest(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { response.setContentType("text/plain"); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); try { Campaign c = campaignController.getCampaign(5L); // id of an existing campaign out.println("Got "+ c.getId()); // c is null !! } finally { out.close(); } } ... } Pls let me know if you want to see other code, and I'll update the post.

    Read the article

  • [iPhone] dyld: Library not loaded - When app run from the command line

    - by user142764
    Hi, I face some difficulties when adding a framework to my project when i run an iPhone app from the command line. My final goal is to run applications tests from an automated build process. When i run my app from xCode : I add a "Copy File" build phase to my target and everything goes fine. The copy is set to $(BUILT_PRODUCTS_DIR) as "Absolute path" When i run my app from the terminal (using iphonesim project) i get this error : dyld: Library not loaded: @rpath/OCMock.framework/Versions/A/OCMock UIKitApplication:indemnisation[0xb894][26380] Referenced from: /Users/Admin/Library/Application Support/iPhone Simulator/User/Applications/CD5729B5-A674-49B2-91F6-AD398094B6F8/indemINT.app/indemINT What i dont understand is that the copy build phase just copies the framework files in the same directory that the app. When i run the app from the command line the framework files are already in the same directory. Does anyone knows why it doesn't work ? I've also tried to add the OCMock.framework in the following directories (without success) : /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneSimulator.platform/Developer/SDKs/iPhoneSimulator3.0.sdk/System/Library /Library/Frameworks /Users/Admin/Library/Application Support/iPhone Simulator/User/Applications/CD5729B5-A674-49B2-91F6-AD398094B6F8 Thanks in advance, Vincent.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 870 871 872 873 874 875 876 877 878 879 880 881  | Next Page >