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• CSS: how to move element from one column to another one without changing the html ?

  - by Patrick

  hi, I'm using css to edit the content of a page (NB. I cannot edit html code). I have 2 columns div1, div2. Each columns have several children (containing text). If the block has 2 or more lines of text all successive content is automatically moved down. I need to move a chidlren from the first column to the second one, in the middle. I was considering to use absolute positioning but then I realize how children are not anymore moving down as the number of text lines increases. How can I solve this ? <div id=div1> <div> blabla </div> <div> blabla </div> <div> blabla </div> </div> <div id=div2> <div> blabla </div> <div> blabla </div> <div> blabla </div> </div> thanks

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• Is there a way to rotate an html table?

  - by Josh

  Is there a way to rotate an html table? So, say I had a table like this: <table id="table-1" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="2"> <tr><td>1</td></tr> <tr><td>2</td></tr> <tr><td>3</td></tr> <tr><td>4</td></tr> <tr><td>5</td></tr> <tr><td>6</td></tr> </table> and wanted to some sort of button that had javascript behind it that could rotate the table any which direction. For example, clicking the right button, results in: <table id="table-1" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="2"> <tr><td>6</td><td>5</td><td>4</td><td>3</td><td>2</td><td>1</td></tr> </table> I have a drag and drop plugin that uses a table, and I am trying to do a piece that allows for a user to add to a queue (that results in the table), and then they can also rotate it around as well. Thanks.

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• Search box with images strange issue in ie

  - by mebots

  Have the following searchbox image: With the following code and css: #searchcontainer { margin: 40px 0 0 0; } .search { float: right; margin: 0; padding: 0; height: 21px; width: 310px; } .search input, .search button { margin: 0; padding: 0; font-size: 0.9em; color: #A7A9AC; border: 0; outline: none; } .search input.box { margin: 0; padding: 2px 5px 0 5px; width:230px; height: 19px; background: #FFF url(images/search.gif) no-repeat top left; } .search input.btn { margin: 0 0 0 -5px; padding: 0; width:70px; height: 21px; cursor:pointer; cursor: hand; /* cross browser */ text-indent: -9999px; background: #FFF url(images/search.gif) no-repeat top right; } <div id="searchcontainer"> <form id="searchform" class="search" method="post" action="#"> <input name="box" type="text" value="zoek..." class="box" /> <input name="btn" type="button" class="btn" /> </form> </div> In firefox it looks ok, but in ie and chrome the button "Zoek" goes down a bit, see image In my opinion the css is ok. but can't find where it goes wrong.

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• How to set the ActiveMQ redeliveryPolicy on a queue?

  - by edbras

  How do I set the redeliveryPolicy in ActiveMQ on a Queue? 1) In the doc, see: activeMQ Redelivery, the explain that you should set it on the ConnectionFactory or Connection. But I want to use different value's for different Queue's. 2) Apart from that, I don't seem to get it work. Setting it on the connection factory in Spring (I am using activemq 5.4.2. with Spring 3.0) like this don't seem to have any effect: <amq:connectionFactory id="amqConnectionFactory" brokerURL="${jms.factory.url}" > <amq:properties> <amq:redeliveryPolicy maximumRedeliveries="6" initialRedeliveryDelay="15000" useExponentialBackOff="true" backOffMultiplier="5"/> </amq:properties> </amq:connectionFactory> I also tried to set it as property on the defined Queue, but that also seem to be ignored as the redelivery occurs sooner that the defined values: <amq:queue id="jmsQueueDeclarationSnd" physicalName="${jms.queue.declaration.snd}" > <amq:properties> <amq:redeliveryPolicy maximumRedeliveries="6" initialRedeliveryDelay="15000" useExponentialBackOff="true" backOffMultiplier="5"/> </amq:properties> </amq:queue> Thanks

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• Substitute User Controls on Failure

  - by Brian

  Recently, I had a user control I was developing throw an exception. I know what caused the exception, but this issue got me thinking. If I have a user control throw an exception for whatever reason and I wish to replace that usercontrol with something else (e.g. an error saying, "Sorry, this part of the page broke.") and perhaps log the error, what would be a good way to do it that could be done independently of what the user control is or does (i.e. I'm not saying what the user control does/is, because I want an answer where that is irrelevant). Code sample: <asp:TableRow VerticalAlign="Top" HorizontalAlign="Left"> <asp:TableCell> <UR:MyUserControl ID="MyUserControl3" runat="server" FormatString="<%$ AppSettings:RVUC %>" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:WPDBC %>" Title="CO" /> </asp:TableCell> <asp:TableCell> <UR:MyUserControl ID="MyUserControl4" runat="server" FormatString="<%$ AppSettings:RVUA %>" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:WPDBA %>" Title="IEAO" /> </asp:TableCell> </asp:TableRow>

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• Error in value of default parameter [Bug in Visual C++ 2008?]

  - by HellBoy

  I am facing following issue while trying to use template in my code I have some C++ code which i call from C functions. Problem is I am getting different values in the following code for statement 1 and 2. Type id : unsigned int statement 1 : 4 statement 2 : 1 C++ Code : template <typename T> void func(T* value, unsigned int len = sizeof(T)) { cout << "Type id : " << typeid(T).name() << endl; cout << "statement 1 " << sizeof(T) << endl; cout << "statement 2 " << len << endl; } template <typename T> void func1(T data) { T val = data; func(&val); } C Code : void test(void *ptr, unsigned int len) { switch(len) { case 1: func1(*(static_cast<uint32_t *>(ptr)) break; } } This happens only on windows. On Linux it works fine.

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• undefined method `code' for nil:NilClass message with rails and a legacy database

  - by Jude Osborn

  I'm setting up a very simple rails 3 application to view data in a legacy MySQL database. The legacy database is mostly rails ORM compatible, except that foreign key fields are pluralized. For example, my "orders" table has a foreign key field to the "companies" table called "companies_id" (rather than "company_id"). So naturally I'm having to use the ":foreign_key" attribute of "belongs_to" to set the field name manually. I haven't used rails in a few years, but I'm pretty sure I'm doing everything right, yet I get the following error when trying to access "order.currency.code": undefined method `code' for nil:NilClass This is a very simple application so far. The only thing I've done is generate the application and a bunch of scaffolds for each of the legacy database tables. Then I've gone into some of the models to make adjustments to accommodate the above mentioned difference in database naming conventions, and added some fields to the views. That's it. No funny business. So my database tables look like this (relevant fields only): orders ------ id description invoice_number currencies_id currencies ---------- id code description My Order model looks like this: class Order < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :currency, :foreign_key=>'currencies_id' end My Currency model looks like this: class Currency < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :orders end The relevant view snippet looks like this: <% @orders.each do |order| %> <tr> <td><%= order.description %></td> <td><%= order.invoice_number %></td> <td><%= order.currency.code %></td> </tr> <% end %> I'm completely out of ideas. Any suggestions?

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• Accessing preloaded images from parent script two use in child script. How?

  - by Matt

  I'm trying to update an image in a parent window with clickable links in a child window. I've preloaded the images in the parent window with one javascript file. "scriptss.js" My problem is I need to access the preloaded images of the parent window with the childscript "scriptremote.js" Thanks again for all the JS Help! The JS (scriptss.js) var newWindow = null; window.onload = init; var i = 0; image_object = new Image(); myImages = new Array(); // declare array myImages[0]="images/img1.jpg" // load array myImages[1]="images/img2.jpg" myImages[2]="images/img3.jpg" myImages[3]="images/img4.jpg" myImages[4]="images/img5.jpg" myImages[5]="images/img6.jpg" Here's the HTML for parent window: <img src="" width="200px" height="200px" id="myimage" name="myimage" /></img> Here's the JS for child window: window.onload = init; function init() { } function first_image() { window.parent.image_object.src = myImages[3]; //Problem happens here I think document.getElementById("myimage")window.parent.src = window.parent.image_object.src; } The HTML Child Window <h1>My Remote</h1> <a href="#" id="first" onclick="first_image()" >First Image</a> </br>

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• jquery asp.net combo box question

  - by coson

  Good Day, I have a small form with a combo box (ASP.NET Drop Down List control) and a text box (with a DIV id txtName). When the selected index of the combo box changes, I want to clear out the text box. I understand that: $("#txtName").val(''); clears the text box value The thing is the combo box. It contains a list of integers representing the months of the year. The drop down control is called ddlMonths. $("#ddlMonths").change(function() { $("#txtName").val(''); }); I thought by using change, an onSelectedIndexChange event handler would be associated with this control. I also tried (because I've ran into the client id being mangled in ASP.NET w/ jQuery) this: $("#<%=ddlMonths.ClientID%>").change(function() { $("#<%=txtName.ClientID%>").val(''); }); and neither approach seems to be working. Am I missing something? TIA, coson

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• jquery anchor click doesn't seem to work....

  - by Pandiya Chendur

  Here is function , <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { getRecordspage(1, 5); $("a.page-numbers").click(function() { alert(1); getRecordspage($(this).text(), 5); return false; }); }); And in my page i am appending anchors dynamically to this div, <div id="pager" class="pager"> //my anchors will be present here... </div> i am appending anchors dynamically... All anchors will have class="page-numbers"... How it can be done... When inspected through firebug my pager div had this when i clicked 3, <div class="pager" id="pager"> <a class="page-numbers prev" href="#">Prev</a> <a class="page-numbers" href="#">1</a> <a class="page-numbers" href="#">2</a> <span class="page-numbers current">3</span> <a class="page-numbers" href="#">4</a> <a class="page-numbers next" href="#">Next</a></div>

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• problem using 'as_json' in my model and 'render :json' => in my controller (rails)

  - by patrick

  Hi everyone. I am trying to create a unique json data structure, and I have run into a problem that I can't seem to figure out. In my controller, I am doing: favorite_ids = Favorites.all.map(&:photo_id) data = { :albums => PhotoAlbum.all.to_json, :photos => Photo.all.to_json(:favorite => lambda {|photo| favorite_ids.include?(photo.id)}) } render :json => data and in my model: def as_json(options = {}) { :name => self.name, :favorite => options[:favorite].is_a?(Proc) ? options[:favorite].call(self) : options[:favorite] } end The problem is, rails encodes the values of 'photos' & 'albums' (in my data hash) as JSON twice, and this breaks everything... The only way I could get this to work is if I call 'as_json' instead of 'to_json': data = { :albums => PhotoAlbum.all.as_json, :photos => Photo.all.as_json(:favorite => lambda {|photo| favorite_ids.include?(photo.id)}) } However, when I do this, my :favorite = lambda option no longer makes it into the model's as_json method.......... So, I either need a way to tell 'render :json' not to encode the values of the hash so I can use 'to_json' on the values myself, or I need a way to get the parameters passed into 'as_json' to actually show up there....... I hope someone here can help... Thanks!

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• Passing Javascript value to PHP Variable using ajax

  - by shels

  I am trying to use a Flash detection script to assess whether Flash Plugin is enabled in the user browser so that a different page loads. The Flash detection script is as follows, using jquery 1.8.2 and jquery.jqplugin 1.0.2 <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.8.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.jqplugin.1.0.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#withflash").hide(); $("#noflash").hide(); if ($.browser.flash == true) $("#withflash").show (); else $("#noflash").show (); }); </script> <div id="withflash">Flash Supported</div> <div id="noflash">Flash Not Supported</div> I get the display that "Flash Supported" if Flash Plugin is present.. I need to capture the value whether flash plugin value is true in a php variable $hasFlashSupport as below: <?php echo " $hasFlashSupport"; exit; ?> I am aware that PHP is server based and Javascript is client based.. Hence Ajax would be a nice option to capture the javascript variable to my php variable. I am totally ignorant about Ajax syntax and how to achieve it. Request the experts here to help me out with the code on how this can be achieved... Thanking all of you in advance..

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• please suggest mysql query for this

  - by I Like PHP

  I HAVE TWO TABLES shown below table_joining id join_id(PK) transfer_id(FK) unit_id transfer_date joining_date 1 j_1 t_1 u_1 2010-06-05 2010-03-05 2 j_2 t_2 u_3 2010-05-10 2010-03-10 3 j_3 t_3 u_6 2010-04-10 2010-01-01 4 j_5 NULL u_3 NULL 2010-06-05 5 j_6 NULL u_4 NULL 2010-05-05 table_transfer id transfer_id(PK) pastUnitId futureUnitId effective_transfer_date 1 t_1 u_3 u_1 2010-06-05 2 t_2 u_6 u_1 2010-05-10 3 t_3 u_5 u_3 2010-04-10 now i want to know total employee detalis( using join_id) which are currently working on unit u_3 . means i want only join_id j_1 (has transfered but effective_transfer_date is future date, right now in u_3) j_2 ( tansfered and right now in `u_3` bcoz effective_transfer_date has been passed) j_6 ( right now in `u_3` and never transfered) what i need to take care of below steps( as far as i know ) <1> first need to check from table_joining whether transfer_id is NULL or not <2> if transfer_id= is NULL then see unit_id=u_3 where joining_date <=CURDATE() ( means that person already joined u_3) <3> if transfer_id is NOT NULL then go to table_transfer using transfer_id (foreign key reference) <4> now see the effective_transfer_date regrading that transfer_id whether effective_transfer_date<=CURDATE() <5> if transfer date has been passed(means transfer has been done) then return futureUnitID otherwise return pastUnitID i used two separate query but don't know how to join those query?? for step <1 ans <2 SELECT unit_id FROM table_joining WHERE joining_date<=CURDATE() AND transfer_id IS NULL AND unit_id='u_3' for step<5 SELECT IF(effective_transfer_date <= CURDATE(),futureUnitId,pastUnitId) AS currentUnitID FROM table_transfer // here how do we select only those rows which have currentUnitID='u_3' ?? please guide me the process?? i m just confused with JOINS. i think using LEFT JOIN can return the data i need, or if we use subquery value to main query? but i m not getting how to implement ...please help me. Thanks for helping me alwayz

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• Toggle classes with radio button in jQuery

  - by dardub

  I have a set of radio buttons where when I click a radio button, I want the label to change color or whatever. But when I click another radio button, the color goes away. Therefore I have something like this: jQuery('label').mouseup(function(){ jQuery(this).prev().attr('checked', 'checked'); jQuery('input').next().removeClass('selected'); jQuery('input:checked').next().addClass('selected'); }); if you need to see some html: <input type="radio" id="radio1" name="myRadio" value="option-1" /> <label for="radio1">Swing Gate</label> <input type="radio" id="radio2" name="myRadio" value="option-2" /> <label for="radio2">Swing Gate</label> This first removes 'selected' class from all the labels and then re-applies to only the checked labels. It works and is simple, but I was thinking this might not be the most efficient way of doing this. I imagine that javascript is iterating through each input element and using more resources than necessary. I'm curious if anyone knows of a common way of doing this more efficiently. I seem to be doing this type of thing quite often in my jQuery code. I've just been using jQuery for the past 3 months or so btw.

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• How to verify multiple properties on an object passed as parameter?

  - by Sandbox

  I want to verify multiple properties on an object passed as parameter. Mock<IInternalDataStore> mockOrder = new Mock<IInternalDataStore>(); I can think of doing it this way. Is this correct? Does a better way exist? mockDataStore.Setup(o => o.PlaceQuickOrder(It.Is<IOrder>(order => order.Id == 1))); mockDataStore.Setup(o => o.PlaceQuickOrder(It.Is<IOrder>(order => order.type == OrderType.Qucik))); mockDataStore.Setup(o => o.PlaceQuickOrder(It.Is<IOrder>(order => order.UnitName == "NYunit"))); mockDataStore.VerifyAll(); Another way of acheiving this would be to create a fake order object, expectedOrderObj with expected properties and do something like this: mockDataStore.Setup(o => o.PlaceQuickOrder(It.Is<IOrder>(order => order == expectedOrderObj ))); But, I don't want to override ==. Do we have a solution for this in moq? My classes look something like this: public interface IInternalDataStore { void PlaceQuickOrder(IOrder order); void PlaceUltraFastOrder(IOrder order); } public interface IOrder { public int Id { get; } public OrderType type { get; set; } public string UnitName { get; set; } } public enum OrderType { Qucik = 1, UltraFast = 2 }

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• Hibernate OneToMany and ManyToOne confusion! Null List!

  - by squizz

  I have two tables... For example - Company and Employee (let's keep this real simple) Company( id, name ); Employee( id, company_id ); Employee.company_id is a foreign key. My entity model looks like this... Employee @ManyToOne(cascade = CascadeType.PERSIST) @JoinColumn(name = "company_id") Company company; Company @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, fetch = FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn(name = "company_id") List<Employee> employeeList = new ArrayList<Employee>(); So, yeah I want a list of employees for a company. When I do the following... Employee e = new Employee(); e.setCompany(c); //c is an Company that is already in the database. DAO.insertEmployee(e); //this works fine! If I then get my Company object it's list is empty! Ive tried endless different ways from the Hibernate documentation! Obviously not tried the correct one yet! I just want the list to be populated for me or find out a sensible alternative. Help would be greatly appreciated, thanks!

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• Two forms but only 1 jsp file

  - by joshft91

  Here's what I've got going on. I have one .jsp file. However, I have two forms with multiple inputs inside those forms. What is the best way to detect that one form was submitted but not the other? Here's an example: I have this form: <form name = "login" action="index.jsp" method="get"> Username: <input id="username" name="username" type="text"/><br/> Password: <input id="password" name="password" type="password"/> <input type="submit" Value="Login" ></input> </form> If that button is clicked, I'd like to run this code: String username = request.getParameter("username"); String password = request.getParameter("password"); if((username!= null && !username.trim().equals("")) && (password != null && !username.trim().equals(""))) { DBentry DBentry=new DBentry(); boolean flag = DBentry.isTaken(username); if(flag) {%><script type="text/javascript">alert("Login Successful!");</script><% } else { %><script type="text/javascript">alert("Unrecognized username. Please register!");</script><% } } else { %><script type="text/javascript">alert("Please enter both a username and password!");</script><% } Further down I would have something exactly like it but submitting a different form. Thanks!

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• jQuery Reference First Column in HTML Table

  - by Vic

  I have a table where all of the cells are INPUT tags. I have a function which looks for the first input cell and replaces it with it's value. So this: <tr id="row_0" class="datarow"> <td><input class="tabcell" value="Injuries"></td> <td><input class="tabcell" value="01"></td> becomes this: <tr id="row_0" class="datarow"> <td>Injuries</td> <td><input class="tabcell" value="01"></td> Here is the first part of the function: function setRowLabels() { var row = []; $('.dataRow').each(function(i) { row.push($('td input:eq(0)', this).val() + ' - '); $('td input:eq(0)', this).replaceWith($('td input:eq(0)', this).val()); $('td input:gt(0)', this).each(function(e) { etcetera But when the page reloads, the first column is not an input type, so it changes the second column to text too! Can I tell it to only change the first column, no matter what the type is? I tried $('td:eq(0)', this).replaceWith($('td:eq(0)', this).val()); but it does not work. Any suggestions appreciated! Thanks

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• two view controllers and reusability with delegate

  - by netcharmer

  Newbie question about design patterns in objC. I'm writing a functionality for my iphone app which I plan to use in other apps too. The functionality is written over two classes - Viewcontroller1 and Viewcontroller2. Viewcontroller1 is the root view of a navigation controller and it can push Viewcontroller2. Rest of the app will use only ViewController1 and will never access Viewcontroller2 directly. However, triggered by user events, Viewcontroller2 has to send a message to the rest of the app. My question is what is the best way of achieving it? Currently, I use two level of delegation to send the message out from Viewcontroller2. First send it to Viewcontroller1 and then let Viewcontroller1 send it to rest of the app or the application delegate. So my code looks like - //Viewcontroller1.h @protocol bellDelegate -(int)bellRang:(int)size; @end @interface Viewcontroller1 : UITableViewController <dummydelegate> { id <bellDelegate> delegate; @end //Viewcontroller1.m @implementation Viewcontroller1 -(void)viewDidLoad { //some stuff here Viewcontroller2 *vc2 = [[Viewcontroller2 alloc] init]; vc2.delegate = self; [self.navigationController pushViewController:vc2 animated:YES]; } -(int)dummyBell:(int)size { return([self.delegate bellRang:size]); } //Viewcontroller2.h @protocol dummyDelegate -(int)dummyBell:(int)size; @end @interface Viewcontroller2 : UITableViewController { id <dummyDelegate> delegate; @end //Viewcontroller2.m @implementation Viewcontroller2 -(int)eventFoo:(int)size { rval = [self.delegate dummyBell:size]; } @end

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• Dynamically adding custom view to RemoteViews

  - by Naidu

  Could any help me to do this?My code is like: public CustomClass extends View { //uses ondraw() to do something } For displaying my custom view on HomeScreen i created a class to extend Broadcast Receiver public class customAppWidgetProvider extends BroadcastReceiver { public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { String action = intent.getAction(); if (AppWidgetManager.ACTION_APPWIDGET_UPDATE.equals(action)) { RemoteViews views = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.main); //Here i want to create my custom view class object and i want to add this view to linear layout in main.xml CustomClass object = new CustomClass(context) ; LinearLayout layout = new LinearLayout(context) ; layout.setLayoutParameters(new LayoutParameters(LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT,LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT)); layout.addView(object); views.addview(R.id.linearlayout, (ViewGroup) layout) ; views.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.analog_appwidget, PendingIntent.getActivity(context, 0, new Intent(context, AlarmClock.class), PendingIntent.FLAG_CANCEL_CURRENT)); int[] appWidgetIds = intent.getIntArrayExtra( AppWidgetManager.EXTRA_APPWIDGET_IDS); AppWidgetManager gm = AppWidgetManager.getInstance(context); gm.updateAppWidget(appWidgetIds, views); } } } But adding viewgroup to RemoteView reference is not working... above main.xml contains only LinearLayout.I want to add custom view object to it.But after running this not showing anything on screen.. please help me to do this.Thanks in Advance.

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• Right border shifts to bottom line

  - by zencimusa

  http://jsfiddle.net/W9LXd/ I want the div under the #araclar to have it's right border stay in the same line. How can I prevent it from shifting? CSS: #düzenleyici{ border: 1px solid #000; width: 600px; height: 300px; box-shadow: 1px 1px 4px #000; } #araclar{ width:auto; height:50px; background:#EEEEEE; display:block; padding:5px 15px 5px 15px; border-bottom:1px solid #000; } #araclar>div{ padding:0 5px 0 5px; display:inline; border:1px solid #000; } HTML: <div id="düzenleyici"> <div id="araclar"> <div> Renk <div> </div> </div>

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• Bind data of interface properties only

  - by nivpenso

  I am new in all the Entity Framework models and the data bindings. I created an interface and generated a model class from my Candidate table in the db. public interface ICandidate { String ID { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } string Mail { get; set; } } i created a partial class to the generated Candidate model so i will be able to implement the ICandidate interface without changing any generated code. public partial class Candidates : ICandidate { string ICandidate.ID { get { return this.PK; } set { _PK = value; } } string ICandidate.Name { get{ return this._Name; } set { _Name = value; } } string ICandidate.Mail { get { return this._Email; } set { this._Email = value; } } } Of course, the generated class has more properties than the interface has (Like IsDeleted field that is not necessary for the interface). I want to display in a DataGridView all the candidates from the db. But I want that only the interface's properties will be shown as columns in the DataGridView. Is there a way bind only the interface's properties the the DataGridView? In my DB there is a table called Candidate_To_Company with these columns: PK, Candidate_FK, Company_FK, Insertion_Date I would like to bind this table to DataGridView. but instead of displaying Candidate_FK i would like to display the candidate name from ICandidate. Is this possible?

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• Share variable across site ASP.NET

  - by Anders

  I have a class isSearching with a single boolean property in a 'functions' file in my webapp. On my search page, I have a variable oSearchHandler declared as a Public Shared variable. How can I access the contents of oSearchHandler on other pages in my webapp? Code with Session.... 'search.aspx Public Function oSearchString(ByVal oTextBoxName As String) As String For Each oKey As String In Request.Form.AllKeys If oKey.Contains(oTextBoxName) Then Session.Add("searching", True) Session.Add("search-term", Request.Form(oKey)) Return Request.Form(oKey) End If Next Return "" End Function 'theMaster.master <% If Session("searching") Then %><ul style="float: right;"> <li> <div class="gsSearch"> <asp:TextBox ID="searchbox" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> </div> </li> <li> <div class="gsSearch"> <asp:Button ID="searchbutton" runat="server" Text="search" UseSubmitBehavior="true" PostBackUrl="search.aspx" CssClass="searchBtn" /> </div> </li> </ul> <% End If %> I think that the session will work just fine.

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• Automatically Persisting a Complex Java Object

  - by VeeArr

  For a project I am working on, I need to persist a number of POJOs to a database. The POJOs class definitions are sometimes highly nested, but they should flatten okay, as the nesting is tree-like and contains no cycles (and the base elements are eventually primitives/Strings). It is preferred that the solution used create one table per data type and that the tables will have one field per primitive member in the POJO. Subclassing and similar problems are not issues for this particular project. Does anybody know of any existing solutions that can: Automatically generate a CREATE TABLE definition from the class definition Automatically generate a query to persist an object to the database, given an instance of the object Automatically generate a query to retrieve an object from the database and return it as a POJO, given a key. Solutions that can do this with minimum modifications/annotions to the class files and minimum external configuration are preferred. Example: Java classes //Class to be persisted class TypeA { String guid; long timestamp; TypeB data1; TypeC data2; } class TypeB { int id; int someData; } class TypeC { int id; int otherData; } Could map to CREATE TABLE TypeA ( guid CHAR(255), timestamp BIGINT, data1_id INT, data1_someData INT, data2_id INt, data2_otherData INT ); Or something similar.

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• How do I sort an activerecord result set on a i18n translated column?

  - by PlanetMaster

  Hi, I have the following line in a view: <%= f.select(:province_id, options_from_collection_for_select(Province.find(:all, :conditions => { :country_id => @property.country_id }, :order => "provinces.name ASC"), :id, :name) %> In the province model I have the following: def name I18n.t(super) end Problem is that the :name field is translated (through the province model) and that the ordering is done by activerecord on the english name. The non-english result set can be wrongly sorted this way. We have a province in Belgium called 'Oost-Vlaanderen'. In english that is 'East-Flanders". Not good for sorting:) I need something like this, but it does not work: <%= f.select(:province_id, options_from_collection_for_select(Province.find(:all, :conditions => { :country_id => @property.country_id }, :order => "provinces.I18n.t(name) ASC"), :id, :name) %> What would be the best approach to solve this? As you may have noticed, my coding knowledge is very limited, sorry for that.

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