Search Results

Search found 25391 results on 1016 pages for 'update notification'.

Page 875/1016 | < Previous Page | 871 872 873 874 875 876 877 878 879 880 881 882  | Next Page >

  • Rails Tableless Model

    - by mplacona
    I'm creating a tableless Rails model, and am a bit stuck on how I should use it. Basically I'm trying to create a little application using Feedzirra that scans a RSS feed every X seconds, and then sends me an email with only the updates. I'm actually trying to use it as an activerecord model, and although I can get it to work, it doesn't seem to "hold" data as expected. As an example, I have an initializer method that parses the feed for the first time. On the next requests, I would like to simply call the get_updates method, which according to feedzirra, is the existing object (created during the initialize) that gets updated with only the differences. I'm finding it really hard to understand how this all works, as the object created on the initialize method doesn't seem to persist across all the methods on the model. My code looks something like: def initialize feed parse here end def get_updates feedzirra update passing the feed object here end Not sure if this is the right way of doing it, but it all seems a bit confusing and not very clear. I could be over or under-doing here, but I'd like your opinion about this approach. Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • How can I implement CRUD operations in a base class for an entity framework app?

    - by hminaya
    I'm working a simple EF/MVC app and I'm trying to implement some Repositories to handle my entities. I've set up a BaseObject Class and a IBaseRepository Interface to handle the most basic operations so I don't have to repeat myself each time: public abstract class BaseObject<T> { public XA.Model.Entities.XAEntities db; public BaseObject() { db = new Entities.XAEntities(); } public BaseObject(Entities.XAEntities cont) { db = cont; } public void Delete(T entity) { db.DeleteObject(entity); db.SaveChanges(); } public void Update(T entity) { db.AcceptAllChanges(); db.SaveChanges(); } } public interface IBaseRepository<T> { void Add(T entity); T GetById(int id); IQueryable<T> GetAll(); } But then I find myself having to implement 3 basic methods in every Repository ( Add, GetById & GetAll): public class AgencyRepository : Framework.BaseObject<Agency>, Framework.IBaseRepository<Agency> { public void Add(Agency entity) { db.Companies.AddObject(entity); db.SaveChanges(); } public Agency GetById(int id) { return db.Companies.OfType<Agency>().FirstOrDefault(x => x.Id == id); } public IQueryable<Agency> GetAll() { var agn = from a in db.Companies.OfType<Agency>() select a; return agn; } } How can I get these into my BaseObject Class so I won't run in conflict with DRY.

    Read the article

  • Static files in (Java) App Engine not accessible.

    - by fiXedd
    The example documentation says that you simply need to place your files in war/ (or a subdirectory) and they should be accessible from the host (as long as they aren't JSPs or in WEB-INF). For example, if you place foo.css in war/ then you should be able to access it at http://localhost:8080/foo.css. However, this isn't working for me at all. NONE of my static files are accessible. The docs on appengine-web.xml say that you can also specifically denote certain types as static. I've tried this as well and it makes no difference. Am I missing something obvious? UPDATE: Turns out one of the mappings in my web.xml was a little too aggressive. The following was the culprit: <servlet> <servlet-name>Main</servlet-name> <servlet-class>MainServlet</servlet-class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>Main</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> It seems that it was grabbing everything that wasn't grabbed be one of the other rules, which I don't understand because there was no * on the end of the url-pattern. It also seems to be directly contradictory to the documentation that says: Note: Static files, files that are served verbatim to users such as images, CSS or JavaScript, are handled separately from paths mentioned in the deployment descriptor. A request for a URL path that matches a path to a file in the WAR that's considered a static file will serve the file, regardless of servlet and filter mappings in the deployment descriptor. You can exclude files from those treated as static files using the appengine-web.xml file. So, how can I have a rule that matches the base of my domain (eg. http://www.example.com/) and still allows the static files to filter through?

    Read the article

  • Avoid MySQL multi-results from SP with Execute

    - by hhyhbpen
    Hi, i have an SP like BEGIN DECLARE ... CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE tmptbl_found (...); PREPARE find FROM" INSERT INTO tmptbl_found (SELECT userid FROM ( SELECT userid FROM Soul WHERE .?.?. ORDER BY .?.?. ) AS left_tbl LEFT JOIN Contact ON userid = Contact.userid WHERE Contact.userid IS NULL LIMIT ?) "; DECLARE iter CURSOR FOR SELECT userid, ... FROM Soul ...; ... l:LOOP FETCH iter INTO u_id, ...; ... EXECUTE find USING ...,. . .,u_id,...; ... END LOOP; ... END// and it gives multi-results. Besides it's inconvenient, if i get all this multi-results (which i really don't need at all), about 5 (limit's param) for each of the hundreds of thousands of records in Soul, i'm afraid it will take all my memory (and all in vain). Also, i noticed, if i do prepare from an empty string, it still has multi-results... At least how to get rid of them in the execute statement? And i would like to have a recipe to avoid ANY output from SP, for any possible statement (i also have a lot of "update ..."s and "select ... into "s inside, if they can produce multi's). Tnx for any help...

    Read the article

  • How to detect how many time the users have click the button...

    - by Jerry
    Hello guys. Just want to know if there is a way to detect how many times a user has clicked a button by using Jquery. My main application has a button that can add input fields depend on the users. He/She can adds as many input fields as they need. When they submit the form, The add page will add the data to my database. My current idea is to create a hidden input field and set the value to zero. Every time a user clicks the button, jquery would update the attribute of the hidden input field value. Then the "add page" can detect the loop time. See the example below. I just want to know if there are better practices to do this. Thanks for the helps. main page <form method='post' action='add.php'> //omit <input type="hidden" id="add" name="add" value="0"/> <input type="button" id="addMatch" value="Add a match"/> //omit </form> jquery $(document).ready(function(){ var a =0; $("#addMatch").live('click', function(){ $('#table').append("<input name='match"+a+"Name' />") //the input field will append //as many as the user wants. a++; $('#add').attr('name', 'a'); //pass the a value to hidden input field return false; }); Add Page $a=$_POST['a']; // for($k=0;$k<$a;$k++){ //get all matchName input field $matchName=$_POST['match'.$k.'Name']; //insert the match $updateQuery=mysql_query("INSERT INTO game (team) values('$matchName')",$connection); if(!$updateQuery){ DIE('mysql Error:'+mysql_error()); }

    Read the article

  • JSLINT error: Move all 'var' declarations to the top of the function.

    - by Oleg Yaroshevych
    JSLINT site updated, and I cannot check JS scripts anymore. For me, this warning is not critical, and I don't want to go through thousands of lines to fix this, I want to find more critical problems. Does anybody know how to turn off this error, or use legacy JSLINT? UPDATE Example: function doSomethingWithNodes(nodes){ this.doSomething(); for (var i = 0; i < nodes.length; ++i){ this.doSomethingElse(nodes[i]); } doSomething(); // want to find this problem } jslint.com output: Error: Problem at line 4 character 8: Move all 'var' declarations to the top of the function. for (var i = 0; i < nodes.length; ++i){ Problem at line 4 character 8: Stopping, unable to continue. (44% scanned). Problem: Having variables on top of the functions is new requirement. I cannot use JSLINT to test code, because it stops scanning script on this error. I have a lot of code, and do not want to threat this warning as critical error.

    Read the article

  • WPF closing child- closes parent-window

    - by Thomas Spranger
    i have the pretty same sample as mentioned here. Fast concluded: MainWindow closes when the last childwindow is closed. My Problem: I couldn't solve my problems with the described solutions. I can't produce a program where it als takes place. Only in one of my bigger progs. Maybe someone has an idea or knows any further steps. Thanks for reading - Thomas As requested here's a bit of code: This is the part in the MainWindow: bool editAfterSearch = false; Movie selectedMovie = (Movie)this.listView.SelectedItem; Movie backup = (Movie)selectedMovie.Clone(); if (new OnlineSearchWindow().EditMovieViaOnlineSearch(ref selectedMovie, out editAfterSearch)) { this.coverFlow.Update(selectedMovie); } And that's the part of the ChildWindow: public bool EditMovieViaOnlineSearch(ref Movie preset, out bool editAfter) { this.exitWithOk = false; this.editMovieAfterSearch = false; this.tbx_SearchTerm.Text = preset.Title; this.linkedMovie = preset; this.ShowDialog(); editAfter = editMovieAfterSearch; if (this.exitWithOk) { this.linkedMovie.CloneOnlineInformation(ref preset); preset.Bitmap = this.linkedMovie.Bitmap; return true; } else { return false; } }

    Read the article

  • confused about how to use JSON in C#

    - by Josh
    The answer to just about every single question about using C# with json seems to be "use JSON.NET" but that's not the answer I'm looking for. the reason I say that is, from everything I've been able to read in the documentation, JSON.NET is basically just a better performing version of the DataContractSerializer built into the .net framework... Which means if I want to deserialize a JSON string, I have to define the full, strongly-typed class for EVERY request I might have. so if I have a need to get categories, posts, authors, tags, etc, I have to define a new class for every one of these things. This is fine if I built the client and know exactly what the fields are, but I'm using someone else's api, so I have no idea what the contract is unless I download a sample response string and create the class manually from the JSON string. Is that the only way it's done? Is there not a way to have it create a kind of hashtable that can be read with json["propertyname"]? Finally, if I do have to build the classes myself, what happens when the API changes and they don't tell me (as twitter seems to be notorious for doing)? I'm guessing my entire project will break until I go in and update the object properties... So what exactly is the general workflow when working with JSON? And by general I mean library-agnostic. I want to know how it's done in general, not specifically to a target library... I hope that made sense, this has been a very confusing area to get into... thanks!

    Read the article

  • Unable to create PDB file

    - by Ryan Smith
    For some reason this error started popping up today on one of my projects. Error 1 Unable to write to output file 'C:\MyProject\Release\MyProject.pdb': Unspecified error If I go into advanced compile options and change it to not generate and debug info, my project compiles fine. I have tried setting the permissions on the Release folder to full for everyone, so I would assume it's not a permissions issue. Also, I don't see anything in my log files that would provide me with more information about the issue. Does anyone know why this error would just start showing up or a way to fix it? Thanks. Update: I have rebooted my machine, restarted VS several times and have even completely deleted the existing OBJ file where the issue is happening. It's still giving me the same error. This is a simple one project solution that was working fine just last week. It appears to be an issue with VS trying to build the PDB file because I can delete them out of the Release and Debug folders without issue. When I try rebuilding them VS will start creating the file (about 1.4MB is size) but I still get the error.

    Read the article

  • NSCollectionView: Can the same object not be in the array more than once or is this a bug?

    - by Sean
    I may be doing this all wrong, but I thought I was on the right track until I hit this little snag. Basically I was putting together a toy using NSCollectionView and trying to understand how to hook that all up using IB. I have a button which will add a couple of strings to the NSArrayController: The first time I press this button, my strings appear in the collection view as expected: The second time I press the button, the views scroll down and room is made - but the items don't appear to get added. I just see blank space: The button is implemented as follows (controller is a pointer to the NSArrayController I added in IB): - (IBAction)addStuff:(id)control { [controller addObjects:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"String 1",@"String 2",@"String 3",nil]]; } I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. Rather than try to explain all the connections/binds/etc, if you need more info, I'd be grateful if you could just take a quick look at the toy project itself. UPDATE: After more experimentation as suggested by James Williams, it seems the problem stems from having multiple objects with the same memory address in the array. This confuses either NSArrayController or NSCollectionView (not sure which). Changing my addStuff: to this resulted in the behavior I originally expected: [controller addObjects:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 1"],[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 2"],[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 3"],nil]]; So the question now, I guess, is if this is a bug I should report to Apple or if this is intended/documented behavior and I just missed it?

    Read the article

  • HTML + CSS: fixed background image and body width/min-width (including fiddle)

    - by insertusernamehere
    So, here is my problem. I'm kinda stuck at the moment. I have a huge background image and content in the middle with those attributes: content is centered with margin auto and has a fixed width the content is related to the image (like the image is continued within the content) this relation is only horizontally (vertically scrolling moves everything around) This works actually fine (I'm only talking desktop, not mobile here :) ) with a position fixed on the huge background image. The problem that occurs is the following: When I resize the window to "smaller than the content" the background image gets it width from the body instead of the viewport. So the relation between content and image gets lost. Now I have this little JavaScript which does the trick, but this is of course some overhead I want to avoid: $(window).resize(function(){ img.css('left', (body.width() - img.width()) / 2 ); }); This works with a fixed positioned image, but can get a litty jumpy while calculating. I also tried things like that: <div id="test" style=" position: absolute; z-index: 0; top: 0; left: 0; width: 100%: height: 100%; background: transparent url(content/dummy/brand_backgroud_1600_1.jpg) no-repeat fixed center top; "></div> But this gets me back to my problem described. Is there any "script-less", elegant solution for this problem? UPDATE: now with Fiddle The one I'm trying to solve: http://jsfiddle.net/insertusernamehere/wPmrm/ The one with Javascript that works: http://jsfiddle.net/insertusernamehere/j5E8z/ NOTE The image size is always fixed. The image never gets scaled by the browser. In the JavaScript example it get's blown. So don't care about the size.

    Read the article

  • Difference in BackgroundWorker thread access in VS2010 / .NET 4.0?

    - by Jonners
    Here's an interesting one - in VS2005 / VS2008 running against .NET 2.0 / .NET 3.0 / .NET 3.5, a BackgroundWorker thread may not directly update controls on a WinForms form that initiated that thread - you'll get a System.InvalidOperationException out of the BackgroundWorker stating "Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'thecontrol' accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on". I remember hitting this back in 2004 or so when I first started writing .NET WinForms apps with background threads. There are several ways around the problem - this is not a question asking for that answer. I've been told recently that this kind of operation is now allowed when written in VS2010 / .NET 4.0. This seems unlikely to me, since this kind of object access restriction has always been a fairly fundamental part of thread-safe programming. Allowing a BackgroundWorker thread direct access to objects owned not by itself but by its parent UI form seems contrary to that principle. A trawl through the .NET 4.0 docs hasn't revealed any obvious changes that could account for this behaviour. I don't have VS2010 / .NET 4.0 to test this out - does anyone who has access to that toolset know for sure whether the model has changed to allow that kind of thread interaction? I'd like to either take advantage of it in future, or deploy the cluestick. ;)

    Read the article

  • Multiple remote_form_for on the same page causes duplicate ids

    - by Ben Scheirman
    I've got a rails app that displays a list of items called modules. I'm iterating over these, rendering a partial for each one that includes a remote_form_for call. This all works, but fails HTML validation because my form text fields all have the same id. Is there a :prefix option on the form (or something else) I can use to get around this? Update: (some code) //_module_form.html.erb <% remote_form_for app_module do |f| %> <%= f.label :name %> <%= f.text_field :name %> <%= submit_tag 'Save' %> <%end %> //parent page <% @thing.modules.each do |app_module| %> <%= render :partial => "module_form", :locals => { :app_module => app_module } %> <% end %> So if I have more than 1 item in the collection, I render the identical form on the same page, and the form id and textbox id are duplicated. I can customize the form id pretty easily, but what about the text_box, since the controller is looking for specific named controls?

    Read the article

  • Fluent NHibernate Repository with subclasses

    - by reallyJim
    Having some difficulty understanding the best way to implement subclasses with a generic repository using Fluent NHibernate. I have a base class and two subclasses, say: public abstract class Person { public virtual int PersonId { get; set; } public virtual string FirstName { get; set; } public virtual string LastName { get; set; } } public class Student : Person { public virtual decimal GPA { get; set; } } public class Teacher : Person { public virtual decimal Salary { get; set; } } My Mappings are as follows: public class PersonMap : ClassMap { public PersonMap() { Table("Persons"); Id(x => x.PersonId).GeneratedBy.Identity(); Map(x => x.FirstName); Map(x => x.LastName); } } public class StudentMap : SubclassMap<Student> { public StudentMap() { Table("Students"); KeyColumn("PersonId"); Map(x => x.GPA); } } public class TeacherMap : SubclassMap<Teacher> { public TeacherMap() { Table("Teachers"); KeyColumn("PersonId"); Map(x => x.Salary); } } I use a generic repository to save/retreive/update the entities, and it works great--provided I'm working with Repository--where I already know that I'm working with students or working with teachers. The problem I run into is this: What happens when I have an ID, and need to determine the TYPE of person? If a user comes to my site as PersonId = 23, how do I go about figuring out which type of person it is?

    Read the article

  • what makes a Tomcat5.5 cannot be "aware" of new Java Web Applications?

    - by Michael Mao
    This is for uni homework, but I reckon it is more a generic problem to the Tomcat Server(version 5.5.27) on my uni. The problem is, I first did a skeleton Java Web Application (Just a simple Servlet and a welcome-file, nothing complicated, no lib included) using NetBeans 6.8 with the bundled Tomcat 6.0.20 (localhost:8084/WSD) Then, to test and prove it is "portable" and "auto-deploy-able", I cleaned and built a WSD.war file and dropped it onto my Xampp Tomcat (localhost:8080/WSD). The war extracted everything accordingly and I can see identical output from this Tomcat. So far, so good. However, after I tried to drop to war onto uni server, funny thing happens: uni server Even though I've changed the war permission to 755, it is simply not "responding". I then copied the extracted files to uni server, the MainServlet cannot be recognized from within its Context Path "/WSD", basically nothing works, expect the static index.jsp. I tried several times to stop and restart uni Tomcat, it doesn't help? I wonder what makes this happen? Is there anything I did wrong with my approach? To be frank I paid no attention to a server not under my control, and I am unfortunately not a real active day-to-day Java Programmer now. I understand the fundamentals of MVC, Servelets, JSPs, JavaBeans, but I really feel frustrated by this, as I cannot see why... Or, should I ask, a Java Web Application, after cleaned and built by NetBeans6.8, is self-contained and self-configured so ready to be deployed to any Java Web Container? I know, I can certainly program everything in plain old JSP, but this is soooo... unacceptable to myself... Update : I am now wondering if there is any free Tomcat Hosting so that I would like to see if my war file and/or my web app can go with them without any configuration at all?

    Read the article

  • Best method to select an object from another unknown jQuery object

    - by Yosi
    Lets say I have a jQuery object/collection stored in a variable named obj, which should contain a DOM element with an id named target. I don't know in advance if target will be a child in obj, i.e.: obj = $('<div id="parent"><div id="target"></div></div>'); or if obj equals target, i.e.: obj = $('<div id="target"></div>'); or if target is a top-level element inside obj, i.e.: obj = $('<div id="target"/><span id="other"/>'); I need a way to select target from obj, but I don't know in advance when to use .find and when to use .filter. What would be the fastest and/or most concise method of extracting target from obj? What I've come up with is: var $target = obj.find("#target").add(obj.filter("#target")); UPDATE I'm adding solutions to a JSPERF test page to see which one is the best. Currently my solution is still the fastest. Here is the link, please run the tests so that we'll have more data: http://jsperf.com/jquery-selecting-objects

    Read the article

  • Codeigniter: Simple ajax submit not working

    - by Kevin Brown
    jQuery: $('#welcome-message').submit(function() { // inside event callbacks 'this' is the DOM element so we first // wrap it in a jQuery object and then invoke ajaxSubmit $(this).ajaxSubmit({}); $(this).fadeTo(400, 0, function () { // Links with the class "close" will close parent $(this).slideUp(400); }); return false; }); Controller: function welcome_message() { if(isset($_POST['welcome_message'])) { $this-_my_private_function(); } } private function _my_private_function() { $id = $this->session->userdata('id'); $profile['welcome_message'] = '0'; $this->db->update('be_user_profiles',$profile, array('user_id' => $id)); redirect('home', 'location'); } html: <?php print form_open('home/welcome_message',array('class'=>'horizontal','id'=>'welcome-message'))?> <p> Before you can complete the assessment, you need to complete your profile. Once that's done you'll be ready! After you have completed the assessment, you will be able to view the results from your profile. </p> <input type="checkbox" value="0" name="welcome_message" checked="false"> Don't show me this again </input> <p> <input class="button submit" type="submit" class="close-box" value="Close" /> </p> <?php print form_close()?> This should be working. My hypothesis is that the data isn't being passed to the function...but I really have no idea! It works when I visit the function in the url.

    Read the article

  • Javascript and rendering pauses and stays paused on scroll in the android browser

    - by user357303
    Hi. I've found some wierd behaviour related to scrolling and rendering and javascript. How to make it happen: On any webpage that is long enough to scroll on. Start to scroll pretty fast (fling the page). then release the touch. No while the page is still scrolling because of the momentum. Tap the screen to stop the scroll. This make the browser enter a wierd mode. On the nexus one it behaves like this: The updating of what's shown on the screen stops, you can still click on links and the go to where they are supposed to but what's shown on the screen stays the same. If you then scroll the screen a bit the update of the screen kicks in again and what you you where suppsed to see all the time is shown. On all phones with HTC Sense I've tried (Hero, Desire, Legend) this happens: The updating of the screen is stopped just like on the nexus one, but also the execution of any javascript is stopped. If you click on a link that takes you to another page however things return to normal again. The way I tested this was I created a page like this: http://pastebin.ca/1881620 The changeColor function simply changed the background color of 'container' to a few different colors. So before the error what happens is that when you click any link the color changes. after the error this happens: Nexus one: when you click on the links nothing happens (except the "orange link selected rounded corner box thing" is shown as if the link is clicked). Then when you scroll abit. You can see the color has changed (and equal amount of times to the number of times I clicked the link). On Sense: The links take me to google.com Has anyone else noticed this problem? Is there anyway to work around it? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Google App Engine Java app couldn't find javac ?

    - by Frank
    I'm learning to use Google App Engine, I installed it in Netbeans, the project works, but when I clicked on "Deploy To Google App Engine", I got the following error : Beginning server interaction for ... 0% Creating staging directory 5% Scanning for jsp files. 8% Compiling jsp files. 11% Compiling java files. Error Details: Apr 20, 2010 3:51:23 PM org.apache.jasper.JspC processFile INFO: Built File: \PayPal_Monitor.jsp java.lang.IllegalStateException: cannot find javac executable based on java.home, tried "C:\Program Files (x86)\Java\jre6\bin\javac.exe" and "C:\Program Files (x86)\Java\bin\javac.exe" Unable to update app: cannot find javac executable based on java.home, tried "C:\Program Files (x86)\Java\jre6\bin\javac.exe" and "C:\Program Files (x86)\Java\bin\javac.exe" Please see the logs [C:\Users\NM\AppData\Local\Temp\appcfg3946701335172983337.log] for further information. The file "javac.exe" is in : C:\Program Files (x86)\Java\jdk1.6.0_18\bin How can I add it to "java.home" ? I'm using Win Vista, and I tried to add it from "System - Environment Variables", but there is no "java.home" in there. Where can I find it ? Frank

    Read the article

  • XmlDeserializer to handle inline lists

    - by d1k_is
    Im looking at implementing a fix in an XmlDeserializer to allow for element lists without a specific containing element. The XmlDeserializer im basing off checks for a list object type but then it gets the container element im trying to figure out how to get around this and make it work both ways. enter code here var t = type.GetGenericArguments()[0]; var list = (IList)Activator.CreateInstance(type); var container = GetElementByName(root, prop.Name.AsNamespaced(Namespace)); var first = container.Elements().FirstOrDefault(); var elements = container.Elements().Where(d => d.Name == first.Name); PopulateListFromElements(t, elements, list); prop.SetValue(x, list, null); The XML im working with is from the google weather API (forecast_conditions elements) <weather module_id="0" tab_id="0" mobile_row="0" mobile_zipped="1" row="0" section="0"> <forecast_information>...</forecast_information> <current_conditions>...</current_conditions> <forecast_conditions>...</forecast_conditions> <forecast_conditions>...</forecast_conditions> <forecast_conditions>...</forecast_conditions> </weather> EDIT: Im looking at this as an update to the RESTsharp open source .net library

    Read the article

  • VB6 Game Development

    - by CVS-2600Hertz-wordpress-com
    Hi All, I am developing a game in VB6 (plz don't ask me why :) ). The storyboard is ready and a rough implementation is underway. I am following a "pure-software-rendering" approach. (i.e. no DirectX, no openGL etc.) Amongst many others, the following "serious" problems exist: 2D alpha transparency reqd. to implement overlays. Parallax implementation to give depth-of-field illusion. Capturing mouse-scroll events globally (as in FPS-es; mapping them to changing weapon). Async sound play with absolute "near-zero-lag". Any ideas anyone. Please suggest any well documented library/ocx or sample-code. Plz do suggest solutions with good performance and as little overhead as possible. Also, anyone who has developed any games, and would be open to sharing her/his code would be highly appreciated. (any well-acknowledged VB games whose source-code i can study??) UPDATE: Here is a screen shot of GearHead Garage. This picture ought to describe what i was attempting in words above... :) Thank You

    Read the article

  • Facebook offline access step-by-step

    - by Ben
    After searchinge litteraly 1 day on fb and google for an up-to-date and working way to do something seemingly simple: I am looking for a step-by-step explanation to get offline_access for a user for a facebook app and then using this (session key) to retrieve offline & not within a browser friends & profile data. Preferrably doing this in the Fb Java API. Thanks. And yes I did check the facebook wiki. Update: Anyone? this: http://www.facebook.com/authorize.php?api_key=<api-key>&v=1.0&ext_perm=offline_access gives me offline_Access, however how to retrieve the session_key? Why can't facebook just do simple documentation, I mean there are like 600 people working there? The seemingly same question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/617043/getting-offlineaccess-to-work-with-facebook Does not answer how to retrieve the session key Edit: I am still stuck with that. I guess nobody really tried such a batch access out yet...

    Read the article

  • Where should I store shared resources between LocalSystem and regular user with UAC?

    - by rwired
    My application consists of two parts: A Windows Service running under the LocalSystem account and a client process running under the currently logged in regular user. I need to deploy the application across Windows versions from XP up to Win7. The client will retrieve files from the web and collect user data from the user. The service will construct files and data of it's own which the client needs to read. I'm trying to figure out the best place (registry or filesystem, or mix) to store all this. One file the client or service needs to be able to retrieve from the net is an update_patch executable which needs to run whenever an upgrade is available. I need to be sure the initial installer SETUP.EXE, and also the update_patch can figure out this ideal location and set a RegKey to be read later by both client and server telling them the magic location (The SETUP.EXE will run with elevated privileges since it needs to install the service) On my Win7 test system the service %APPDATA% points to: C:\Windows\system32\config\systemprofile\AppData\Roaming and the %APPDATA% of the client points to: C:\Users\(username)\AppData\Roaming Interestingly Google Chrome stores everything (App and Data) in C:\Users\(username)\AppData\Local\Google\Chrome Chrome runs pretty much in exactly the way I want my suite to run (able to silently update itself in the background) What I'm trying to avoid is nasty popups warning the user that the app wants to modify the system, and I want to avoid problems when VirtualStore doesn't exist because the user is running XP/2000/2003 or has UAC turned off. My target audience are non-tech-savvy general Windows users.

    Read the article

  • Android NDK import-module / code reuse

    - by Graeme
    Morning! I've created a small NDK project which allows dynamic serialisation of objects between Java and C++ through JNI. The logic works like this: Bean - JavaCInterface.Java - JavaCInterface.cpp - JavaCInterface.java - Bean The problem is I want to use this functionality in other projects. I separated out the test code from the project and created a "Tester" project. The tester project sends a Java object through to C++ which then echo's it back to the Java layer. I thought linking would be pretty simple - ("Simple" in terms of NDK/JNI is usually a day of frustration) I added the JNIBridge project as a source project and including the following lines to Android.mk: NDK_MODULE_PATH=.../JNIBridge/jni/" JNIBridge/jni/JavaCInterface/Android.mk: ... include $(BUILD_STATIC_LIBRARY) JNITester/jni/Android.mk: ... include $(BUILD_SHARED_LIBRARY) $(call import-module, JavaCInterface) This all works fine. The C++ files which rely on headers from JavaCInterface module work fine. Also the Java classes can happily use interfaces from JNIBridge project. All the linking is happy. Unfortunately JavaCInterface.java which contains the native method calls cannot see the JNI method located in the static library. (Logically they are in the same project but both are imported into the project where you wish to use them through the above mechanism). My current solutions are are follows. I'm hoping someone can suggest something that will preserve the modular nature of what I'm trying to achieve: My current solution would be to include the JavaCInterface cpp files in the calling project like so: LOCAL_SRC_FILES := FunctionTable.cpp $(PATH_TO_SHARED_PROJECT)/JavaCInterface.cpp But I'd rather not do this as it would lead to me needing to update each depending project if I changed the JavaCInterface architecture. I could create a new set of JNI method signatures in each local project which then link to the imported modules. Again, this binds the implementations too tightly.

    Read the article

  • Keeping dates in order when using date_select and discarding year in Rails?

    - by MikeH
    My app has users who have seasonal products. When a user selects a product, we allow him to also select the product's season. We accomplish this by letting him select a start date and an end date for each product. We're using date_select to generate two sets of drop-downs: one for the start date and one for the end date. Including years doesn't make sense for our model. So we're using the option: discard_year => true To explain our problem, consider that our products are apples. Vendor X carries apples every year from September to January. Years are irrelevant here, and that's why we're using discard_year => true. However, while the specific years are irrelevant, the relative point in time from the start date to the end date is relevant. This is where our problem arises. When you use discard_year => true, Rails does set a year in the database, it just doesn't appear in the views. Rails sets all the years to 0001 in our app. Going back to our apple example, this means that the database now thinks the user has selected September 0001 to January 0001. This is a problem for us for a number of reasons. To solve this, the logic that I need to implement is the following: - If season_start month/date is before season_end month/date, then standard Rails approach is fine. - But, if season_start month/date is AFTER season_end month/date, then I need to dynamically update the database field such that the year for season_end is equal to the year for season_start + 1. My best guess is that I would create a custom method that runs as an after_save or after_update in my products model. But I'm not really sure how to do this. Ideas? Anybody ever had this issue? Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 871 872 873 874 875 876 877 878 879 880 881 882  | Next Page >