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  • JQuery Deferred - Adding to the Deferred contract

    - by MgSam
    I'm trying to add another asynchronous call to the contract of an existing Deferred before its state is set to success. Rather than try and explain this in English, see the following pseudo-code: $.when( $.ajax({ url: someUrl, data: data, async: true, success: function (data, textStatus, jqXhr) { console.log('Call 1 done.') jqXhr.pipe( $.ajax({ url: someUrl, data: data, async: true, success: function (data, textStatus, jqXhr) { console.log('Call 2 done.'); }, }) ); }, }), $.ajax({ url: someUrl, data: data, async: true, success: function (data, textStatus, jqXhr) { console.log('Call 3 done.'); }, }) ).then(function(){ console.log('All done!'); }); Basically, Call 2 is dependent on the results of Call 1. I want Call 1 and Call 3 to be executed in parallel. Once all 3 calls are complete, I want the All Done code to execute. My understanding is that Deferred.pipe() is supposed to chain another asynchronous call to the given deferred, but in practice, I always get Call 2 completing after All Done. Does anyone know how to get jQuery's Deferred to do what I want? Hopefully the solution doesn't involve ripping the code apart into chunks any further. Thanks for any help.

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  • Help me understand entity framework 4 caching for lazy loading

    - by Chris
    I am getting some unexpected behaviour with entity framework 4.0 and I am hoping someone can help me understand this. I am using the northwind database for the purposes of this question. I am also using the default code generator (not poco or self tracking). I am expecting that anytime I query the context for the framework to only make a round trip if I have not already fetched those objects. I do get this behaviour if I turn off lazy loading. Currently in my application I am breifly turning on lazy loading and then turning it back off so I can get the desired behaviour. That pretty much sucks, so please help. Here is a good code example that can demonstrate my problem. Public Sub ManyRoundTrips() context.ContextOptions.LazyLoadingEnabled = True Dim employees As List(Of Employee) = context.Employees.Execute(System.Data.Objects.MergeOption.AppendOnly).ToList() 'makes unnessesary round trip to the database, I just loaded the employees' MessageBox.Show(context.Employees.Where(Function(x) x.EmployeeID < 10).ToList().Count) context.Orders.Execute(System.Data.Objects.MergeOption.AppendOnly) For Each emp As Employee In employees 'makes unnessesary trip to database every time despite orders being pre loaded.' Dim i As Integer = emp.Orders.Count Next End Sub Public Sub OneRoundTrip() context.ContextOptions.LazyLoadingEnabled = True Dim employees As List(Of Employee) = context.Employees.Include("Orders").Execute(System.Data.Objects.MergeOption.AppendOnly).ToList() MessageBox.Show(employees.Where(Function(x) x.EmployeeID < 10).ToList().Count) For Each emp As Employee In employees Dim i As Integer = emp.Orders.Count Next End Sub Why is the first block of code making unnessesary round trips?

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  • SQL UNION ALL problem after using UNION ALL more than 10 times

    - by VBGKM
    I'm getting a formatting problem if I use more than 10 UNION ALL statements in my VBA Code. If I use 10 or less everything works great. What I'm trying to do is combine 12 worksheets (Excel 2007). I have a numerical column called SC that turns into string and date if I have more than 10 UNION ALL. If I try to use ROUND with more than 10 UNION ALL my last selection will change all the records by one unit. I'm using Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0 as my provider and my connection string has worked for several things in my code so far. Is there any limit for UNION ALL statements when using OLEDB? Here is my code. Dim StrOr As String Dim i As Variant Dim Cnt As ADODB.Connection Dim Rs As ADODB.Recordset For i = 1 To 12 StrOr = StrOr & " " & "SELECT SC FROM [" & MonthName(i, True) & "$" & "] UNION ALL" Next StrOr = Left(StrOr, Len(StrOr) - 9) & ";" Call GetADOCnt Call ADORs

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  • Which is better Java programming practice for looping up to an int value: a converted for-each loop

    - by Arvanem
    Hi folks, Given the need to loop up to an arbitrary int value, is it better programming practice to convert the value into an array and for-each the array, or just use a traditional for loop? FYI, I am calculating the number of 5 and 6 results ("hits") in multiple throws of 6-sided dice. My arbitrary int value is the dicePool which represents the number of multiple throws. As I understand it, there are two options: Convert the dicePool into an array and for-each the array: public int calcHits(int dicePool) { int[] dp = new int[dicePool]; for (Integer a : dp) { // call throwDice method } } Use a traditional for loop. public int calcHits(int dicePool) { for (int i = 0; i < dicePool; i++) { // call throwDice method } } I apologise for the poor presentation of the code above (for some reason the code button on the Ask Question page is not doing what it should). My view is that option 1 is clumsy code and involves unnecessary creation of an array, even though the for-each loop is more efficient than the traditional for loop in Option 2. Thanks in advance for any suggestions you might have.

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  • Warning: passing Argument 1 of "sqlite3_bind_text" from incompatible pointer type" What should I do

    - by Amarpreet
    Hi All, i am pretty new in iphone development. I have created one function to insert data into database. The code compiles successfully. But when comes to statement sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement, 1, [s UTF8String], -1, SQLITE_TRANSIENT); it does not do anything but hangs AND in warning it says "passing Argument 1 of "sqlite3_bind_text" from incompatible pointer type"" for all statements in Red colour The same code i am using to fetch the data from database and its working on other viewController. Below in the code. Its pretty straightforward. Please help guys. -(void) SaveData: (NSString *)FirstName: (NSString *)LastName: (NSString *)State: (NSString *)Street: (NSString *)PostCode { databaseName = @"Zen.sqlite"; NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDire ctory, NSUserDomainMask,YES); NSString *documentsDir=[documentPaths objectAtIndex:0]; databasePath=[documentsDir stringByAppendingPathComponent:databaseName]; sqlite3 *database; if(sqlite3_open([databasePath UTF8String], &database) == SQLITE_OK) { const char *sqlStatement = "insert into customers (FirstName, LastName, State, Street, PostCode) values(?, ?, ?, ?, ?)"; sqlite3_stmt *compiledStatement; sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, sqlStatement, -1, &compiledStatement, NULL); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement, 1, [FirstName UTF8String], -1, SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement,2,[LastName UTF8String],-1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement,3,[State UTF8String],-1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement,4,[Street UTF8String],-1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement,5,[PostCode UTF8String],-1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_step(sqlStatement); sqlite3_finalize(compiledStatement); } sqlite3_close(database); }

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  • remove specific values from multi value dictionary

    - by Anthony
    I've seen posts here on how to make a dictionary that has multiple values per key, like one of the solutions presented in this link: Multi Value Dictionary it seems that I have to use a List< as the value for the keys, so that a key can store multiple values. the solution in the link is fine if you want to add values. But my problem now is how to remove specific values from a single key. I have this code for adding values to a dictionary: private Dictionary<TKey, List<TValue>> mEventDict; // this is for initializing the dictionary public void Subscribe(eVtEvtId inEvent, VtEvtDelegate inCallbackMethod) { if (mEventDict.ContainsKey(inEvent)) { mEventDict[inEvent].Add(inCallbackMethod); } else { mEventDict.Add(inEvent, new List<TValue>() { v }); } } // this is for adding values to the dictionary. // if the "key" (inEvent) is not yet present in the dictionary, // the key will be added first before the value my problem now is removing a specific value from a key. I have this code: public void Unsubscribe(eVtEvtId inEvent, VtEvtDelegate inCallbackMethod) { try { mEventDict[inEvent].Remove(inCallbackMethod); } catch (ArgumentNullException) { MessageBox.Show("The event is not yet present in the dictionary"); } } basically, what I did is just replace the Add() with Remove() . Will this work? Also, if you have any problems or questions with the code (initialization, etc.), feel free to ask. Thanks for the advice.

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  • What programming hack from your past are you most ashamed of?

    - by LeopardSkinPillBoxHat
    We've all been there (usually when we are young and inexperienced). Fixing it properly is too difficult, too risky or too time-consuming. So you go down the hack path. Which hack from your past are you most ashamed of, and why? I'm talking about the ones where you would be really embarrassed if someone could attribute the hack to you (quite easily if you are using revision control software). One hack per answer please. Mine was shortly after I started in my first job. I was working on a legacy C system, and there was this strange defect where a screen view failed to update properly under certain circumstances. I wasn't familiar with how to use the debugger at this time, so I added traces into the code to figure out what was going on. Then I realised that the defect didn't occur anymore with the traces in the code. I slowly backed out the traces one-by-one, until I realised that only a single trace was required to make the problem go away. My logic now would tell me that I was dealing with some sort of race-condition or timing related issue that the trace just "hid under the rug". But I checked in the code with the following line, and all was well: printf(""); Which hacks are you ashamed of?

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  • How can I use a class with the same name from another namespace in my class?

    - by Beau Simensen
    I have two classes with the same name in different namespaces. I want one of these classes to reference the other class. The reason is that I am migrating to some newer code and I want to update the old code to simply pass through to the newer code. Here is a super basic example: namespace project { namespace legacy { class Content { public: Content(const string& url) : url_(url) { } string url() { return url_; } private: string url_; }; }} // namespace project::legacy; namespace project { namespace current { class Content { public: Content(const string& url) : url_(url) {} string url() { return url_; } private: string url_; }} // namespace project::current; I expected to be able to do the following to project::legacy::Content, but I am having trouble with some linker issues. Is this an issue with how I'm trying to do this, or do I need to look more closely at my project files to see if I have some sort of weird dependency issues? #include "project/current/Content.h" namespace project { namespace legacy { class Content { public: Content(const string& url) : actualContent_(url) { } string url() { return actualContent_.url(); } private: project::current::Content actualContent_; }; }} // namespace project::legacy; The test application compiles fine if I try to reference an instance of project::current::Content but if I try to reference project::current::Content from project::legacy::Content I get an: undefined reference to `project::current::Content::Content(...)` UPDATE As it turns out, this was a GNU Autotoolset issue and was unrelated to the actual topic. Thanks to everyone for their help and suggestions!

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  • Is it valid to use unsafe struct * as an opaque type instead of IntPtr in .NET Platform Invoke?

    - by David Jeske
    .NET Platform Invoke advocates declaring pointer types as IntPtr. For example, the following [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern IntPtr SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, UInt32 Msg, Int32 wParam, Int32 lParam); However, I find when interfacing with interesting native interfaces, that have many pointer types, flattening everything into IntPtr makes the code very hard to read and removes the typical typechecking that a compiler can do. I've been using a pattern where I declare an unsafe struct to be an opaque pointer type. I can store this pointer type in a managed object, and the compiler can typecheck it form me. For example: class Foo { unsafe struct FOO {}; // opaque type unsafe FOO *my_foo; class if { [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe FOO* get_foo(); [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe void do_something_foo(FOO *foo); } public unsafe Foo() { this.my_foo = if.get_foo(); } public unsafe do_something_foo() { if.do_something_foo(this.my_foo); } While this example may not seem different than using IntPtr, when there are several pointer types moving between managed and native code, using these opaque pointer types for typechecking is a godsend. I have not run into any trouble using this technique in practice. However, I also have not seen an examples of anyone using this technique, and I wonder why. Is there any reason that the above code is invalid in the eyes of the .NET runtime? My main question is about how the .NET GC system treats "unsafe FOO *my_foo". Is this pointer something the GC system is going to try to trace, or is it simply going to ignore it? My hope is that because the underlying type is a struct, and it's declared unsafe, that the GC would ignore it. However, I don't know for sure. Thoughts?

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  • How to properly logout of facebook

    - by Gublooo
    hey guys This is a repeated question and I have followed both the suggestions provided in these links: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1386557/how-to-log-out-users-using-facebook-connect-in-php-and-zend/1386749#1386749 http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1546277/trouble-logging-out-of-a-facebook-connect-site-and-destroying-sessions The issue is - the code works 90% of the time. Thats the weird part. Out of the 100 times I've logged in and out - I've experienced this problem 5-6 times and 2 of my beta test users have reported the same issue. So when it works- if u click the logout link - u get the facebook popup saying - you being logged out - when it does'nt work - absolutely nothing happens - the page does not refresh - it just sits on that page doing nothing. This is the javascript code that gets called on clicking logout function logout() { FB.Connect.get_status().waitUntilReady(function(status) { switch(status) { case FB.ConnectState.connected: FB.Connect.logoutAndRedirect("http://www.example.com/login/logout"); break; case FB.ConnectState.userNotLoggedIn: window.location = "http://www.example.com/login/logout"; break; } }); return false; } This is the php code: $this-_auth-clearIdentity(); $face = Zend_Registry::get('facebook'); $fb = new Facebook($face['appapikey'], $face['appsecret']); //$fb-clear_cookie_state(); $fb-expire_session(); Anyone experienced such sporadic issues. Thanks

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  • Creating an Admin directory in Rails

    - by matsko
    I've been developing the CMS backend for a website for a few weeks now. The idea is to craft everything in the backend first so that it can manage the database and information that will be displayed on the main website. As of now, I currently have all my code setup in the normal rails MVC structure. So the users admin is /users and videos is /videos. My plans are to take the code for this and move it to a /admin directory. So the two controllers above would need to be accessed by /admin/users and /admin/videos. I'm not sure how todo the ruote (adding the /admin as a prefix) nor am I sure about how to manage the logic. What I'm thinking of doing is setting up an additional 'middle' controller that somehow gets nested between the ApplicationControler and the targetted controller when the /admin directory is accessed. This way, any additional flags and overloaded methods can be spawned for the /admin section only (I believe I could use a filter too for this). If that were to work, then the next issue would be separating the views logic (but that would just be renaming folders and so on). Either I do it that way or I have two rails instances that share the MVC code between them (and I guess the database too), but I fear that would cause lots of duplication errors. Any ideas as to how I should go about doing this? Many thanks!

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  • Ignoring a model with all blank fields in Ruby on Rails

    - by aguynamedloren
    I am trying to create multiple items (each with a name value and a content value) in a single form. The code I have is functioning, but I cannot figure out how to ignore items that are blank. Here's the code: #item.rb class Item < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :name, :content validates_presence_of :name, :content end #items_controller.rb class ItemsController < ApplicationController def new @items = Array.new(3){ Item.new } end def create @items = params[:items].values.collect{|item|Item.new(item)} if @items.each(&:save!) flash[:notice] = "Successfully created item." redirect_to root_url else render :action => 'new' end end #new.html.erb <% form_tag :action => 'create' do %> <%@items.each_with_index do |item, index| %> <% fields_for "items[#{index}]", item do |f| %> <p> Name: <%= f.text_field :name %> Content: <%= f.text_field :content %> </p> <% end %> <% end %> <%= submit_tag %> <% end %> This code works when all fields for all items are filled out in the form, but fails if any fields are left blank (due to validations). The goal is that 1 or 2 items could be saved, even if others are left blank. I'm sure there is a simple solution to this, but I've been tinkering for hours with no avail. Any help is appreciated!

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  • Encoding MySQL text fields into UTF-8 text files - problems with special characters

    - by Matt Andrews
    I'm writing a php script to export MySQL database rows into a .txt file formatted for Adobe InDesign's internal markup. Exports work, but when I encounter special characters like é or umlauts, I get weird symbols (eg Chloë Hanslip instead of Chloë Hanslip). Rather than run a search and replace for every possible weird character, I need a better method. I've checked that when the text hits the database, it's saved properly - in the database I see the special characters. My export code basically runs some regular expressions to put in the InDesign code tags, and I'm left with the weird symbols. If I just output the text to the browser (rather than prompt for a text file download), it displays properly. When I save the file I use this code: header("Content-disposition: attachment; filename=test.txt"); header("Content-Type: text/plain; charset=utf-8"); I've tried various combinations of utf8_encode() and iconv() to no avail. Can anybody point me in the right direction here?

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  • Why does the OnDeserialization not fire for XML Deserialization?

    - by Jonathan
    I have a problem which I have been bashing my head against for the better part of three hours. I am almost certain that I've missed something blindingly obvious... I have a simple XML file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <WeightStore xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <Records> <Record actual="150" date="2010-05-01T00:00:00" /> <Record actual="155" date="2010-05-02T00:00:00" /> </Records> </WeightStore> I have a simple class structure: [Serializable] public class Record { [XmlAttribute("actual")] public double weight { get; set; } [XmlAttribute("date")] public DateTime date { get; set; } [XmlIgnore] public double trend { get; set; } } [Serializable] [XmlRoot("WeightStore")] public class SimpleWeightStore { [XmlArrayAttribute("Records")] private List<Record> records = new List<Record>(); public List<Record> Records { get { return records; } } [OnDeserialized()] public void OnDeserialized_Method(StreamingContext context) { // This code never gets called Console.WriteLine("OnDeserialized"); } } I am using these in both calling code and in the class files: using System.Xml.Serialization; using System.Runtime.Serialization; I have some calling code: SimpleWeightStore weight_store_reload = new SimpleWeightStore(); TextReader reader = new StringReader(xml); XmlSerializer deserializer = new XmlSerializer(weight_store.GetType()); weight_store_reload = (SimpleWeightStore)deserializer.Deserialize(reader); The problem is that I am expecting OnDeserialized_Method to get called, and it isn't. I suspect it might have something to do with the fact that it's XML deserialization rather than Runtime deserialization, and perhaps I am using the wrong attribute name, but I can't find out what it might be. Any ideas, folks?

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  • Compile and optimize for different target architectures

    - by Peter Smit
    Summary: I want to take advantage of compiler optimizations and processor instruction sets, but still have a portable application (running on different processors). Normally I could indeed compile 5 times and let the user choose the right one to run. My question is: how can I can automate this, so that the processor is detected at runtime and the right executable is executed without the user having to chose it? I have an application with a lot of low level math calculations. These calculations will typically run for a long time. I would like to take advantage of as much optimization as possible, preferably also of (not always supported) instruction sets. On the other hand I would like my application to be portable and easy to use (so I would not like to compile 5 different versions and let the user choose). Is there a possibility to compile 5 different versions of my code and run dynamically the most optimized version that's possible at execution time? With 5 different versions I mean with different instruction sets and different optimizations for processors. I don't care about the size of the application. At this moment I'm using gcc on Linux (my code is in C++), but I'm also interested in this for the Intel compiler and for the MinGW compiler for compilation to Windows. The executable doesn't have to be able to run on different OS'es, but ideally there would be something possible with automatically selecting 32 bit and 64 bit as well. Edit: Please give clear pointers how to do it, preferably with small code examples or links to explanations. From my point of view I need a super generic solution, which is applicable on any random C++ project I have later. Edit I assigned the bounty to ShuggyCoUk, he had a great number of pointers to look out for. I would have liked to split it between multiple answers but that is not possible. I'm not having this implemented yet, so the question is still 'open'! Please, still add and/or improve answers, even though there is no bounty to be given anymore. Thanks everybody!

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  • jQuery carousel in a div with display:none

    - by Fred Kafka
    I have to use on my site a jQuery responsive carousel with 4 displayed items that slide one at a time, etc etc. The point is: this carousel is placed in a div with display:none and it appears clicking on a button with a slideToggle script (jQuery). Well, when the div appears the carousel is not displayed. Nothing! Notice that if I remove the display:none the carousel shows perfectly. I've tried a bunch of carousel plugin (bxslider, caroufredsel, elastislide, flexslider) and this issue happens for all of them. And then... I'm going crazy!! Excuse meSorry friends, here is the code: HTML (here is the case of FlexSlider but the code is similar for the other plugins) <div id="hiddenDiv"> <div id="hiddenDivInner"> <div class="flexslider"> <ul class="slides"> <li>...</li> <li>...</li> <li>...</li> </ul> </div> </div> </div> CSS #hiddenDiv{ display:none; padding-bottom:10px; background: url("../img/xxx.gif") repeat left bottom #FFFFFF; } SCRIPT (copy-paste from the site. This script is between $(document).ready together with other scripts. Alredy tried to remove the load function) $(window).load(function() { $('.flexslider').flexslider({ animation: "slide", animationLoop: false, itemWidth: 300, itemMargin: 5, minItems: 1, maxItems: 4 }); }); $("#trigger").click(function () { $("#hiddenDiv").slideToggle(400, "easeInOutExpo"); }); I remind you that with this code and no display:none every carousels work, also if I slide up and then down the div using the slideToggle button (#trigger).

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  • Cannot hide a UIButton - Please help!

    - by Neurofluxation
    Hey again, I have the following code: visitSite.hidden = YES; For some reason, when I click a UIButton and call this piece of code, the visitSite button does not hide. The code is within this block: -(IBAction)welcomeButtonPressed:(id)sender { [UIButton beginAnimations:@"welcomeAnimation" context:NULL]; [UIButton setAnimationDuration:1.5]; [UIButton SetAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(nowHideThisSiteButton:finished:context:)]; [UIButton setAnimationTransition:UIViewAnimationTransitionCurlUp forView:self.view cache:YES]; ((UIView *)sender).hidden = YES; [UIButton commitAnimations]; } and the stop selector below: -(void)nowHideThisSiteButton:(NSString *)animationID finished:(BOOL *)finished context:(void *)context { visitSite.hidden = YES; } I've also tried [visitSite setHidden:YES]; and that fails as well. ALSO I've noticed that the setAnimationDidStopSelector does not get called at all. Also, visitSite (when NSLogged) equals: <UIButton: 0x1290f0; frame = (0 0; 320 460); opaque = NO; autoresize = RM+BM; layer = <CALayer: 0x1290f0>> visitSite.hidden (when NSLogged) equals: NULL Any more ideas? :(

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  • Display a input type=file over another input type=file

    - by Kevin Sedgley
    WARNING: Lengthy description coming up! I have written an uploader based upon APC progress uploader for PHP. This works fine and dandy, but the script as a whole (apc etc) is intended to be used only for those with Javascript. To achieve this, I have searched for any input type=file, and replaced these with an absolutely positioned form that appears over the original area where the old file input area was. The reasons for this are so the new uploader can submit to a hidden in page IFrame has to be in a seperate <form> in order to submit to the APC reciever to display the progress upload bar. allows it to be used within any form with an input type=file throughout the site I have used JQuery to do this, with the following code: Original HTML form code: <div><input type="file" name="media" id="media" /></div> Find position of div block code: // get the parent div, and properties thereof parentDiv = $(this).closest('div'); w = $(parentDiv).width(); h = $(parentDiv).height(); loc = $(parentDiv).offset(); Locate new block over old block: $('#_sender').appendTo('body').css({left:loc.left,top:loc.top,position:'absolute',zIndex:400,height:h,width:w}).show(); This works fine, and shows over the old block OK. The problem: When other elements in the DOM before or above it change (in this case a "tree view" selector is pushing the old block down) the new upload form gets moved over other elements. Is there a JQuery (or JS) method for changing this upon DOM change? Some kind of .onchange for the page?! Or an .onmove for the original block? Thanks in advance you lovely people Before DOM change: . After: .

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  • Problems pulling data from NSMutableArray for MapKit?

    - by Graeme
    Hi, I have a class (DataImporter) which has the code to download an RSS feed. I also have a view and separate class (TableView) which displays the data in a UITableView and starts the parsing process, storing parsed information in an NSMutableArray (items). Now I wish to add a UIMapView which displays the items in the items NSMutableArray. I'm struggling to transfer the data into the new class (mapView) to show it in the map - and I preferably don't want to have to create a new class to download the data again for the map. Is there a way I can transfer the information from the NSMutableArray (items) to the mapView? Thanks. Code for viewDidLoad MapKit: Data *data = nil; NSString *ilocation = [data locations]; NSString *ilocation2 = @"New Zealand"; NSString *inewlString; inewlString = [ilocation stringByAppendingString:ilocation2]; NSLog(@"inewlString=%@",inewlString); if(forwardGeocoder == nil) { forwardGeocoder = [[BSForwardGeocoder alloc] initWithDelegate:self]; } // Forward geocode! [forwardGeocoder findLocation: inewlString]; Code for parsing data into NSMutable Array: - (void)beginParsing { NSLog(@"Parsing has begun"); //self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem.enabled = NO; // Allocate the array for song storage, or empty the results of previous parses if (incidents == nil) { NSLog(@"Grabbing array"); self.datas = [NSMutableArray array]; } else { [datas removeAllObjects]; [self.tableView reloadData]; } // Create the parser, set its delegate, and start it. self.parser = [[DataImporter alloc] init]; parser.delegate = self; [parser start]; }

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  • Why does this Object wonk out & get deleted ?

    - by brainydexter
    Stepping through the debugger, the BBox object is okay at the entry of the function, but as soon as it enters the function, the vfptr object points to 0xccccc. I don't get it. What is causing this ? Why is there a virtual table reference in there when the object is not derived from other class. (Though, it resides in GameObject from which my Player class inherits and I retrieve the BBox from within player. But, why does the BBox have the reference ? Shouldn't it be player who should be maintained in that reference ?) For 1; some code for reference: A. I retrieve the bounding box from player. This returns a bounding box as expected. I then send its address to GetGridCells. const BoundingBox& l_Bbox = l_pPlayer-GetBoundingBox(); boost::unordered_set < Cell*, CellPHash & l_GridCells = GetGridCells ( &l_Bbox ); B. This is where a_pBoundingBox goes crazy and gets that garbage value. boost::unordered_set< Cell*, CellPHash CollisionMgr::GetGridCells(const BoundingBox *a_pBoundingBox) { I think the following code is also pertinent, so I'm sticking this in here anyways: const BoundingBox& Player::GetBoundingBox(void) { return BoundingBox( &GetBoundingSphere() ); } const BoundingSphere& Player::GetBoundingSphere(void) { BoundingSphere& l_BSphere = m_pGeomMesh-m_BoundingSphere; l_BSphere.m_Center = GetPosition(); return l_BSphere; } // BoundingBox Constructor BoundingBox(const BoundingSphere* a_pBoundingSphere); Can anyone please give me some idea as to why this is happening? Also, if you want me to post more code, please do let me know. Thanks!

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  • Spring MVC with annotations: how to beget that method always is called

    - by TheStijn
    hi, I'm currently migrating a project that is using Spring MVC without annotations to Spring MVC with annotations. This is causing less problems than expected but I did come across one issue. In my project I have set up an access mechanisme. Whether or not a User has access to a certain view depends on more than just the role of the User (e.g. it also depends on the status of the entity, the mode (view/edit), ...). To address this I had created an abstract parent controller which has a method hasAccess. This method calls also other methods like getAllowedEditStatuses which are here and there overridden by the child controllers. The hasAccess method gets called from the showForm method (below code was minimized for your readability): @Override protected ModelAndView showForm(final HttpServletRequest request, final HttpServletResponse response, final BindException errors) throws Exception { Integer id = Integer.valueOf(request.getParameter("ID")); Project project = this.getProject(id); if (!this.hasAccess(project, this.getActiveUser())) { return new ModelAndView("errorNoAccess", "code", project != null ? project.getCode() : null); } return this.showForm(request, response, project, errors); } So, if the User has no access to the view then he gets redirected to an error page. Now the 'pickle': how to set this up when using annotations. There no longer is a showForm or other method that is always called by the framework. My (and maybe your) first thought was: simply call this method from within each controller before going to the view. This would of course work but I was hoping for a nicer, more generic solution (less code duplication). The only other solution I could think of is preceeding the hasAccess method with the @ModelAttribute annotation but this feels a lot like raping the framework :-). So, does anyone have a (better) idea? thanks, Stijn

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  • How to use sessions in PDO?

    - by Byakugan
    I am still redoing and getting rid of old mysql_* commands in my code. I tried to transfer my session login form old code and this is what I got so far: public function login($user, $password) { if (!empty($user) && !empty($password)) { $password = $web->doHash($user, $password); // in this function is (return sha1(strtoupper($user).':'.strtoupper($password)) $stmt = $db_login->prepare("SELECT * FROM account WHERE username=:user AND pass_hash=:password"); $stmt->bindValue(':user', $user, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->bindValue(':password', $password, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->execute(); $rows = $stmt->rowCount(); if ($rows > 0) { $results_login = $stmt->fetch(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC); $_SESSION['user_name'] = $results_login['username']; $_SESSION['user_id'] = $results_login['id']; return true; } else { return false; } } else { return false; } } After that I am using checks if user logged on site: public function isLogged() { return (!empty($_SESSION['user_id']) && !empty($_SESSION['user_name'])); } But it seems - this function returns always empty because $_SESSION does not exists in PDO? And of course logout is used in this form on my sites: public function logout() { unset($_SESSION['user_id']); unset($_SESSION['user_name']); } But I think PDO has different way of handling session? I did not find any so what is it can i somehow add $_SESSION in PDO withou changing code much? I am using variables $_SESSION['user_name'] and $_SESSION['user_id'] in all over my web project. Summary: 1) How to use sessions in PDO correctly? 2) What is difference between using $stmt->fetch(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC); and $stmt->fetchAll(); Thank you.

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  • Is it approproate it use django signals withing the same app

    - by Alex Lebedev
    Trying to add email notification to my app in the cleanest way possible. When certain fields of a model change, app should send a notification to a user. Here's my old solution: from django.contrib.auth import User class MyModel(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey(User) field_a = models.CharField() field_b = models.CharField() def save(self, *args, **kwargs): old = self.__class__.objects.get(pk=self.pk) if self.pk else None super(MyModel, self).save(*args, **kwargs) if old and old.field_b != self.field_b: self.notify("b-changed") # Sevelar more events here # ... def notify(self, event) subj, text = self._prepare_notification(event) send_mail(subj, body, settings.DEFAULT_FROM_EMAIL, [self.user.email], fail_silently=True) This worked fine while I had one or two notification types, but after that just felt wrong to have so much code in my save() method. So, I changed code to signal-based: from django.db.models import signals def remember_old(sender, instance, **kwargs): """pre_save hanlder to save clean copy of original record into `old` attribute """ instance.old = None if instance.pk: try: instance.old = sender.objects.get(pk=instance.pk) except ObjectDoesNotExist: pass def on_mymodel_save(sender, instance, created, **kwargs): old = instance.old if old and old.field_b != instance.field_b: self.notify("b-changed") # Sevelar more events here # ... signals.pre_save.connect(remember_old, sender=MyModel, dispatch_uid="mymodel-remember-old") signals.post_save.connect(on_mymodel_save, sender=MyModel, dispatch_uid="mymodel-on-save") The benefit is that I can separate event handlers into different module, reducing size of models.py and I can enable/disable them individually. The downside is that this solution is more code and signal handlers are separated from model itself and unknowing reader can miss them altogether. So, colleagues, do you think it's worth it?

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  • strategy for choosing proper object and proper method

    - by zerkms
    in the code below at first if statements block (there will be more than just "worker" condition, joined with else if) i select proper filter_object. After this in the same conditional block i select what filter should be applied by filter object. This code is silly. public class Filter { public static List<data.Issue> fetch(string type, string filter) { Filter_Base filter_object = new Filter_Base(filter); if (type == "worker") { filter_object = new Filter_Worker(filter); } else if (type == "dispatcher") { filter_object = new Filter_Dispatcher(filter); } List<data.Issue> result = new List<data.Issue>(); if (filter == "new") { result = filter_object.new_issues(); } else if (filter == "ended") { result = filter_object.ended_issues(); } return result; } } public class Filter_Base { protected string _filter; public Filter_Base(string filter) { _filter = filter; } public virtual List<data.Issue> new_issues() { return new List<data.Issue>(); } public virtual List<data.Issue> ended_issues() { return new List<data.Issue>(); } } public class Filter_Worker : Filter_Base { public Filter_Worker(string filter) : base(filter) { } public override List<data.Issue> new_issues() { return (from i in data.db.GetInstance().Issues where (new int[] { 4, 5 }).Contains(i.RequestStatusId) select i).Take(10).ToList(); } } public class Filter_Dispatcher : Filter_Base { public Filter_Dispatcher(string filter) : base(filter) { } } it will be used in some kind of: Filter.fetch("worker", "new"); this code means, that for user that belongs to role "worker" only "new" issues will be fetched (this is some kind of small and simple CRM). Or another: Filter.fetch("dispatcher", "ended"); // here we get finished issues for dispatcher role Any proposals on how to improve it?

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  • Android:Playing bigger size audio wav sound file produces crash

    - by user187532
    Hi Android experts, I am trying to play the bigger size audio wav file(which is 20 mb) using the following code(AudioTrack) on my Android 1.6 HTC device which basically has less memory. But i found device crash as soon as it executes reading, writing and play. But the same code works fine and plays the lesser size audio wav files(10kb, 20 kb files etc) very well. P.S: I should play PCM(.wav) buffer sound, the reason behind why i use AudioTrack here. Though my device has lesser memory, how would i read bigger audio files bytes by bytes and play the sound to avoid crashing due to memory constraints. private void AudioTrackPlayPCM() throws IOException { String filePath = "/sdcard/myWav.wav"; // 8 kb file byte[] byteData = null; File file = null; file = new File(filePath); byteData = new byte[(int) file.length()]; FileInputStream in = null; try { in = new FileInputStream( file ); in.read( byteData ); in.close(); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } int intSize = android.media.AudioTrack.getMinBufferSize(8000, AudioFormat.CHANNEL_CONFIGURATION_MONO, AudioFormat.ENCODING_PCM_8BIT); AudioTrack at = new AudioTrack(AudioManager.STREAM_MUSIC, 8000, AudioFormat.CHANNEL_CONFIGURATION_MONO, AudioFormat.ENCODING_PCM_8BIT, intSize, AudioTrack.MODE_STREAM); at.play(); at.write(byteData, 0, byteData.length); at.stop(); at.release(); } Could someone guide me please to play the AudioTrack code for bigger size wav files?

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