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  • iPhone: Get indexPath of Predicate Object

    - by Nic Hubbard
    I am using a predicate to find an object in core data. I can successfully find the object that I want, but I need to also get the indexPath of that object, so that I can push a details view in for that object. Currently I have the following code for getting my object: NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [fetchRequest setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Ride" inManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"title = %@ AND addressFull = %@", view.annotation.title, view.annotation.subtitle]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; NSMutableArray *sortDescriptors = [NSMutableArray array]; [sortDescriptors addObject:[[[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"title" ascending:YES] autorelease]]; [sortDescriptors addObject:[[[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"addressFull" ascending:YES] autorelease]]; [fetchRequest setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [fetchRequest setReturnsObjectsAsFaults:NO]; [fetchRequest setPropertiesToFetch:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"title", @"addressFull", nil]]; NSError *error = nil; NSArray *fetchedItems = [self.managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&error]; // Sohow what record we returned NSLog(@"%@",[fetchedItems objectAtIndex:0]); So, I can correctly get my object into an array. But how do I translate that object into an indexPath?

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  • passing java mail message object from between applications

    - by jezhilvalan
    I'm using java mail api 1.4.1 to obtain new emails. Two classes are being used to obtain emails and then parsing it. "GetMail" class communicates with mail server(Gmail,yahoo etc) and obtains the message object. Then the message object is passed to yet another class "MailFormatter" class, which then parses the message object, obtains the email headers (From,To,Subject etc) and then it parses the Multipart content to obtain the main body and attachments.Since both "Mail getting" and "Mail formatting" process are very resource intensive, these classes are going to be implemented as separate web applications.This application is going to monitor new emails for numerous email ids.If these ("GetMail" and "MailFormatter") are implemented as separate web applications, how can I pass the message object from "GetMail" app to "MailFormatter" app ? Is there a way through which I can persist the obtained message object in a certain location (a location which is common to both "GetMail" and "MailFormatter" applications), so that "GetMail" can persist the message object in that location, and then "MailFormatter" app can read "Message" objects from that location and carry out the parsing process. Message objects cannot be serialized. If they cannot be serialized how can I persist the state of java mail message object? please do help me to resolve this issue.

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  • Python access an object byref / Need tagging

    - by Aaron C. de Bruyn
    I need to suck data from stdin and create a object. The incoming data is between 5 and 10 lines long. Each line has a process number and either an IP address or a hash. For example: pid=123 ip=192.168.0.1 - some data pid=123 hash=ABCDEF0123 - more data hash=ABCDEF123 - More data ip=192.168.0.1 - even more data I need to put this data into a class like: class MyData(): pid = None hash = None ip = None lines = [] I need to be able to look up the object by IP, HASH, or PID. The tough part is that there are multiple streams of data intermixed coming from stdin. (There could be hundreds or thousands of processes writing data at the same time.) I have regular expressions pulling out the PID, IP, and HASH that I need, but how can I access the object by any of those values? My thought was to do something like this: myarray = {} for each line in sys.stdin.readlines(): if pid and ip: #If we can get a PID out of the line myarray[pid] = MyData().pid = pid #Create a new MyData object, assign the PID, and stick it in myarray accessible by PID. myarray[pid].ip = ip #Add the IP address to the new object myarray[pid].lines.append(data) #Append the data myarray[ip] = myarray[pid] #Take the object by PID and create a key from the IP. <snip>do something similar for pid and hash, hash and ip, etc...</snip> This gives my an array with two keys (a PID and an IP) and they both point to the same object. But on the next iteration of the loop, if I find (for example) an IP and HASH and do: myarray[hash] = myarray[ip] The following is False: myarray[hash] == myarray[ip] Hopefully that was clear. I hate to admit that waaay back in the VB days, I remember being able handle objects byref instead of byval. Is there something similar in Python? Or am I just approaching this wrong?

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  • Receiving generic typed <T> custom objects through remote object in Flex

    - by Aaron
    Is it possible to receive custom generic typed objects through AMF? I'm trying to integrate a flex app with an existing C# service but flex is choking on custom generic typed objects. As far as I can tell Flex doesn't even support generics, but I'd like to be able to even just read in the object and cast its members as necessary. I basically just want flex to ignore the <T>. I'm hopeful that there's a way to do this, since flex doesn't complain about typed collections (a server call returning List works fine and flex converts it to an ArrayCollection just like an un-typed List). Here's a trimmed down example of what's going on for me: The custom C# typed class public class TypeTest<T> { public T value { get; set; } public TypeTest () { } } The server method returning the typeTest public TypeTest<String> doTypeTest() { TypeTest<String> theTester = new TypeTest<String>("grrrr"); return theTester; } The corresponding flex value object: [RemoteClass(alias="API.Model.TypeTest")] public class TypeTest { private var _value:Object; public function get value():Object { return _value; } public function set value(theValue:Object):void { _value = value; } public function TypeTest() { } } and the result handler code: public function doTypeTest(result:TypeTest):void { var theString:String = result.value as String; trace(theString); } When the result handler is called I get the runtime error: TypeError: Error #1034: Type Coercion failed: cannot convert mx.utils::ObjectProxy@11a98041 to com.model.vos.TypeTest. Irritatingly if I change the result handler to take parameter of type Object it works fine. Anyone know how to make this work with the value object? I feel like i'm missing something really obvious.

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  • JPA native query join returns object but dereference throws class cast exception

    - by masato-san
    I'm using JPQL Native query to join table and query result is stored in List<Object[]>. public String getJoinJpqlNativeQuery() { String final SQL_JOIN = "SELECT v1.bitbit, v1.numnum, v1.someTime, t1.username, t1.anotherNum FROM MasatosanTest t1 JOIN MasatoView v1 ON v1.username = t1.username;" System.out.println("get join jpql native query is being called ============================"); EntityManager em = null; List<Object[]> out = null; try { em = EmProvider.getDefaultManager(); Query query = em.createNativeQuery(SQL_JOIN); out = query.getResultList(); System.out.println("return object ==========>" + out); System.out.println(out.get(0)); String one = out.get(0).toString(); //LINE 77 where ClassCastException System.out.println(one); } catch(Exception e) { } finally { if(em != null) { em.close; } } } The problem is System.out.println("return object ==========>" + out); outputs: return object ==========> [[true, 0, 2010-12-21 15:32:53.0, masatosan, 0.020], [false, 0, 2010-12-21 15:32:53.0, koga, 0.213]] System.out.println(out.get(0)) outputs: [true, 0, 2010-12-21 15:32:53.0, masatosan, 0.020] So I assumed that I can assign return value of out.get(0) which should be String: String one = out.get(0).toString(); But I get weird ClassCastException. java.lang.ClassCastException: java.util.Vector cannot be cast to [Ljava.lang.Object; at local.test.jaxrs.MasatosanTestResource.getJoinJpqlNativeQuery (MasatosanTestResource.java:77) So what's really going on? Even Object[] foo = out.get(0); would throw an ClassCastException :(

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  • ASP.NET control in one content area needs to reference a control in another content area

    - by harrije
    I have a master page that divides the main content into two areas. There are two asp:ContentPlaceHolder controls in the body section of the master page with IDs cphMain and cphSideBar respectively. One of the corresponding content pages has a control in cphMain that needs to refer to a control in cphSideBar. Specifically, a SqlDataSource in cphMain references a TextBox in cphSideBar to use as a parameter in the select command. When the content page loads the following run-time error occurs: Could not find control 'TextBox1' in ControlParameter 'date_con'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: Could not find control 'TextBox1' in ControlParameter 'date_con'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: Could not find control 'TextBox1' in ControlParameter 'date_con'.] System.Web.UI.WebControls.ControlParameter.Evaluate(HttpContext context, Control control) +1753150 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Parameter.UpdateValue(HttpContext context, Control control) +47 System.Web.UI.WebControls.ParameterCollection.UpdateValues(HttpContext context, Control control) +114 System.Web.UI.WebControls.SqlDataSource.LoadCompleteEventHandler(Object sender, EventArgs e) +43 System.EventHandler.Invoke(Object sender, EventArgs e) +0 System.Web.UI.Page.OnLoadComplete(EventArgs e) +8698566 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +735 I kinda know what the problem is... ASP.NET does not like the fact that the SqlDataSource and TextBox are in different asp:Content controls within the content page. As a workaround, I have another TextBox in cphMain with the SqlDataSource which has Visible=False. Then in the Page_Load() event handler the contents of the TextBox in cphSideBar is copied into the contents of the non-visible TextBox in cphMain. I get the results I want with the work around I've come up with, but it seems like such a hack. I was wondering if there is a better solution I'm missing. Please advise.

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  • How to check for a null object reference when validating forms in MVC

    - by quakkels
    Hello SO, I'm experimenting with validating forms in the asp.net MVC framework. I'm focusing on server side validation for the time being. I've come across an error that I'm not sure how to rectify. System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. The code that throws the error is: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Create([Bind(Exclude="ID")] MembersCreate mc ) { mc.Modules = ModuleListDataContext.GetModuleList(); ViewData.Model = mc; //Validation using ModelState // // //line below errors when form field is empty // if ((string)mc.Member.Username.Trim() == "") ModelState.AddModelError("Member.Username", "Username is required."); if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); try { // TODO: Add insert logic here return RedirectToAction("Index","Home"); } catch { return View(); } } When I put spaces in the field it performs exactly as i want, but if I leave the field blank and press submit I get the error. What's the best way to avoid this error and still validate blank form fields? Thanks all -

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  • Calling into a saved java object via JNI from a different thread

    - by Drake Amara
    I have a java object which calls into a C++ shared object via JNI. In C++, I am saving a reference to the JNIEnv and jObject. JavaVM * jvm; JNIEnv * myEnv; jobject myobj; JNIEXPORT void JNICALL Java_org_api_init (JNIEnv *env, jobject jObj) { myEnv = env; myobj = jObj; } I also have a GLSurface renderer and it eventually calls the C++ shared object mentioned above on a different thread, the GLThread. I am then trying to call back into my original Java object using the jobject I saved initially, but I think because I am on the GLThread, I get the following error. W/dalvikvm(16101): JNI WARNING: 0x41ded218 is not a valid JNI reference I/dalvikvm(16101): "GLThread 981" prio=5 tid=15 RUNNABLE I/dalvikvm(16101): | group="main" sCount=0 dsCount=0 obj=0x41d6e220 self=0x5cb11078 I/dalvikvm(16101): | sysTid=16133 nice=0 sched=0/0 cgrp=apps handle=1555429136 I/dalvikvm(16101): | schedstat=( 0 0 0 ) utm=42 stm=32 core=1 The code calling back into Java : void setData() { jvm->AttachCurrentThread(&myEnv, 0); jclass javaClass = myEnv->FindClass("com/myapp/myClass"); if(javaClass == NULL){ LOGD("ERROR - cant find class"); } jmethodID method = myEnv->GetMethodID(javaClass, "updateDataModel", "()V"); if(method == NULL){ LOGD("ERROR - cant access method"); } // this works, but its a new java object //jobject myobj2 = myEnv->NewObject(javaClass, method); //this is where the crash occurs myEnv->CallVoidMethod(myobj, method, NULL); } If instead I create a new jObject using env-NewObject, I can succuessfully call back into Java, but it is a new object and I dont want that. I need to get back to my original Java Object. Is it a matter of switching threads before I call back into Java? If so, how do I do so ?

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  • Javascript function objects, this keyword points to wrong object

    - by Rody van Sambeek
    I've got a problem concerning the javascript "this" keyword when used within a javascript functional object. I want to be able to create an object for handling a Modal popup (JQuery UI Dialog). The object is called CreateItemModal. Which i want to be able to instantiate and pass some config settings. One of the config settings. When the show method is called, the dialog will be shown, but the cancel button is not functioning because the this refers to the DOM object instead of the CreateItemModal object. How can I fix this, or is there a better approach to put seperate behaviour in seperate "classes" or "objects". I've tried several approaches, including passing the "this" object into the events, but this does not feel like a clean solution. See (simplified) code below: function CreateItemModal(config) { // initialize some variables including $wrapper }; CreateItemModal.prototype.show = function() { this.$wrapper.dialog({ buttons: { // this crashes because this is not the current object here Cancel: this.close } }); }; CreateItemModal.prototype.close = function() { this.config.$wrapper.dialog('close'); };

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  • Javascript cloned object looses its prototype functions

    - by Jake M
    I am attempting to clone an object in Javascript. I have made my own 'class' that has prototype functions. My Problem: When I clone an object, the clone cant access/call any prototype functions. I get an error when I go to access a prototype function of the clone: clone.render is not a function Can you tell me how I can clone an object and keep its prototype functions This simple JSFiddle demonstrates the error I get: http://jsfiddle.net/VHEFb/1/ function cloneObject(obj) { // Handle the 3 simple types, and null or undefined if (null == obj || "object" != typeof obj) return obj; // Handle Date if (obj instanceof Date) { var copy = new Date(); copy.setTime(obj.getTime()); return copy; } // Handle Array if (obj instanceof Array) { var copy = []; for (var i = 0, len = obj.length; i < len; ++i) { copy[i] = cloneObject(obj[i]); } return copy; } // Handle Object if (obj instanceof Object) { var copy = {}; for (var attr in obj) { if (obj.hasOwnProperty(attr)) copy[attr] = cloneObject(obj[attr]); } return copy; } throw new Error("Unable to copy obj! Its type isn't supported."); } function MyObject(name) { this.name = name; // I have arrays stored in this object also so a simple cloneNode(true) call wont copy those // thus the need for the function cloneObject(); } MyObject.prototype.render = function() { alert("Render executing: "+this.name); } var base = new MyObject("base"); var clone = cloneObject(base); clone.name = "clone"; base.render(); clone.render(); // Error here: "clone.render is not a function"

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  • Using block around a static/singleton resource reference

    - by byte
    This is interesting (to me anyway), and I'd like to see if anyone has a good answer and explanation for this behavior. Say you have a singleton database object (or static database object), and you have it stored in a class Foo. public class Foo { public static SqlConnection DBConn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BAR"].ConnectionString); } Then, lets say that you are cognizant of the usefulness of calling and disposing your connection (pretend for this example that its a one-time use for purposes of illustration). So you decide to use a 'using' block to take care of the Dispose() call. using (SqlConnection conn = Foo.DBConn) { conn.Open(); using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand()) { cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.CommandText = "SP_YOUR_PROC"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } conn.Close(); } This fails, with an error stating that the "ConnectionString property is not initialized". It's not an issue with pulling the connection string from the app.config/web.config. When you investigate in a debug session you see that Foo.DBConn is not null, but contains empty properties. Why is this?

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  • Silverlight logging out causes "Object reference not set to an instance"

    - by Alex
    I am using the Silverlight 4 Business Application Template. I've created a DomainDataSource in XAML like so: <riaControls:DomainDataSource x:Name="LogData" QueryName="GetLogs" AutoLoad="True" LoadSize="20" > <riaControls:DomainDataSource.DomainContext> <local:AdminDomainContext /> </riaControls:DomainDataSource.DomainContext> <riaControls:DomainDataSource.QueryParameters> <riaControls:Parameter ParameterName="UserLoginID" Value="{Binding Path=User.UserLoginID, Source={StaticResource WebContext}}" /> </riaControls:DomainDataSource.QueryParameters> </riaControls:DomainDataSource> The problem I'm experiencing is that whenever I log out, I get: Load operation failed for query 'GetLogs'. Object reference not set to an instance of an object. I assume that because I've logged out, User.UserLoginID is now null and is causing the exception. So... anybody know a good way for me to solve this? I don't really want to set the QueryParameter programmatically.

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  • Pass object or id

    - by Charles
    This is just a question about best practices. Imagine you have a method that takes one parameter. This parameter is the id of an object. Ideally, I would like to be able to pass either the object's id directly, or just the object itself. What is the most elegant way to do this? I came up with the following: def method_name object object_id = object.to_param.to_i ### do whatever needs to be done with that object_id end So, if the parameter already is an id, it just pretty much stays the same; if it's an object, it gets its id. This works, but I feel like this could be better. Also, to_param returns a string, which could in some cases return a "real" string (i.e. "string" instead of "2"), hence returning 0 upon calling to_i on it. This could happen, for example, when using the friendly id gem for classes. Active record offers the same functionality. It doesn't matter if you say: Table.where(user_id: User.first.id) # pass in id or Table.where(user_id: User.first) # pass in object and infer id How do they do it? What is the best approach to achieve this effect?

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  • Change object on client side or on server side

    - by Polina Feterman
    I'm not sure what is the best practice. I have some big and complex objects (NOT flat). In that object I have many related objects - for example Invoice is the main class and one of it's properties is invoiceSupervisor - a big class by it's own called User. User can also be not flat and have department property - also an object called Department. For example I want create new Invoice. First way: I can present to client several fields to fill in. Some of them will be combos that I will need to fill with available values. For example available invoiceSupervisors. Then all the chosen values I can send to server and on server I can create new Invoice and assign all chosen values to that new Invoice. Then I will need to assign new supervisor I will pull the chosen User by id that user picked up on server from combobox. I might do some verification on the User such as does the user applicable to be invoice supervisor. Then I will assign the User object to invoiceSupervisor. Then after filling all properties I will save the new invoice. Second way: In the beginning I can call to server to get a new Invoice. Then on client I can fill all chosen values , for example I can call to server to get new User object and then fill it's id from combobox and assign the User as invoiceSupervisor. After filling the Invoice object on client I can send it to server and then the server will save the new invoice. Before saving server can run some validations as well. So what is the best approach - to make the object on client and send it to server or to collect all values from client and to make a new object on server using those values ?

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  • WPF Databinding With A Collection Object

    - by Randster
    Argh, although I've been googling, I really would appreciate it if someone could break my problem down as all the code examples online are confusing me more than assisting (perhaps it's just late)... I have a simple class as defined below: public class Person { int _id; string _name; public Person() { } public int ID { get { return _id; } set { _id = value; } } public string Name { get { return _name; } set { _name = value; } } } that is stored in a database, and thru a bit more code I put it into an ObservableCollection object to attempt to databind in WPF later on: public class People : ObservableCollection<Person> { public People() : base() { } public void Add(List<Person> pListOfPeople) { foreach (Person p in pListOfPeople) this.Add(p); } } In XAML, I have myself a ListView that I would like to populate a ListViewItem (consisting of a textblock) for each item in the "People" object as it gets updated from the database. I would also like that textblock to bind to the "Name" property of the Person object. I thought at first that I could do this: lstPeople.DataContext = objPeople; where lstPeople is my ListView control in my XAML, but that of course does nothing. I've found TONS of examples online where people through XAML create an object and then bind to it through their XAML; but not one where we bind to an instantiated object and re-draw accordingly. Could someone please give me a few pointers on: A) How to bind a ListView control to my instantiated "People" collection object? B) How might I apply a template to my ListView to format it for the objects in the collection? Even links to a decent example (not one operating on an object declared in XAML please) would be appreciated. Thanks for your time.

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  • VSDBCMD returns "An unexpected failure occurred: Object reference not set to an instance of an objec

    - by Matt Wrock
    I have been succesfully using the command line database deployment tool VSDBCMD on my dev and test environments but the tool fails in our integration environmrnt. I am using the VS 2010 version of the tool. The servers have all of the prerequisites including: .net 4.0 sql server compact edition 3.5 sp1 (as well as the full edition of 2008) sql server 2008 server management objects sql server 2008 native client sql server system clr types msxml 6 all of the dependent DLLs included in: C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server Compact Edition\v3.5\desktop*.dll C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server Compact Edition\v3.5*.dll C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft Visual Studio 10.0\VSTSDB\Deploy**. The only reference to this error that I have been able to find has to do with a bug in the VS 2008 edition when the HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\VisualStudio\9.0 key is missing. In my case the 10.0 version of the key exists. Has anyone else encountered this?

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  • WPF parent-child window: binding reference problem

    - by LukePet
    I have a WPF Window that open a modal child window to load some data. Both window have a own viewmodel, now I have this problem: after I close the child window it seems still running in background! To close the child window I set DialogResult from viewmodel command; now, if I create a new data and then I edit it from parent window (with the child window closed before), the child window still capture the property changed event for the properties previously bind. How can avoid this? I would clear every reference with data when I close modal window. Which is the best practise to do it?

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  • C# - Pass by value & Pass by Reference

    - by Lijo
    Hi Team, Could you please explain the following behavior of C# Class. I expect the classResult as "Class Lijo"; but actual value is “Changed”. We’re making a copy of the reference. Though the copy is pointing to the same address, the method receiving the argument cannot change original. Still why the value gets changed ? public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Person p = new Person(); p.Name = "Class Lijo"; Utilityclass.TestMethod(p); string classResult = p.Name; Response.Write(classResult); } } public class Utilityclass { public static void TestMethod(Person k) { k.Name = "Changed"; } } public class Person { private string name; public string Name { get { return name; } set { name = value; } } } Thanks Lijo

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  • Visual Studio reference x64 GAC

    - by icelava
    How can one get Visual Studio 2005/2008 to reference assemblies in the 64-bit GAC instead of the 32-bit GAC? We are settin the target platfom to x64 and the compiler is throwing the error of Error 2 Warning as Error: Assembly generation -- Referenced assembly 'System.Data.dll' targets a different processor Common Error 3 Warning as Error: Assembly generation -- Referenced assembly 'mscorlib.dll' targets a different processor Common Error 4 Assembly signing failed; output may not be signed -- The system cannot find the file specified. Common Update 29 Dec 08 Been trying out Aaron Stebner's suggestions to place 64-bit assemblies onto an isolated location (e.g. C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework64\v2.0.50727\GAC_64) and creating additional entries in the registry like HKLM\SOFTWARE\Microsoft.NETFramework\AssemblyFolders\GAC_64 or HKLM\SOFTWARE\Microsoft.NETFramework\v2.0.50727\AssemblyFoldersEx\GAC_64 but Visual Studio 2005 is still not picking it up....

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  • How do you give variables reference in javascript?

    - by Eric
    I want to give variables reference in javascript. For example, I want to do: a=1 b=a a=2 and have b=2, and change accordingly to a. Is this possible in javascript? If it isn't is there a way to do like a.onchange = function () {b=a}? What I wanted to do was make a function like makeobject which make an object and puts it in an array and than returns it like function makeobject() { objects[objects.length] = {blah:'whatever',foo:8}; } so than I could do a=makeobject() b=makeobject() c=makeobject() and later in the code do for (i in objects) { objects[i].blah = 'whatev'; } and also change the values of a,b and c

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  • Are there gotchas using varargs with reference parameters

    - by Roddy
    I have this piece of code (summarized)... AnsiString working(AnsiString format,...) { va_list argptr; AnsiString buff; va_start(argptr, format); buff.vprintf(format.c_str(), argptr); va_end(argptr); return buff; } And, on the basis that pass by reference is preferred where possible, I changed it thusly. AnsiString broken(const AnsiString &format,...) { ... the rest, totally identical ... } My calling code is like this:- AnsiString s1, s2; s1 = working("Hello %s", "World"); s2 = broken("Hello %s", "World"); But, s1 contains "Hello World", while s2 has "Hello (null)". I think this is due to the way va_start works, but I'm not exactly sure what's going on.

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  • Assinging a GD reference to a new variable fails to copy

    - by Stomped
    This is a contrived example, but it illustrates my problem much more concisely then the code I'm using - and I've tested this and it exhibits the problem: $image = imagecreatefromjpeg('test.jpg'); $copy_of_image = $image; // The important bit imagedestroy($image); header('Content-type: image/jpeg'); imagejpeg($copy_of_image); Now, my expectation is that $copy_of_image is exactly that, but when I run this, it fails, printing out the URL of the script of all things. Comment out the imagedestroy() and it works just fine. a var_dump of $image provides: resource(3) of type (gd) So why can't I copy this? Apparently the assignment $copy_of_image = $image is creating a reference rather then a copy - is there a way to prevent that?

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  • Assembly reference in Silverlight class library and used only in xaml is not packaged in XAP

    - by Brandon Copeland
    I have a 3rd party library (A). That library is referenced in my Silverlight class library (B). That Silverlight class library is referenced in my Silverlight application (C). The 3rd party library is not explicitly referenced in the Silverlight application. It seems that "A" is added to my XAP if "A" is used in any class in "B" because of a chain in dependencies (C - B - A). This is the behavior I would expect and need. If "A" is never explicitly used in a C# class but only defined in Xaml, the assembly is not packaged to the XAP. Maybe "A" includes a control that is only used declaratively and never referenced otherwise. Is this behavior by design? Am I missing a property somewhere that controls this? I would prefer to not explicitly reference the third party library in my Silverlight application. What's to best practice to ensure all necessary assemblies are packaged in the XAP?

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  • Referencing a control programatically with external source

    - by James
    Forgive me about the title, I have no idea what this is called. I have a MS Access database set up, with a Period field that has either values 1, 2, 3, 4 or 5. I retrieve these values using a database connection and I would like to reference a particular control based on what period was grabbed from the database. Here's example code, pseudo of course. TextBox(dr(3)).Text = dr(0) dr(3) contains the period, and dr(0) contains the content I would like to put into the text box. I have these text boxes on my form: TextBox1, TextBox2, TextBox3, TextBox4 and TextBox5. So if dr(3) contained 2 then I would want to reference TextBox2. I hope I've made myself clear, any help would be greatly appreciated, thanks. :)

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  • How to make a reference to a normal java class from GWT server side

    - by mohammed-qumhieh
    hello I building my project using GWT plugin for eclipse Galileo, after i done from RPC between the server and client, i trying to make a reference from gwt server side to normal java class in non-gwt-project, but every time i make an object from the class (which in non-gwt-project) gives me ClassNotFoundException. i did the buildpath for the gwt project, but still gives me the same exception, is there a way to make that from server side (not from client side). i need help please, i spent a lot of time searching for solution but i did not found anything. i appreciate any suggestions...thanks

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