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  • Serializing QGraphicsScene contents

    - by Rob
    I am using the Qt QGraphicsScene class, adding pre-defined items such as QGraphicsRectItem, QGraphicsLineItem, etc. and I want to serialize the scene contents to disk. However, the base QGraphicsItem class (that the other items I use derive from) doesn't support serialization so I need to roll my own code. The problem is that all access to these objects is via a base QGraphicsItem pointer, so the serialization code I have is horrible: QGraphicsScene* scene = new QGraphicsScene; scene->addRect(QRectF(0, 0, 100, 100)); scene->addLine(QLineF(0, 0, 100, 100)); ... QList<QGraphicsItem*> list = scene->items(); foreach (QGraphicsItem* item, items) { if (item->type() == QGraphicsRectItem::Type) { QGraphicsRectItem* rect = qgraphicsitem_cast<QGraphicsRectItem*>(item); // Access QGraphicsRectItem members here } else if (item->type() == QGraphicsLineItem::Type) { QGraphicsLineItem* line = qgraphicsitem_cast<QGraphicsLineItem*>(item); // Access QGraphicsLineItem members here } ... } This is not good code IMHO. So, instead I could create an ABC class like this: class Item { public: virtual void serialize(QDataStream& strm, int version) = 0; }; class Rect : public QGraphicsRectItem, public Item { public: void serialize(QDataStream& strm, int version) { // Serialize this object } ... }; I can then add Rect objects using QGraphicsScene::addItem(new Rect(,,,)); But this doesn't really help me as the following will crash: QList<QGraphicsItem*> list = scene->items(); foreach (QGraphicsItem* item, items) { Item* myitem = reinterpret_class<Item*>(item); myitem->serialize(...) // FAIL } Any way I can make this work?

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  • PHP array value becomes blank. What is going on?

    - by Michael Bruce
    I have written a web page that works fine expect for some weird behavior. The code below gets all expected values and populates them correctly except for $v-data["quick_phone_id"] and $v-data["quick_email_id"] which are integers. Those values come out blank in the string I am creating. The value for $v-data["id"] is another integer and works as expected. My only clue is that when I uncomment the commented out line, the code works properly. So I'm guessing this has to do with referencing getting broken for the array. Any ideas? I'd like to fix my code and my PHP knowledge. $contacts = ContactInfo::loadMyContacts($userId); $sb = new StringBuilder(); $idx = 0; //$vals = "vals: ".$contacts[0]->data["quick_phone_id"]; $sb->append(' dataRows = ['); foreach($contacts as $k => $v) { $sb->append('{ id:"'.strval($v->data["id"]).'",'); $sb->append('url:"edit_contact.php?id='.$v->data["id"].'",'); $sb->append('gname:"'.$v->data["given_name"].'",'); $sb->append('fname:"'.$v->data["family_name"].'",'); $sb->append('phone1id2:"'.strval($v->data["quick_phone_id"]).'",'); $sb->append('phone1type:"'.$v->data["quick_phone_type"].'",'); $sb->append('phone1:"'.$v->data["quick_phone"].'",'); $sb->append("email1id2:'".strval($v->data["quick_email_id"])."',"); $sb->append('email1type:"'.$v->data["quick_email_type"].'",'); $sb->append("email1:'".$v->data["quick_email"]."',"); $sb->append("dirty:false },\n"); } $sb->append('];');

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  • array_map applied on a function with 2 parameters

    - by mat
    I've 2 arrays ($numbers and $letters) and I want to create a new array based on a function that combines every $numbers with every $letters. The parameters of this function involes the value of both $numbers and $letters. (Note: $numbers and $letters doesn't have the same amount of values). I need something like this: $numbers = array(1,2,3,4,5,6,...); $letters = array('a','b','c','d','e',...); function myFunction($x,$y){ // $output = some code that use $x and $y return $output; }; $array_1 = array( (myFunction($numbers[0],$letters[0])), (myFunction($numbers[0],$letters[1])), myFunction($numbers[0],$letters[2]), myFunction($numbers[0],$letters[3]), etc); $array_2 = array( (myFunction($numbers[1],$letters[0])), (myFunction($numbers[1],$letters[1])), myFunction($numbers[1],$letters[2]), myFunction($numbers[1],$letters[3]), etc); $array_3 = array( (myFunction($numbers[2],$letters[0])), (myFunction($numbers[2],$letters[1])), myFunction($numbers[2],$letters[2]), myFunction($numbers[2],$letters[3]), etc); ... $array_N = array( (myFunction($numbers[N],$letters[0])), (myFunction($numbers[N],$letters[1])), myFunction($numbers[N],$letters[2]), myFunction($numbers[N],$letters[3]), etc); $array = array($array_1, $array_2, $array_3, etc.); I know that this may work, but it's a lot of code, especially if I have a many values for each array. Is there a way to get the same result with less code? I tried this, but it's not working: $array = array_map("myFunction($value, $letters)",$numbers)); Any help would be appriciated!

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  • ASP.NET: How to get same validators control to be both client-side and server-side

    - by harrije
    Hello, For the ASP.NET validator controls, I want to use both client-side validation for the user experience and server-side validation to guard against hackers. ASP.NET documentation leads me to believe that if EnableClientScript="True" then there will be no server-side validation if client-side validation is possible for the user agent. To get server-side validation, the documentation says use EnableClientScript="False", which bypasses client-side validation altogether. Am I misunderstanding how the validator controls work? I ask because it seems obvious that many developers would want both client and server side validation together, and I find it hard to believe both together is not possible with one of the standard validation controls. If I am understanding the ASP.NET documentation correctly, then I can find only two options: Use two validator controls exactly the same except for their ID and EnableClientScript properties. Obviously ugly for maintaining two controls almost the same. Write some code behind to check if postback then invoke the Validate method on the validator group. Why write code behind if there a way to be automatic from the control? Is there a way to do so using a single validator control with no code behind? Thanks in advance for your input.

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  • LEFT OUTER JOIN with a WHERE clause

    - by Wesley
    I have two tables. indRailType contains a list of the names paired with an ID value that I use in other tables to indicate the rail type. WO_BreakerRail contains a date column and a rail code colume that corresponds to the same code in indRailType and some other data. There's a row in WO_BreakerRail for any activity on each rail type, for every date. So I could have 3 rows dated for 3/19/2010, each row indicates a different rail code, and what happened. When I use the following LEFT OUTER JOIN, I get a table with all the types of rail, with nulls in the rows where nothing happened on the 19th. Now, this is only working because I only have one date represented in my WO_BreakerRail table right now, the 19th. When I add more rows with different dates, things will go haywire. This is my SQL statement, which right now gives me exactly the results I want: SELECT WO_BreakerRail.ID, indRailType.RailType, WO_BreakerRail.CreatedPieces, WO_BreakerRail.OutsideSource, WO_BreakerRail.Charged, WO_BreakerRail.Rejected, WO_BreakerRail.RejectedToCrop FROM indRailType LEFT OUTER JOIN WO_BreakerRail ON indRailType.RailCode = WO_BreakerRail.RailCode Now, when I add in a WHERE WO_BreakerRail.Date = @Date clause I lose all the rows in the JOIN which nothing happened. I don't want that. From reading up, it sounds like a FULL OUTER JOIN is what I want, but SQL Server Compact Edition doesn't support FULL OUTER JOINs. Is there a way around this, or am I looking for something else entirely?

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  • Downloading a file from a PHP page in C#

    - by FoxyShadoww
    Okay, we have a PHP script that creates an download link from a file and we want to download that file via C#. This works fine with progress etc but when the PHP page gives an error the program downloads the error page and saves it as the requested file. Here is the code we have atm: PHP Code: <?php $path = 'upload/test.rar'; if (file_exists($path)) { $mm_type="application/octet-stream"; header("Pragma: public"); header("Expires: 0"); header("Cache-Control: must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0"); header("Cache-Control: public"); header("Content-Description: File Transfer"); header("Content-Type: " . $mm_type); header("Content-Length: " .(string)(filesize($path)) ); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename="'.basename($path).'"'); header("Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary\n"); readfile($path); exit(); } else { print 'Sorry, we could not find requested download file.'; } ?> C# Code: private void btnDownload_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string url = "http://***.com/download.php"; WebClient client = new WebClient(); client.DownloadFileCompleted += new AsyncCompletedEventHandler(client_DownloadFileCompleted); client.DownloadProgressChanged += new DownloadProgressChangedEventHandler(ProgressChanged); client.DownloadFileAsync(new Uri(url), @"c:\temp\test.rar"); } private void ProgressChanged(object sender, DownloadProgressChangedEventArgs e) { progressBar.Value = e.ProgressPercentage; } void client_DownloadFileCompleted(object sender, AsyncCompletedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(print); }

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  • A weird crash...

    - by Nima
    Hi, I have a piece of code that runs in debug mode in VS2008, C++. The problem is that when I am debugging the code line by line, at a very weird point of the code, it crashes and says: debug assertion faild. Expression: _BLOCK_TYPE_IS_VALID(pHead-nBlockUse) The crash point is on the first closed curly bracket (after mesh-edges[e].needsUpdate=false;) I don't understand why on a curly bracket? does that make sense to you guys? Can anybody help me understanding what is going on..? for(int e=0; e<mesh->edges.size(); e++) { if(mesh->edges[e].valid && mesh->edges[e].v[0]>=0 && mesh->edges[e].v[1]>=0 && mesh->points[mesh->edges[e].v[0]].writable && mesh->points[mesh->edges[e].v[1]].writable) { //update v_hat and its corresponding error DecEdge Current = DecEdge(e); pair<Point, float> ppf = computeVhat(e); Current.v_hat = ppf.first; Current.error = ppf.second; edgeSoup.push(Current); mesh->edges[e].needsUpdate=false; } }

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  • AnyCPU/x86/x64 for C# application and it's C++/CLI dependency

    - by Soonts
    I'm Windows developer, I'm using Microsoft visual studio 2008 SP1. My developer machine is 64 bit. The software I'm currently working on is managed .exe written in C#. Unfortunately, I was unable to solve the whole problem solely in C#. That's why I also developed a small managed DLL in C++/CLI. Both projects are in the same solution. My C# .exe build target is "Any CPU". When my C++ DLL build target is "x86", the DLL is not loaded. As far as I understood when I googled, the reason is C++/CLI language, unlike other .NET languages, compiles to the native code, not managed code. I switched the C++ DLL build target to x64, and everything works now. However, AFAIK everything will stop working as soon as my client will install my product on a 32-bit OS. I have to support Windows Vista and 7, both 32 and 64 bit versions of each of them. I don't want to fall back to 32 bits. That 250 lines of C++ code in my DLL is only 2% of my codebase. And that DLL is only used in several places, so in the typical usage scenario it's not even loaded. My DLL implements two COM objects with ATL, so I can't use "/clr:safe" project setting. Is there way to configure the solution and the projects so that C# project builds "Any CPU" version, the C++ project builds both 32 bit and 64 bit versions, then in the runtime when the managed .EXE is starting up, it uses either 32-bit DLL or 64-bit DLL depending on the OS? Or maybe there's some better solution I'm not aware of? Thanks in advance!

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  • Is it possible from Spring to inject the result of calling a method on a ref bean?

    - by Alex Worden
    Hi, Is it possible from Spring to inject the result of calling a method on a ref bean? I'm trying to refactor some cut/pasted code from two separate projects into a common class. In one of the projects, the code lives in a class I'll call "MyClient" that is being instantiated from Spring. It is injected with another spring-instantiated class "MyRegistry", then the MyClient class uses that class to look up an endpoint. All I really need is the endpoint String in my refactored class, which can be initialized via a Setter. I really cannot have a dependency on MyRegistry from MyClient in the refactored code. So, my question is this... is there a way I can inject the endpoint String from spring that was looked up in the MyRegistry class. So, I currently have: <bean id="registryService" class="foo.MyRegistry"> ...properties set etc... </bean> <bean id="MyClient" class="foo.MyClient"> <property name="registry" ref="registryService"/> </bean> But I'd like to have (and I know this is imaginary Spring syntax) <bean id="MyClient" class="foo.MyClient"> <property name="endPoint" value="registryService.getEndPoint('bar')"/> </bean> where MyRegistry will have a method getEndPoint(Stirng endPointName) Hope that makes sense from a the standpoint of what I'm trying to achieve. Please let me know if something like this is possible in Spring!

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  • Java enums in generic type

    - by Marcin Cylke
    Hi, I'd like to create a generic enum-based mapper for IBatis. I'm doing this with the below code. This does have compile time errors, which I don't know how to fix. Maybe my solution is just plain wrong (keep in mind the use of IBatis), in such case please suggest something better. Any help appreciated. What I want to achieve is to define subsequent mappers as: public class XEnumTypeHandler extends CommonEnumTypeHandler<X> { } The current code: public class CommonEnumTypeHandler<T extends Enum> implements TypeHandlerCallback { public void setParameter(ParameterSetter ps, Object o) throws SQLException { if (o.getClass().isAssignableFrom(**T**)) { ps.setString(((**T**) o).value().toUpperCase()); } else throw new SQLException("Excpected ParameterType object than: " + o); } public Object getResult(ResultGetter rs) throws SQLException { Object o = valueOf(rs.getString()); if (o == null) throw new SQLException("Unknown parameter type: " + rs.getString()); return o; } public Object valueOf(String s) { for (T pt : T.**values()**) { if (pt.**value()**.equalsIgnoreCase(s)) return pt; } return null; } } I've added error markings to the above code, the error messages are in order: T cannot be resolved The method value() is undefined for the type T The method values() is undefined for the type T The method values() is undefined for the type T

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  • "Session is Closed!" - NHibernate

    - by Alexis Abril
    This is in a web application environment: An initial request is able to successfully complete, however any additional requests return a "Session is Closed" response from the NHibernate framework. I'm using a HttpModule approach with the following code: public class MyHttpModule : IHttpModule { public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.EndRequest += ApplicationEndRequest; context.BeginRequest += ApplicationBeginRequest; } public void ApplicationBeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { CurrentSessionContext.Bind(SessionFactory.Instance.OpenSession()); } public void ApplicationEndRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { ISession currentSession = CurrentSessionContext.Unbind( SessionFactory.Instance); currentSession.Dispose(); } public void Dispose() { } } SessionFactory.Instance is my singleton implementation, using FluentNHibernate to return an ISessionFactory object. In my repository class, I attempt to use the following syntax: public class MyObjectRepository : IMyObjectRepository { public MyObject GetByID(int id) { using (ISession session = SessionFactory.Instance.GetCurrentSession()) return session.Get<MyObject>(id); } } This allows code in the application to be called as such: IMyObjectRepository repo = new MyObjectRepository(); MyObject obj = repo.GetByID(1); I have a suspicion my repository code is to blame, but I'm not 100% sure on the actual implementation I should be using. I found a similar issue on SO here. I too am using WebSessionContext in my implementation, however, no solution was provided other than writing a custom SessionManager. For simple CRUD operations, is a custom session provider required apart from the built in tools(ie WebSessionContext)?

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  • One big executable or many small DLL's?

    - by Patrick
    Over the years my application has grown from 1MB to 25MB and I expect it to grow further to 40, 50 MB. I don't use DLL's, but put everything in this one big executable. Having one big executable has certain advantages: Installing my application at the customer is really: copy and run. Upgrades can be easily zipped and sent to the customer There is no risk of having conflicting DLL's (where the customer has version X of the EXE, but version Y of the DLL) The big disadvantage of the big EXE is that linking times seem to grow exponentially. Additional problem is that a part of the code (let's say about 40%) is shared with another application. Again, the advantages are that: There is no risk on having a mix of incorrect DLL versions Every developer can make changes on the common code which speeds up developments. But again, this has a serious impact on compilation times (everyone compiles the common code again on his PC) and on linking times. The question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2387908/grouping-dlls-for-use-in-executable mentions the possibility of mixing DLL's in one executable, but it looks like this still requires you to link all functions manually in your application (using LoadLibrary, GetProcAddress, ...). What is your opinion on executable sizes, the use of DLL's and the best 'balance' between easy deployment and easy/fast development?

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  • Apply CSS style to anchor problem

    - by Jake
    Using jquery I have a clicking tab mechanism that are nothing but anchor tags that return false but call javascript functions to run some events on the page. The problem is I am using jquery to apply an opacity style to the active anchor. and the other sibling anchor get a lesser opacity view. My code looks like this $("#menutab li a").click(function(){ $(this).animate({opacity:'1'},1000); $(this).siblings().animate({opacity:'.25'},1000); } I would think this code would act only on the clicked element and apply that css style to that element and the other style to the other anchor tags except the clicked one. It kind of does that, but also what it does is leave the earlier clicked element to opacity =1, so if I click an element it sets it opacity to 1 and then if I click another one it sets it opacity to 1 while leave the earlier clicked one to 1 also instead of setting it to .25 like the others. Edit: I changed the above code to: $("#menutab ul li").click(function(){ $(this).children().animate({opacity:'1'},1000); $(this).siblings().children().animate({opacity:'.25'},1000); }); and now I get the desired effect, except that when the first anchor in the list is clicked doesn't follow the event rules, When the first one is clicked its as if, the click event is not triggered, because no opacity style changes. which I don't understand.

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  • FTPing a file to Mainframe using Java, Apache Common Net

    - by SKR
    I'm am trying to upload a file into mainframe server using FTP. My code is below FTPClient client = new FTPClient(); InputStream in = null; FileInputStream fis = null; try{ client.connect("10.10.23.23"); client.login("user1", "pass123"); client.setFileType(FTPClient.BINARY_FILE_TYPE); int reply ; reply = client.getReplyCode(); System.out.println("Reply Code:"+reply); if(FTPReply.isPositiveCompletion(reply)){ System.out.println("Positive reply"); String filename ="D:\\FILE.txt"; in = new FileInputStream(filename); client.storeFile("FILE.TXT", in); client.logout(); fis.close(); }else{ System.out.println("Negative reply"); } }catch(final Throwable t){ t.printStackTrace(); } The code gets struck in client.storeFile("FILE.TXT", in); I am unable to debug. Please suggest ways / solutions.

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  • create an independent hidden process

    - by Jessica
    I'm creating an application with its main window hidden by using the following code: STARTUPINFO siStartupInfo; PROCESS_INFORMATION piProcessInfo; memset(&siStartupInfo, 0, sizeof(siStartupInfo)); memset(&piProcessInfo, 0, sizeof(piProcessInfo)); siStartupInfo.cb = sizeof(siStartupInfo); siStartupInfo.dwFlags = STARTF_USESHOWWINDOW | STARTF_FORCEOFFFEEDBACK | STARTF_USESTDHANDLES; siStartupInfo.wShowWindow = SW_HIDE; if(CreateProcess(MyApplication, "", 0, 0, FALSE, 0, 0, 0, &siStartupInfo, &piProcessInfo) == FALSE) { // blah return 0; } Everything works correctly except my main application (the one calling this code) window loses focus when I open the new program. I tried lowering the priority of the new process but the focus problem is still there. Is there anyway to avoid this? furthermore, is there any way to create another process without using CreateProcess (or any of the API's that call CreateProcess like ShellExecute)? My guess is that my app is losing focus because it was given to the new process, even when it's hidden. To those of you curious out there that will certainly ask the usual "why do you want to do this", my answer is because I have a watchdog process that cannot be a service and it gets started whenever I open my main application. Satisfied? Thanks for the help. Code will be appreciated. Jess.

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  • Why can't I access the facebook friends list after reopening a session in ios

    - by user1532390
    I am upgrading to the facebook 3.0 sdk for ios. Things went well, until I tried to open an existing session after relaunching the application. I am trying to access the list of friends for the facebook user. if ([[FBSession activeSession] isOpen]) { [request startWithCompletionHandler:^(FBRequestConnection *connection, id result, NSError *error) { //do something here }]; }else{ [[self session] openWithCompletionHandler:^(FBSession *session, FBSessionState status, NSError *error) { if ([self isValid]) { [request startWithCompletionHandler:^(FBRequestConnection *connection, id result, NSError *error) { //log this error we always get NSLog(@"%@",error); //do something else }]; } }]; } However I get this error: Error Domain=com.facebook.sdk Code=5 "The operation couldn’t be completed. (com.facebook.sdk error 5.)" UserInfo=0x1d92ff40 {com.facebook.sdk:ParsedJSONResponseKey={ body = { error = { code = 2500; message = "An active access token must be used to query information about the current user."; type = OAuthException; }; }; code = 400; }, com.facebook.sdk:HTTPStatusCode=400} I've found that if I use the FBSession reauthorize method it allows me to complete the request without error, but it also means I must show UI or switch apps every time we relaunch the application which is unacceptable. Any suggestions on what I should be doing differently?

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  • Why does my Perl CGI script cause a 500 internal server error?

    - by Nitish
    I get a 500 internal server error when I try to run the code below in a web server which supports perl: #! /usr/bin/perl use LWP; my $ua = LWP::UserAgent->new; $ua->agent("TestApp/0.1 "); $ua->env_proxy(); my $req = HTTP::Request->new(POST => 'http://www.google.com/loc/json'); $req->content_type('application/jsonrequest'); $req->content('{ "cell_towers": [{"location_area_code": "55000", "mobile_network_code": "95", "cell_id": "20491", "mobile_country_code": "404"}], "version": "1.1.0", "request_address": "true"}'); my $res = $ua->request($req); if ($res->is_success) { print $res->content,"\n"; } else { print $res->status_line, "\n"; return undef; } But there is no error when I run the code below: #! /usr/bin/perl use CGI::Carp qw(fatalsToBrowser); print "Content-type: text/html\n\n"; print "<HTML>\n"; print "<HEAD><TITLE>Hello World!</TITLE></HEAD>\n"; print "<BODY>\n"; print "<H2>Hello World!</H2> <br /> \n"; foreach $key (sort keys(%ENV)) { print "$key = $ENV{$key}<p>" ; } print "</BODY>\n"; print "</HTML>\n"; So I think there is some problem with my code. When I run the first perl script in my local machine with the -wc command, it says that the syntax is OK. Help me please.

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  • cakephp phone number validation

    - by hellosheikh
    i am new to cakephp 2.x so i dont know how to do this .. i want to login the user from his email address and phone number..what my intention is if the number in database is this "12345" and the user is trying to login through this number "+12345" he can be login into the system.. i have written a code but i dont know how can i use this or to adjust my code within the auth component as the auth component is autometically logging the user .. here is my controller public function beforeFilter() { parent::beforeFilter(); $this->Auth->authenticate = array( 'Authenticate.Cookie' => array( 'fields' => array( 'username' => 'email', 'password' => 'password' ), 'userModel' => 'User', 'scope' => array('User.active' => 1) ), 'Authenticate.MultiColumn' => array( 'fields' => array( 'username' => 'email', 'password' => 'password' ), 'columns' => array('email', 'mobileNo'), 'userModel' => 'User', ) ); } public function login() { if ($this->Auth->login() || $this->Auth->loggedIn()) { $this->redirect('/users/dashboard'); }else{ $this->layout='logindefault'; $this->set('title_for_layout', 'Account Login'); /*$this->Auth->logout(); $cookie = $this->Cookie->read('Auth.User'); */ if ($this->request->is('post')) { if ($this->Auth->login() || $this->Auth->loggedIn()) { if ($this->Session->check('Auth.User')){ $this->_setCookie($this->Auth->user('idUser')); $this->redirect('/users/dashboard'); } }else { $this->Session->setFlash('Incorrect Email/Password Combination'); } }} } here is the code which i am trying to add .. $mobileNo='+123456789'; if (strpos($mobileNo,'+') !== false) { $mobileNo=str_replace("+", "",$mobileNo); } ?

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  • Tools to document/visualize call graph?

    - by Dave Griffiths
    Hi, having recently joined a project with a vast amount of code to get to grips with, I would like to start documenting and visualizing some of the flows through the call graph to give me a better understanding of how everything fits together. This is what I would like to see in my ideal tool: every node is a function/method nodes are connected if one function can call another optional square box in between detailing conditions under which call is made (or a label icon you can hover over like a tooltip) also icon on edge describing parameters hover over node and description is displayed optional icons for node to display pseudo code scenario/domain view - display subset of complete diagram for particular use-case slide view mode - for each frame, the currently executing function is highlighted plenty of options over what to display to reduce on-screen clutter the interactive use of such a tool is key, I'm not looking for a Graphviz type solution because there would be too much clutter. The ability to form a view of a subset of the entire graph would be very handy (maybe with the unimportant clutter greyed out). Don't need automatic generation from source code, happy to enter it manually. Almost like a mind-map. Does that make sense? If you are not aware of such a tool, do you also think it would be useful? (Just in case I decide to go and scratch that itch one day!)

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  • Variable reference problem when loading an object from a file in Java

    - by Snail
    I have a problem with the reference of a variable when loading a saved serialized object from a data file. All the variables referencing to the same object doesn't seem to update on the change. I've made a code snipped below that illustrates the problem. Tournament test1 = new Tournament(); Tournament test2 = test1; try { FileInputStream fis = new FileInputStream("test.out"); ObjectInputStream in = new ObjectInputStream(fis); test1 = (Tournament) in.readObject(); in.close(); } catch (IOException ex){ Logger.getLogger(Frame.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } catch (ClassNotFoundException ex){ Logger.getLogger(Frame.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } System.out.println("test1: " + test1); System.out.println("test2: " + test2); After this code is ran test1 and test2 doesn't reference to the same object anymore. To my knowledge they should do that since in the declaration of test2 makes it a reference to test1. When test1 is updated test2 should reflect the change and return the new object when called in the code. Am I missing something essential here or have I been misstaught about how the variable references in Java works?

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  • Javascript problem with location.href.

    - by Patrick
    Hello! I have a textbox and whenever the user presses a key it's checked to see if the user pressed enter. If the enter key is pressed, i want to add all the info in the textbox and transfer the user to a different url. <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function checkEnter(e){ //e is event object passed from function invocation var characterCode; if(e && e.which){ //if which property of event object is supported (NN4) e = e; characterCode = e.which; //character code is contained in NN4's which property } else{ e = event; characterCode = e.keyCode; //character code is contained in IE's keyCode property } if (characterCode == 13) { //if generated character code is equal to ascii 13 (if enter key) var searchLink = '/Search/?Keywords=' + document.getElementById('<%= searchBox.ClientID %>').value; transferUser(searchLink); return false; } else{ return true; } } function transferUser(url) { window.location.href = url; window.location.replace(url); } </script> Search: <input name="ctl00$searchBox" type="text" id="ctl00_searchBox" class="header_line_search_box_textbox" onKeyPress="checkEnter(event);" /> I have tried every possible combination, but nothing happens. The site just refreshes itself. I also need somehow to convert the text from the user to html safe, must like the HttpUtility.EncodeUrl in aspx.

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  • [iText] Inserting Image onCloseDocument

    - by David
    I'm trying to insert an image in the footer of my document using iText's onCloseDocument event. I have the following code: public void onCloseDocument(PdfWriter writer, Document document) { PdfContentByte pdfByte = writer.getDirectContent(); try { // logo is a non-null global variable Image theImage = new Jpeg(logo); pdfByte.addImage(theImage, 400.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 400.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } The code throws no exceptions, but it also fails to insert the image. This identical code is used onOpenDocument to insert the same logo. The only difference between the two methods are the coordinates in pdfByte.addImage. However, I've tried quite a few different coordinations in onCloseDocument and none of them appear anywhere in my document. Is there any troubleshooting technique for detecting content which is displayed off-page in a PDF? If not, can anyone see the problem with my onCloseDocument method? Edit: As a followup, it seems that onDocumentClose puts its content on page document.length() + 1 (according to its API). However, I don't know how to change the page number back to document.length() and place my logo on the last page.

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  • Why am I getting a ParseException when using SimpleDateFormat to format a date and then parse it?

    - by Greg
    I have been debugging some existing code for which unit tests are failing on my system, but not on colleagues' systems. The root cause is that SimpleDateFormat is throwing ParseExceptions when parsing dates that should be parseable. I created a unit test that demonstrates the code that is failing on my system: import java.text.DateFormat; import java.text.ParseException; import java.text.SimpleDateFormat; import java.util.Date; import java.util.TimeZone; import junit.framework.TestCase; public class FormatsTest extends TestCase { public void testParse() throws ParseException { DateFormat formatter = new SimpleDateFormat("yyyyMMddHHmmss.SSS Z"); formatter.setTimeZone(TimeZone.getDefault()); formatter.setLenient(false); formatter.parse(formatter.format(new Date())); } } This test throws a ParseException on my system, but runs successfully on other systems. java.text.ParseException: Unparseable date: "20100603100243.118 -0600" at java.text.DateFormat.parse(DateFormat.java:352) at FormatsTest.testParse(FormatsTest.java:16) I have found that I can setLenient(true) and the test will succeed. The setLenient(false) is what is used in the production code that this test mimics, so I don't want to change it.

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  • Linq is returning too many results when joined

    - by KallDrexx
    In my schema I have two database tables. relationships and relationship_memberships. I am attempting to retrieve all the entries from the relationship table that have a specific member in it, thus having to join it with the relationship_memberships table. I have the following method in my business object: public IList<DBMappings.relationships> GetRelationshipsByObjectId(int objId) { var results = from r in _context.Repository<DBMappings.relationships>() join m in _context.Repository<DBMappings.relationship_memberships>() on r.rel_id equals m.rel_id where m.obj_id == objId select r; return results.ToList<DBMappings.relationships>(); } _Context is my generic repository using code based on the code outlined here. The problem is I have 3 records in the relationships table, and 3 records in the memberships table, each membership tied to a different relationship. 2 membership records have an obj_id value of 2 and the other is 3. I am trying to retrieve a list of all relationships related to object #2. When this linq runs, _context.Repository<DBMappings.relationships>() returns the correct 3 records and _context.Repository<DBMappings.relationship_memberships>() returns 3 records. However, when the results.ToList() executes, the resulting list has 2 issues: 1) The resulting list contains 6 records, all of type DBMappings.relationships(). Upon further inspection there are 2 for each real relationship record, both are an exact copy of each other. 2) All relationships are returned, even if m.obj_id == 3, even though objId variable is correctly passed in as 2. Can anyone see what's going on because I've spent 2 days looking at this code and I am unable to understand what is wrong. I have joins in other linq queries that seem to be working great, and my unit tests show that they are still working, so I must be doing something wrong with this. It seems like I need an extra pair of eyes on this one :)

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  • selectively show wordpress posts based on category

    - by Andy
    Hi, Currently I'm using the following code as part of sidebar code for Wordpress (the code works fine): <ul class="linklist"> <?php $recentPosts = new WP_Query(); $recentPosts->query('showposts=12'); while ($recentPosts->have_posts()) : $recentPosts->the_post(); ?> <li><a href="<?php the_permalink() ?>" rel="bookmark" title="Link to <?php the_title(); ?>"> <?php the_title(); ?></a> </li> <?php endwhile;?> </ul> It shows the last 12 posts. But what I'm looking for is the following; first check what category the current post (the post that is showing based on the permalink) belongs to, and then only list the latest posts that belong to that same category. What should be edited? Thanks!

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