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• WPF Buttons Style

  - by Polaris

  I have WPF Form which has many buttons with the same code. Appearance of all buttons must be the same For example, code for one of these buttons <Button x:Name="btnAddRelative" Width="120" Click="btnAddRelative_Click" > <Button.Content> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Image Height="26" HorizontalAlignment="Left"> <Image.Source> <BitmapImage UriSource="images/add.png" /> </Image.Source> </Image> <TextBlock Text=" Add Relative" Height="20" VerticalAlignment="Center"/> </StackPanel> </Button.Content> </Button> How can I create one style and use it for all my buttons. All buttons has the same png image, only their text different. How can I do this. I tried to do this with Style object in Resource Section: <UserControl.Resources> <Style TargetType="Button" x:Key="AddStyle"> <Setter Property="Content"> <Setter.Value> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Image Height="26" HorizontalAlignment="Left"> <Image.Source> <BitmapImage UriSource="images/add.png" /> </Image.Source> </Image> <TextBlock Text=" " Height="20" VerticalAlignment="Center"/> </StackPanel> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> </UserControl.Resources> But this code not work. Can any body know how can I do this?

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• Wrapper Classes for Backward compatibility in Java

  - by Casebash

  There is an interesting article here on maintaing backwards compatibility for Java. In the wrapper class section, I can't actually understand what the wrapper class accomplishes. In the following code from MyApp, WrapNewClass.checkAvailable() could be replaced by Class.forName("NewClass"). static { try { WrapNewClass.checkAvailable(); mNewClassAvailable = true; } catch (Throwable ex) { mNewClassAvailable = false; } } Consider when NewClass is unavailable. In the code where we use the wrapper (see below), all we have done is replace a class that doesn't exist, with one that exists, but which can't be compiled as it uses a class that doesn't exist. public void diddle() { if (mNewClassAvailable) { WrapNewClass.setGlobalDiv(4); WrapNewClass wnc = new WrapNewClass(40); System.out.println("newer API is available - " + wnc.doStuff(10)); }else { System.out.println("newer API not available"); } } Can anyone explain why this makes a difference? I assume it has something to do with how Java compiles code - which I don't know much about.

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• ruby on rails one-to-many relationship

  - by fenec

  I would like to model a betting system relationship using the power of rails. so lets start with doing something very simple modelling the relationship from a user to a bet.i would like to have a model bet with 2 primary keys. here are my migrations enter code here class CreateBets < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :bets do |t| t.integer :user_1_id t.integer :user_2_id t.integer :amount t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :bets end end class CreateUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :users do |t| t.string :name t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :users end end the models enter code here class Bet < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user_1,:class_name=:User belongs_to :user_2,:class_name=:User end class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :bets, :foreign_key =:user_1) has_many :bets, :foreign_key =:user_2) end when i test here in the console my relationships I got an error enter code here u1=User.create :name="aa" = # u2=User.create :name="bb" = # b=Bet.create(:user_1=u1,:user_2=u2) *****error***** QUESTIONS: 1 How do I define the relationships between these tables correctly? 2 are there any conventions to name the attributes (ex:user_1_id...) thank you for your help

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• C# IE Proxy Detection not working from a Windows Service

  - by mytwocents

  This is very odd. I've written a windows form tool in C# to return the default IE proxy. It works (See code snippets below). I've created a service to return the proxy using the same code, it works when I step into the debugger, BUT it doesn't work when the service is running as binary code. This must be some sort of permissions or context thing that I cannot recreate. Further, if I call the tool from the windows service, it still doesn't return the proxy information.... this seems isolated to the service somehow. I don't see any permission errors in the events log, it's as if a service has a totally different context than a regular windows form exe. I've tride both: WebRequest.GetSystemWebProxy() and Uri requestUri = new Uri(urlOfDomain); HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(requestUri); IWebProxy proxy = request.Proxy; if (!proxy.IsBypassed(requestUri)){ Uri uri2 = proxy.GetProxy(request.RequestUri); } Thanks for any help!

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• asp.net C# windows authentication iss config

  - by user1566209

  I'm developing a webpage where a need to know the users windows authentication values, more precisely the name. Others developments have been done with this kind of authentication but sadly for me their creators are long gone and i have no contact or documentation. I'm using Visual Studio 2008 and i'm accessing a webservice that is in a remote server. The server is a windows server 2008 r2 standard and is using ISS version 7.5. Since i have the source code of the other developments what i did was copy paste and was working fine when i was calling the webservice that was in my machine (localhost). The code is the following: //1st way WindowsPrincipal wp = new WindowsPrincipal(WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent()); string strUser = wp.Identity.Name;//ALWAYS GET NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE //2nd way WindowsIdentity winId = WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent(); WindowsPrincipal winPrincipal = new WindowsPrincipal(winId); string user = winPrincipal.Identity.Name;//ALWAYS GET NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE //3rd way IIdentity WinId = HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; WindowsIdentity wi = (WindowsIdentity)WinId; string userstr = wi.Name; //ALWAYS GET string empty btn_select.Text = userstr; btn_cancelar.Text = strUser; btn_gravar.Text = user; As you can see i have here 3 ways to get the same and in a sad manner show my user's name. As for my web.config i have: <authentication mode="Windows"/> <identity impersonate="true" /> In the IIS manager i have tried lots of combination of enable and disable between Anonymous Authentication, ASP.NET Impersonation, Basic Authentication, Forms Authentication and Windows Authentication. Can please someone help me?? NOTE: The respective values i get from each try are in the code

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• tail call generated by clang 1.1 and 1.0 (llvm 2.7 and 2.6)

  - by ony

  After compilation next snippet of code with clang -O2 (or with online demo): #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> int flop(int x); int flip(int x) { if (x == 0) return 1; return (x+1)*flop(x-1); } int flop(int x) { if (x == 0) return 1; return (x+0)*flip(x-1); } int main(int argc, char **argv) { printf("%d\n", flip(atoi(argv[1]))); } I'm getting next snippet of llvm assembly in flip: bb1.i: ; preds = %bb1 %4 = add nsw i32 %x, -2 ; <i32> [#uses=1] %5 = tail call i32 @flip(i32 %4) nounwind ; <i32> [#uses=1] %6 = mul nsw i32 %5, %2 ; <i32> [#uses=1] br label %flop.exit I thought that tail call means dropping current stack (i.e. return will be to the upper frame, so next instruction should be ret %5), but according to this code it will do mul for it. And in native assembly there is simple call without tail optimisation (even with appropriate flag for llc) Can sombody explain why clang generates such code? As well I can't understand why llvm have tail call if it can simply check that next ret will use result of prev call and later do appropriate optimisation or generate native equivalent of tail-call instruction?

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• why does entity framework+mysql provider enumeration returns partial results with no exceptions

  - by Freddy Rios

  I'm trying to make sense of a situation I have using entity framework on .net 3.5 sp1 + MySQL 6.1.2.0 as the provider. It involves the following code: Response.Write("Products: " + plist.Count() + "<br />"); var total = 0; foreach (var p in plist) { //... some actions total++; //... other actions } Response.Write("Total Products Checked: " + total + "<br />"); Basically the total products is varying on each run, and it isn't matching the full total in plist. Its varies widely, from ~ 1/5th to half. There isn't any control flow code inside the foreach i.e. no break, continue, try/catch, conditions around total++, anything that could affect the count. As confirmation, there are other totals captured inside the loop related to the actions, and those match the lower and higher total runs. I don't find any reason to the above, other than something in entity framework or the mysql provider that causes it to end the foreach when retrieving an item. The body of the foreach can have some good variation in time, as the actions involve file & network access, my best shot at the time is that when the .net code takes beyond certain threshold there is some type of timeout in the underlying framework/provider and instead of causing an exception it is silently reporting no more items for enumeration. Can anyone give some light in the above scenario and/or confirm if the entity framework/mysql provider has the above behavior? Update: I can't reproduce the behavior by using Thread.Sleep in a simple foreach in a test project, not sure where else to look for this weird behavior :(.

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• RegisterClientScriptInclude doesn't work for some reason...

  - by Andrew

  Hey, I've spent at least 2 days trying anything and googling this...but for some reason I can't get RegisterClientScriptInclude to work the way everyone else has it working? First off, I am usting .NET 3.5 Ajax,...and I am including javascript in my partial page refreshes...using this code: ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock(this, typeof(Page), "MyClientCode", script, true); It works perfectly, my javascript code contained in the script variable is included every partial refresh. The javascript in script is actually quite extensive though, and I would like to store it in a .js file,..so logically I make a .js file and try to include it using RegisterClientScriptInclude ...however i can't for the life of my get this to work. here's the exact code: ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptInclude(this, typeof(Page), "mytestscript", "/js/testscript.js"); the testscript.js file is only included in FULL page refreshes...ie. when I load the page, or do a full postback....i can't get the file to be included in partial refreshes...have no idea why..when viewing the ajax POST in firebug I don't see a difference whether I include the file or not.... both of the ScriptManager Includes are being ran from the exact same place in "Page_Load"...so they should execute every partial refresh (but only the ScriptBlock does). anyways,..any help or ideas,..or further ways I can trouble shoot this problem, would be appreciated. Thanks, Andrew

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• Accessing ViewController's variables from UIActionSheet delegate

  - by VansFannel

  Hello. I have the following code: @implementation SendMapViewController NSMutableArray *emails; At this method I create emails array and I add some NSStrings: - (BOOL) peoplePickerNavigationController: (ABPeoplePickerNavigationController *)peoplePicker shouldContinueAfterSelectingPerson: (ABRecordRef)person { ABMultiValueRef emailInfo = ABRecordCopyValue(person, kABPersonEmailProperty); NSUInteger emailCount = ABMultiValueGetCount(emailInfo); if (emailCount > 1) { UIActionSheet *emailsAlert = [[UIActionSheet alloc] initWithTitle:@"Select an email" delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:nil destructiveButtonTitle:nil otherButtonTitles:nil]; emails = [NSMutableArray arrayWithCapacity: emailCount]; for (NSUInteger i = 0; i < emailCount; i++) { NSString *emailFromContact = (NSString *)ABMultiValueCopyValueAtIndex(emailInfo, i); [emails addObject: emailFromContact]; [emailsAlert addButtonWithTitle:emailFromContact]; [emailFromContact release]; } [emailsAlert addButtonWithTitle:@"Cancel"]; [emailsAlert showInView:self.view]; [emailsAlert release]; } else { ... } CFRelease(emailInfo); [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; return NO; } As you can see in code, if there are more than one email I show and UIActionSheet. When user clicks on a button representing and email, I want to execute the following code: - (void)actionSheet:(UIActionSheet *)actionSheet clickedButtonAtIndex:(NSInteger)buttonIndex { if ([emails count] >= buttonIndex) { NSString *contactEmail = (NSString *)[emails objectAtIndex:buttonIndex]; ... } } But emails array hasn't got any email. What I'm doing wrong? I'm developing for iPhone.

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• How can I strip Python logging calls without commenting them out?

  - by cdleary

  Today I was thinking about a Python project I wrote about a year back where I used logging pretty extensively. I remember having to comment out a lot of logging calls in inner-loop-like scenarios (the 90% code) because of the overhead (hotshot indicated it was one of my biggest bottlenecks). I wonder now if there's some canonical way to programmatically strip out logging calls in Python applications without commenting and uncommenting all the time. I'd think you could use inspection/recompilation or bytecode manipulation to do something like this and target only the code objects that are causing bottlenecks. This way, you could add a manipulator as a post-compilation step and use a centralized configuration file, like so: [Leave ERROR and above] my_module.SomeClass.method_with_lots_of_warn_calls [Leave WARN and above] my_module.SomeOtherClass.method_with_lots_of_info_calls [Leave INFO and above] my_module.SomeWeirdClass.method_with_lots_of_debug_calls Of course, you'd want to use it sparingly and probably with per-function granularity -- only for code objects that have shown logging to be a bottleneck. Anybody know of anything like this? Note: There are a few things that make this more difficult to do in a performant manner because of dynamic typing and late binding. For example, any calls to a method named debug may have to be wrapped with an if not isinstance(log, Logger). In any case, I'm assuming all of the minor details can be overcome, either by a gentleman's agreement or some run-time checking. :-)

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• Getting registry information using Python

  - by Willy

  I am trying to pull registry info from many servers and put them all into one txt file. I got the code working fine in a .bat file. I hear that there is a way simpler way to do this in Python. I am intrigued and delighted to hear this. Can anyone help finish my code: My working bat file: echo rfsqlcl01app >> foo.txt reg query "\\rfsqlcl01app\HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Network Associates\TVD\Shared Components\On Access Scanner\McShield\Configuration\Default" >> foo.txt echo GLADGSQL01 >> foo.txt reg query "\\GLADGSQL01\HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Network Associates\TVD\Shared Components\On Access Scanner\McShield\Configuration\Default" >> foo.txt echo GLADGWEB01 >> foo.txt reg query "\\GLADGWEB01\HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Network Associates\TVD\Shared Components\On Access Scanner\McShield\Configuration\Default" >> foo.txt echo PAPERVISION >> foo.txt My python code structure: >>> server_list = open('server_test.txt', 'r') >>> for line in server_list: print r'reg query \\%s\blah\blah\blah' % line.strip() reg query \\foo\blah\blah\blah reg query \\moo\blah\blah\blah reg query \\boo\blah\blah\blah >>> server_list.close()

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• What limits scaling in this simple OpenMP program?

  - by Douglas B. Staple

  I'm trying to understand limits to parallelization on a 48-core system (4xAMD Opteron 6348, 2.8 Ghz, 12 cores per CPU). I wrote this tiny OpenMP code to test the speedup in what I thought would be the best possible situation (the task is embarrassingly parallel): // Compile with: gcc scaling.c -std=c99 -fopenmp -O3 #include <stdio.h> #include <stdint.h> int main(){ const uint64_t umin=1; const uint64_t umax=10000000000LL; double sum=0.; #pragma omp parallel for reduction(+:sum) for(uint64_t u=umin; u<umax; u++) sum+=1./u/u; printf("%e\n", sum); } I was surprised to find that the scaling is highly nonlinear. It takes about 2.9s for the code to run with 48 threads, 3.1s with 36 threads, 3.7s with 24 threads, 4.9s with 12 threads, and 57s for the code to run with 1 thread. Unfortunately I have to say that there is one process running on the computer using 100% of one core, so that might be affecting it. It's not my process, so I can't end it to test the difference, but somehow I doubt that's making the difference between a 19~20x speedup and the ideal 48x speedup. To make sure it wasn't an OpenMP issue, I ran two copies of the program at the same time with 24 threads each (one with umin=1, umax=5000000000, and the other with umin=5000000000, umax=10000000000). In that case both copies of the program finish after 2.9s, so it's exactly the same as running 48 threads with a single instance of the program. What's preventing linear scaling with this simple program?

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• problem with image gallery using fancybox jquery

  - by Alexander

  I am trying to use fancybox for one of my image galery and my code is the following.. this is the code for my Gallery.aspx where it inherits from a master page... For some reason it doesn't work.. can you guys tell me what the problem is? <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Global.Master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="Gallery.aspx.cs" Inherits="Permias.Gallery" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="head" runat="server"> <script src="jquery.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="./fancybox/jquery.fancybox-1.3.1.pack.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="./fancybox/jquery.easing-1.3.pack.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="./fancybox/jquery.mousewheel-3.0.2.pack.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="./fancybox/jquery.fancybox-1.3.1.css" type="text/css" media="screen" /> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="splash" runat="server"> <div id="splash">&nbsp;</div> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="server"> <a class="grouped_elements" rel="group1" href="http://farm5.static.flickr.com/4058/4252054277_f0fa91e026.jpg"><img src="http://farm5.static.flickr.com/4058/4252054277_f0fa91e026.jpg" alt=""/></a> </asp:Content>

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• I made a horrible loop.... help fix my logic please

  - by Webnet

  I know I'm doing this a bad way... but I'm having trouble seeing any alternatives. I have an array of products that I need to select 4 of randomly. $rawUpsellList is an array of all of the possible upsells based off of the items in their cart. Each value is a product object. I know this is horribly ugly code but I don't see an alternative now.... someone please put me out of my misery so this code doesn't make it to production..... $rawUpsellList = array(); foreach ($tru->global->cart->getItemList() as $item) { $product = $item->getProduct(); $rawUpsellList = array_merge($rawUpsellList, $product->getUpsellList()); } $upsellCount = count($rawUpsellList); $showItems = 4; if ($upsellCount < $showItems) { $showItems = $upsellCount; } $maxLoop = 20; $upsellList = array(); for ($x = 0; $x <= $showItems; $x++) { $key = rand(0, $upsellCount); if (!array_key_exists($key, $upsellList) && is_object($rawUpsellList[$key])) { $upsellList[$key] = $rawUpsellList[$key]; $x++; } if ($x == $maxLoop) { break; } } Posting this code was highly embarassing...

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• codegen:nullValue vs msprop:nullValue

  - by Ken

  Ok, I have datasets that I created way back in 1.1 framework to which we used codegen:nullValue within the XSD to handle null values. However if I open one of these datasets with vs 2005 (i.e. 2.0 framework) and add a column, it removes the codegen setting from the entire xsd but adds in msprop:nullValue However, unlike previous years, I noticed this time the proper property code was NOT over riden from returning the null value specified in codegen as it was doing in the past. Meaning the msprop appears to be creating the proper code behind the scenes (See example). Anyone know of any other differnces? Should I be concerned with deploying a new xsd, WITHOUT the codegen code but instead with the msprop xml? Example: Original creates _ Public Property ParentID() As Integer Get If Me.IsParentIDNull Then Return -1 Else Return CType(Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn),Integer) End If End Get Set Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn) = value End Set End Property New creates _ Public Property ParentID() As Integer Get If Me.IsParentIDNull Then Return -1 Else Return CType(Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn),Integer) End If End Get Set Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn) = value End Set End Property BUT is there anything else that might be occuring that I am NOT seeing thus MAKING me re-enter all the codegen settings? THANKS!

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• G++ Multi-platform memory leak detection tool

  - by indyK1ng

  Does anyone know where I can find a memory memory leak detection tool for C++ which can be either run in a command line or as an Eclipse plug-in in Windows and Linux. I would like it to be easy to use. Preferably one that doesn't overwrite new(), delete(), malloc() or free(). Something like GDB if its gonna be in the command line, but I don't remember that being used for detecting memory leaks. If there is a unit testing framework which does this automatically, that would be great. This question is similar to other questions (such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/283726/memory-leak-detection-under-windows-for-gnu-c-c ) however I feel it is different because those ask for windows specific solutions or have solutions which I would rather avoid. I feel I am looking for something a bit more specific here. Suggestions don't have to fulfill all requirements, but as many as possible would be nice. Thanks. EDIT: Since this has come up, by "overwrite" I mean anything which requires me to #include a library or which otherwise changes how C++ compiles my code, if it does this at run time so that running the code in a different environment won't affect anything that would be great. Also, unfortunately, I don't have a Mac, so any suggestions for that are unhelpful, but thank you for trying. My desktop runs Windows (I have Linux installed but my dual monitors don't work with it) and I'd rather not run Linux in a VM, although that is certainly an option. My laptop runs Linux, so I can use that tool on there, although I would definitely prefer sticking to my desktop as the screen space is excellent for keeping all of the design documentation and requirements in view without having to move too much around on the desktop. NOTE: While I may try answers, I won't mark one as accepted until I have tried the suggestion and it is satisfactory. EDIT2: I'm not worried about the cross-platform compatibility of my code, it's a command line application using just the C++ libraries.

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• Using pointers to adjust global objects in objective-c

  - by Rob

  Ok, so I am working with two sets of data that are extremely similar, and at the same time, these data sets are both global NSMutableArrays within the object. data_set_one = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; data_set_two = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; Two new NSMutableArrays are loaded, which need to be added to the old, existing data. These Arrays are also global. xml_dataset_one = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; xml_dataset_two = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; To reduce code duplication (and because these data sets are so similar) I wrote a void method within the class to handle the data combination process for both Arrays: -(void)constructData:(NSMutableArray *)data fromDownloadArray:(NSMutableArray *)down withMatchSelector:(NSString *)sel_str Now, I have a decent understanding of object oriented programming, so I was thinking that if I were to invoke the method with the global Arrays in the data like so... [self constructData:data_set_one fromDownloadArray:xml_dataset_one withMatchSelector:@"id"]; Then the global NSMutableArrays (data_set_one) would reflect the changes that happen to "array" within the method. Sadly, this is not the case, data_set_one doesn't reflect the changes (ex: new objects within the Array) outside of the method. Here is a code snippet of the problem // data_set_one is empty // xml_dataset_one has a few objects [constructData:(NSMutableArray *)data_set_one fromDownloadArray:(NSMutableArray *)xml_dataset_one withMatchSelector:(NSString *)@"id"]; // data_set_one should now be xml_dataset_one, but when echoed to screen, it appears to remain empty And here is the gist of the code for the method, any help is appreciated. -(void)constructData:(NSMutableArray *)data fromDownloadArray:(NSMutableArray *)down withMatchSelector:(NSString *)sel_str { if ([data count] == 0) { data = down; // set data equal to downloaded data } else if ([down count] == 0) { // download yields no results, do nothing } else { // combine the two arrays here } } This project is not ARC enabled. Thanks for the help guys! Rob

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• Using a Control Template for all controls across the application

  - by samar

  Hi, I have a control template in one of my pages and i am assigning this template to my textbox's Validation.ErrorTemplate property. The following code would give you a better view. <ControlTemplate x:Key="ValidationErrorTemplate"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" HorizontalAlignment="Right"> <AdornedElementPlaceholder/> <Image Name="ValidizorImage" Stretch="None" Source="validizor.gif" ToolTip="{Binding [0].ErrorContent}" ToolTipService.InitialShowDelay="0" ToolTipService.ShowDuration="60000"/> </StackPanel> </ControlTemplate> The above template sets the image at the end of the textbox which is having the error. This template is used as below. <TextBox Grid.Column="5" Grid.Row="1" x:Name="txtemail" Grid.ColumnSpan="3" Margin="0,1,20,1" Validation.ErrorTemplate="{StaticResource ValidationErrorTemplate}" /> My question here is I want to move this control template outside of this page so that i can use it across the application. I tried putting the exact same code of the control template in a user control say "ErrorUC" and using it as below TextBox1.SetResourceReference (System.Windows.Controls.Validation.ErrorTemplateProperty, new ErrorUC()); On running the above code i learnt that "AdornedElementPlaceholder" can be used only in templates and not in user controls. If i comment the same i am not getting the desired result. Can anyone please help! Thanks in advance! Regards, Samar

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• Jquery and PHP rating function problem

  - by Sergio

  I know that I was already posted similar question but I just can't find the answer and figure it out how to solve this problem. I'm trying to customize Jquery Star Rating plugin (link text) but I do not know what to do to show the message based on response of PHP script. Jquery script successfully send rating data to PHP scripts that query the database and based on that echo message of proper or improper rating. What should I add to an existing JS code so I can get echo from PHP and base on that write a message on some DIV beside rating star? Jquery: $('#gal').rating('gl.php?gal_no=<?=$gal_no;?>&id=<?=$id;?>', {maxvalue:10,increment:.5, curvalue: <?=$cur;?>}); Simplified PHP code: $br=mysql_query("SELECT count(gal) as total FROM ...") if ... { echo '0'; } else echo '1'; } Jquery code successfully transmitted data to PHP script and when the PHP done with checking data echo the result ('1' or '0'). How can I get this PHP result back to Jquery and based on them write a message? Something like: if(data=="1") { $("#error").show("fast").html('not correct').css({'background-color':'#F5F5F5','border-color' : '#F69'}); }else{ $("#error").show("fast").html('correct').css({'background-color' : '#FFF','border-color' : '#3b5998'}); } If someone has an idea...I would appreciate it.

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• is an instance variable in an action of a controller available for all the controllers view?

  - by fenec

  I am just trying to printout the parameters that have been entered into my form. basically i create a new bet then i display the parameters: MIGRATION enter code here class CreateBets < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :bets do |t| t.integer :accepted ,:default = 0 t.integer :user_1_id #proposer t.integer :user_2_id #receiver t.integer :team_1_id #proposer's team t.integer :team_2_id #receiver's team t.integer :game_id t.integer :winner t.integer :amount t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :bets end end CONTROLLER bets_controller.erb enter code here class BetsController < ApplicationController def index redirect_to new_bet_path end def new @b=Bet.new end def create @@points=params[:points] @@winner=params[:winner] end end VIEWS New.erb New Bet <% facebook_form_for Bet.new do |f| %> <%= f.text_field :amount, :label=>"points" %> <%= f.text_field :winner, :label=>"WinningTeam" %> <%= f.buttons "Bet" %> <% end %> create.erb enter code here points:<%= @@points %> <br> winner:<%= @@winner %>

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• How to parse phpDoc style comment block with php?

  - by Reveller

  Please consider the following code with which I'm trying to parse only the first phpDoc style comment (noy using any other libraries) in a file (file contents put in $data variable for testing purposes): $data = " /** * @file A lot of info about this file * Could even continue on the next line * @author [email protected] * @version 2010-05-01 * @todo do stuff... */ /** * Comment bij functie bar() * @param Array met dingen */ function bar($baz) { echo $baz; } "; $data = trim(preg_replace('/\r?\n *\* */', ' ', $data)); preg_match_all('/@([a-z]+)\s+(.*?)\s*(?=$|@[a-z]+\s)/s', $data, $matches); $info = array_combine($matches[1], $matches[2]); print_r($info) This almose works, except for the fact that everything after @todo (including the bar() comment block and code) is considered the value of @todo: Array ( [file] => A lot of info about this file Could even continue on the next line [author] => [email protected] [version] => 2010-05-01 [todo] => do stuff... / /** Comment bij functie bar() [param] => Array met dingen / function bar() { echo ; } ) How does my code need to be altered so that only the first comment block is being parsed (in other words: parsing should stop after the first "*/" encountered?

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• Linux C debugging library to detect memory corruptions

  - by calandoa

  When working sometimes ago on an embedded system with a simple MMU, I used to program dynamically this MMU to detect memory corruptions. For instance, at some moment at runtime, the foo variable was overwritten with some unexpected data (probably by a dangling pointer or whatever). So I added the additional debugging code : at init, the memory used by foo was indicated as a forbidden region to the MMU; each time foo was accessed on purpose, access to the region was allowed just before then forbidden just after; a MMU irq handler was added to dump the master and the address responsible of the violation. This was actually some kind of watchpoint, but directly self-handled by the code itself. Now, I would like to reuse the same trick, but on a x86 platform. The problem is that I am very far from understanding how is working the MMU on this platform, and how it is used by Linux, but I wonder if any library/tool/system call already exist to deal with this problem. Note that I am aware that various tools exist like Valgrind or GDB to manage memory problems, but as far as I know, none of these tools car be dynamically reconfigured by the debugged code. I am mainly interested for user space under Linux, but any info on kernel mode or under Windows is also welcome!

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• How do I rewrite a for loop with a shared dependency using actors

  - by Thomas Rynne

  We have some code which needs to run faster. Its already profiled so we would like to make use of multiple threads. Usually I would setup an in memory queue, and have a number of threads taking jobs of the queue and calculating the results. For the shared data I would use a ConcurrentHashMap or similar. I don't really want to go down that route again. From what I have read using actors will result in cleaner code and if I use akka migrating to more than 1 jvm should be easier. Is that true? However, I don't know how to think in actors so I am not sure where to start. To give a better idea of the problem here is some sample code: case class Trade(price:Double, volume:Int, stock:String) { def value(priceCalculator:PriceCalculator) = (priceCalculator.priceFor(stock)-> price)*volume } class PriceCalculator { def priceFor(stock:String) = { Thread.sleep(20)//a slow operation which can be cached 50.0 } } object ValueTrades { def valueAll(trades:List[Trade], priceCalculator:PriceCalculator):List[(Trade,Double)] = { trades.map { trade => (trade,trade.value(priceCalculator)) } } def main(args:Array[String]) { val trades = List( Trade(30.5, 10, "Foo"), Trade(30.5, 20, "Foo") //usually much longer ) val priceCalculator = new PriceCalculator val values = valueAll(trades, priceCalculator) } } I'd appreciate it if someone with experience using actors could suggest how this would map on to actors.

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• Crash generated during destruction of hash_map

  - by Alien01

  I am using hash_map in application as typedef hash_map<DWORD,CComPtr<IInterfaceXX>> MapDword2Interface; In main application I am using static instance of this map static MapDword2Interface m_mapDword2Interface; I have got one crash dump from one of the client machines which point to the crash in clearing this map I opened that crash dump and here is assembly during debugging > call std::list<std::pair<unsigned long const ,ATL::CComPtr<IInterfaceXX> >,std::allocator<std::pair<unsigned long const ,ATL::CComPtr<IInterfaceXX> > > >::clear > mov eax,dword ptr [CMainApp::m_mapDword2Interface+8 (49XXXXX)] Here is code where crash dump is pointing. Below code is from stl:list file void clear() { // erase all #if _HAS_ITERATOR_DEBUGGING this->_Orphan_ptr(*this, 0); #endif /* _HAS_ITERATOR_DEBUGGING */ _Nodeptr _Pnext; _Nodeptr _Pnode = _Nextnode(_Myhead); _Nextnode(_Myhead) = _Myhead; _Prevnode(_Myhead) = _Myhead; _Mysize = 0; for (; _Pnode != _Myhead; _Pnode = _Pnext) { // delete an element _Pnext = _Nextnode(_Pnode); this->_Alnod.destroy(_Pnode); this->_Alnod.deallocate(_Pnode, 1); } } Crash is pointing to the this->_Alnod.destroy(_Pnode); statement in above code. I am not able to guess it, what could be reason. Any ideas??? How can I make sure, even is there is something wrong with the map , it should not crash?

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• Unable to send '+' through AJAX post?

  - by Harish Kurup

  I am using Ajax POST method to send data, but i am not able to send '+'(operator to the server i.e if i want to send 1+ or 20k+ it will only send 1 or 20k..just wipe out '+') HTML code goes here.. <form method='post' onsubmit='return false;' action='#'> <input type='input' name='salary' id='salary' /> <input type='submit' onclick='submitVal();' /> </form> and javascript code goes here, function submitVal() { var sal=document.getElementById("salary").value; alert(sal); var request=getHttpRequest(); request.open('post','updateSal.php',false); request.setRequestHeader("Content-Type","application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); request.send("sal="+sal); if(request.readyState == 4) { alert("update"); } } function getHttpRequest() { var request=false; if(window.XMLHttpRequest) { request=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else if(window.ActiveXObject) { try { request=new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); } catch(e) { try { request=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } catch(e) { request=false; } } } return request; } in the function submitVal() it first alert's the salary value as it is(if 1+ then alerts 1+), but when it is posted it just post's value without '+' operator which is needed... is it any problem with query string, as the PHP backend code is working fine...

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