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  • C# XML export for Excel table using XmlDocument

    - by Mark
    I am trying to write the following into an XML document: <head> <xml> <x:ExcelWorkbook> <x:ExcelWorksheets> <x:ExcelWorksheet> other code here </x:ExcelWorksheet> </x:ExcelWorksheets> </x:ExcelWorkbook> </xml> </head> However, if I use the following code, it strips out the 'x:'. System.Xml.XmlDocument document = new System.Xml.XmlDocument(); System.Xml.XmlElement htmlNode = document.CreateElement("html"); htmlNode.SetAttribute("xmlns:o", "urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:office"); htmlNode.SetAttribute("xmlns:x", "urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:excel"); htmlNode.SetAttribute("xmlns", "http://www.w3.org/TR/REC-html40"); document.AppendChild(htmlNode); System.Xml.XmlElement headNode = document.CreateElement("head"); htmlNode.AppendChild(headNode); headNode.AppendChild( document.CreateElement("xml")).AppendChild( document.CreateElement("x:ExcelWorkbook"))).AppendChild( document.CreateElement("x:ExcelWorksheets")).AppendChild( document.CreateElement("x:ExcelWorksheet")).InnerText="other code here"; How can I stop this from happening? Thanks!

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  • What caused the rails application crash?

    - by so1o
    I'm sure someone can explain this. we have an application that has been in production for an year. recently we saw an increase in number of support requests for people having difficulty signing into the system. after scratching our head because we couldn't recreate the problem in development, we decided we'll switch on debug logger in production for a month. that was june 5th. application worked fine with the above change and we were waiting. then yesterday we noticed that the log files were getting huge so we made another change in production config.logger = Logger.new("#{RAILS_ROOT}/log/production.log", 50, 1048576) after this change, the application started crashing while processing a particular file. this particular line of code was RAILS_DEFAULT_LOGGER.info "Payment Information Request: ", request.inspect as you can see there was a comma instead of a plus sign. this piece of code was introduced in Mar. the question is this: why did the application fail now? if changing the debug level caused the application to process this line of code it should have started failing on june 5th! why today. please someone help us. Are we missing the obvious here? if you dont have an answer, at least let us know we aren't the only one that are bonkers.

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  • Linq - How to collect Anonymous Type as Result for a Function

    - by GibboK
    I use c# 4 asp.net and EF 4. I'm precompiling a query, the result should be a collection of Anonymous Type. At the moment I use this code. public static readonly Func<CmsConnectionStringEntityDataModel, string, dynamic> queryContentsList = CompiledQuery.Compile<CmsConnectionStringEntityDataModel, string, dynamic> ( (ctx, TypeContent) => ctx.CmsContents.Where(c => c.TypeContent == TypeContent & c.IsPublished == true & c.IsDeleted == false) .Select(cnt => new { cnt.Title, cnt.TitleUrl, cnt.ContentId, cnt.TypeContent, cnt.Summary } ) .OrderByDescending(c => c.ContentId)); I suspect the RETURN for the FUNCTION Dynamic does not work properly and I get this error Sequence contains more than one element enter code here. I suppose I need to return for my function a Collection of Anonymous Types... Do you have any idea how to do it? What I'm doing wrong? Please post a sample of code thanks! Update: public class ConcTypeContents { public string Title { get; set; } public string TitleUrl { get; set; } public int ContentId { get; set; } public string TypeContent { get; set; } public string Summary { get; set; } } public static readonly Func<CmsConnectionStringEntityDataModel, string, ConcTypeContents> queryContentsList = CompiledQuery.Compile<CmsConnectionStringEntityDataModel, string, ConcTypeContents>( (ctx, TypeContent) => ctx.CmsContents.Where(c => c.TypeContent == TypeContent & c.IsPublished == true & c.IsDeleted == false) .Select(cnt => new ConcTypeContents { cnt.Title, cnt.TitleUrl, cnt.ContentId, cnt.TypeContent, cnt.Summary }).OrderByDescending(c => c.ContentId));

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  • Jquery to hightlight elements in a list

    - by John
    Hi I have a ol list: <ol> <li class="group1">item 1</li> <li class="group1">item 2</li> <li class="group2"> item 3</li> <li class="group3">item 4</li> <li class="group1">item 5</li> <li class="group3"> item 6</li> <ol> and a set of checkboxes which correspond to the class names <input type="checkbox" value="group1" />group 1 <input type="checkbox" value="group2" />group 2 <input type="checkbox" value="group3" />group 3 What I want to happen is that when a user clicks on a checkbox to 'tick' it, any li rows which are not checked are fadedOut (change opacity) and then any rows which have the class which matches the value of the checkbox are highlighter (background colour changed to yellow). So for example if group 3 was clicked, item 4 and item 6 would be highlighted. Then if group 2 was clicked item 3 would be highlighted (item 4 and 6 would remain highlighted). If group 2 was un-ticked, item 3 would become faded out although item 4 and 6 would remain highlighted. The code I have at the moment is: $('input').click(function(){ input = $(this); classVal = "." + input.val(); elements = $(classVal ); if (input.is(':checked')) { elements.css("background-color", "#FFFF00"); } else { elements.css("background-color", ""); } }); This handles the highlighting but does not do the fading of the unchecked elements. I know I can change the opacity using css("opacity", 0.33) or fadeTo("slow", 0.33) but not sure how to handle this in the code and where to put it. If any of my other code can be tidied up also please let me know Thanks

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  • ASP Dot Net : How to repeat HTML parts with minor differences on a page?

    - by tinky05
    It's a really simple problem. I've got HTML code like this : <div> <img src="image1.jpg" alt="test1" /> </div> <div> <img src="image2.jpg" alt="test2" /> </div> <div> <img src="image3.jpg" alt="test3" /> </div> etc... The data is comming from a DB (image name, alt text). In JAVA, I would do something like : save the info in array in the back end. For the presentation I would loop through it with JSTL : <c:foeach items="${data}" var="${item}> <div> <img src="${item.image}" alt="${item.alt}" /> </div> </c:foreach> What's the best practice in ASP.net I just don't want to create a string with HTML code in it in the "code behind", it's ugly IMO.

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  • Create new or update existing entity at one go with JPA

    - by Alex R
    A have a JPA entity that has timestamp field and is distinguished by a complex identifier field. What I need is to update timestamp in an entity that has already been stored, otherwise create and store new entity with the current timestamp. As it turns out the task is not as simple as it seems from the first sight. The problem is that in concurrent environment I get nasty "Unique index or primary key violation" exception. Here's my code: // Load existing entity, if any. Entity e = entityManager.find(Entity.class, id); if (e == null) { // Could not find entity with the specified id in the database, so create new one. e = entityManager.merge(new Entity(id)); } // Set current time... e.setTimestamp(new Date()); // ...and finally save entity. entityManager.flush(); Please note that in this example entity identifier is not generated on insert, it is known in advance. When two or more of threads run this block of code in parallel, they may simultaneously get null from entityManager.find(Entity.class, id) method call, so they will attempt to save two or more entities at the same time, with the same identifier resulting in error. I think that there are few solutions to the problem. Sure I could synchronize this code block with a global lock to prevent concurrent access to the database, but would it be the most efficient way? Some databases support very handy MERGE statement that updates existing or creates new row if none exists. But I doubt that OpenJPA (JPA implementation of my choice) supports it. Event if JPA does not support SQL MERGE, I can always fall back to plain old JDBC and do whatever I want with the database. But I don't want to leave comfortable API and mess with hairy JDBC+SQL combination. There is a magic trick to fix it using standard JPA API only, but I don't know it yet. Please help.

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  • Why does the answer print out twice?

    - by rEgonicS
    I made a program that returns the product a*b*c where a,b,c are pythagorean triples and add up to 1000. The program does output the correct answer but does it twice. I was curious as to why this is so.After playing around with it a bit I found out that it prints out when a = 200 b = 375 c = 425. And once again when a = 375 b = 200 c = 425. *How do you put your code into a "code" block? It does it automatically for part of the code but as you can see the top portion and bottom line is left out. bool isPythagTriple(int a, int b, int c); int main() { for(int a = 1; a < 1000; a++) { for(int b = 1; b < 1000; b++) { for(int c = 1; c < 1000; c++) { if( ((a+b+c)==1000) && isPythagTriple(a,b,c) ) { cout << a*b*c << " "; break; } } } } return 0; } bool isPythagTriple(int a, int b, int c) { if( (a*a)+(b*b)-(c*c) == 0 ) return true; else return false; }

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  • How do I correcly handle ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Ambiguous?

    - by RWC
    In my code I try to handle ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Ambiguous. The line unambiguousLocalDateTime = localDateTimeMapping.EarlierMapping; throws an InvalidOperationException with message "EarlierMapping property should not be called on a result of type Ambiguous". I have no clue how I should handle it. Can you give me an example? This is what my code looks like: public Instant getInstant(int year, int month, int day, int hour, int minute) { var localDateTime = new LocalDateTime(year, month, day, hour, minute); //invalidated, might be not existing var timezone = DateTimeZone.ForId(TimeZoneId); //TimeZone is set elsewhere, example "Brazil/East" var localDateTimeMapping = timezone.MapLocalDateTime(localDateTime); ZonedDateTime unambiguousLocalDateTime; switch (localDateTimeMapping.Type) { case ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Unambiguous: unambiguousLocalDateTime = localDateTimeMapping.UnambiguousMapping; break; case ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Ambiguous: unambiguousLocalDateTime = localDateTimeMapping.EarlierMapping; break; case ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Skipped: unambiguousLocalDateTime = new ZonedDateTime(localDateTimeMapping.ZoneIntervalAfterTransition.Start, timezone); break; default: throw new InvalidOperationException(string.Format("Unexpected mapping result type: {0}", localDateTimeMapping.Type)); } return unambiguousLocalDateTime.ToInstant(); } If I look at class ZoneLocalMapping I see the following code: /// <summary> /// In an ambiguous mapping, returns the earlier of the two ZonedDateTimes which map to the original LocalDateTime. /// </summary> /// <exception cref="InvalidOperationException">The mapping isn't ambiguous.</exception> public virtual ZonedDateTime EarlierMapping { get { throw new InvalidOperationException("EarlierMapping property should not be called on a result of type " + type); } } That's why I am receiving the exception, but what should I do to get the EarlierMapping?

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  • Flash compiler error 1061: Call to a possibly undefined method run... but run exists!

    - by Zane Geiger
    So I've been working on making a game in Processing but I think Flash would be a better way to get more people playing it, so I've decided to learn Flash. The problem is that I keep getting really stupid errors on incredibly simple things. For instance, I want to make a 'Block' object to use in a platform game. So I make a new .as file, name it Block.as, and define the Block class within it like so: package { public class Block { public function Block() { // constructor code } public function run() { } } } I don't want to add the code yet, I just want to ensure that this works. So in my main timeline code, I try to create an instance of the Block object and execute its run method: var block1:Block = new Block(); block1.run(); Every time it gives me this inane error: Scene 1, Layer 'Layer 1', Frame 1, Line 2 1061: Call to a possibly undefined method run through a reference with static type Block. What undefined method!? It's defined RIGHT THERE in Block.as. The class file is even in the same folder and everything. I'm getting REALLY annoyed at how poorly Flash handles such a ridiculously simple project. Does anyone know why Flash hates me?

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  • response.redirect to classic asp failing

    - by jeff
    I have the following code pasted below. For some reason, the response.redirect seems to be failing and it is maxing out the cpu on my server and just doesn't do anything. The .net code uploads the file fine, but does not redirect to the asp page to do the processing. I know this is absolute rubbish why would you have .net code redirecting to classic asp, it is a legacy app. I have tried putting false or true etc. at the end of the redirect as I have read other people have had issues with this. Please help as it's driving me insane! It's so strange, it runs locally on my machine but won't run on my server! public void btnUploadTheFile_Click(object Source, EventArgs evArgs) { //need to check that the uploaded file is an xls file. string strFileNameOnServer = "PJI3.txt"; string strBaseLocation = ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["str_file_location"]; if ("" == strFileNameOnServer) { txtOutput.InnerHtml = "Error - a file name must be specified."; return; } if (null != uplTheFile.PostedFile) { try { uplTheFile.PostedFile.SaveAs(strBaseLocation+strFileNameOnServer); txtOutput.InnerHtml = "File <b>" + strBaseLocation+strFileNameOnServer+"</b> uploaded successfully"; Response.Redirect ("/COBRA/pages/sap_import_pji3_prc.asp"); } catch (Exception e) { txtOutput.InnerHtml = "Error saving <b>" + strBaseLocation+strFileNameOnServer+"</b><br>"+ e.ToString(); } } }

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  • Doing without partial commits the "Mercurial way"

    - by David Moles
    Subversion shop considering switching to Mercurial, trying to figure out in advance what all the complaints from developers are going to be. There's one fairly common use case here that I can't see how to handle. I'm working on some largish feature, and I have a significant part of the code -- or possibly several significant parts of the code -- in pieces all over the garage floor, totally unsuitable for checkin, maybe not even compiling. An urgent bugfix request comes in. The fix is nice and local and doesn't touch any of the code I've been working on. I make the fix in my working copy. Now what? I've looked at "Mercurial cherry picking changes for commit" and "best practices in mercurial: branch vs. clone, and partial merges?" and all the suggestions seem to be extensions of varying complexity, from Record and Shelve to Queues. The fact that there apparently isn't any core functionality for this makes me suspect that in some sense this working style is Doing It Wrong. What would a Mercurial-like solution to this use case look like?

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  • Chrome targeted CSS

    - by Chris
    I have some CSS code that hides the cursor on a web page (it is a client facing static screen with no interaction). The code I use to do this is below: *, html { cursor: url('/web/resources/graphics/blank.cur'), pointer; } Blank.cur is a totally blank cursor file. This code works perfectly well in all browsers when I host the web files on my local server but when I upload to a Windows CE webserver (our production unit) the cursor represents itself as a black box. Odd. After some testing it seems that chrome only has a problem with totally blank cursor files when served from WinCE web server, so I created a blank cursor with one pixel as white, specifically for chrome. How do I then target this CSS rule to chrome specifically? i.e. *, html { cursor: url('/web/resources/graphics/blank.cur'), pointer; } <!--[if CHROME]> *, html { cursor: url('/web/resources/graphics/blankChrome.cur'), pointer; } <![endif]-->

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  • Execute javascript in PHP

    - by Andreas Bonini
    I'm generating your typical Web 2.0 HTML page with PHP: it contains a lot of <script> tags and javascript code that will substantially change the DOM after the load event. Is there a way to get the final HTML code directly from PHP, without opening the page with any browser? For example, let's say the HTML for the page is (it's just an example): <html> <head> <script>...the jquery library code...</script> <script>$(document).ready(function() { $("body").append("<p>Hi!</p>");</script> </head> <body> </body> </html> This HTML is saved in the $html PHP variable. Now, I want to pass that variable to some function that will return $result = <html>....<body><p>Hi!</p></body></html>. Is this possible?

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  • How to fix error - "@interface interfaceName : someEnumeration" gives error "cannot find interface '

    - by Paul V
    How can I solve "cannot find interface declaration 'someEnumeration', superclass of 'interfaceName'" error? What steps will reproduce the problem? Compiling Wsdl2ObjC Targeting groupwise.wsdl file Fixing non-valid file names of output csource code like ".h" + ".m" and objects inside source files Moving up one of the @interface BEFORE it was used futher in code! What is the expected output? Something working What do you see instead? 33 errors. "Inherited" from only 3 similar Inheritances of a typedef enum object by a class. All errors are typical: typedef enum types_StatusTrackingOptions { types_StatusTrackingOptions_none = 0, types_StatusTrackingOptions_None, types_StatusTrackingOptions_Delivered, types_StatusTrackingOptions_DeliveredAndOpened, types_StatusTrackingOptions_All, } types_StatusTrackingOptions; types_StatusTrackingOptions types_StatusTrackingOptions_enumFromString(NSString *string); NSString * types_StatusTrackingOptions_stringFromEnum(types_StatusTrackingOptions enumValue); @interface types_StatusTracking : types_StatusTrackingOptions { ... and here I'm having error "cannot find interface declaration for 'types_StatusTrackingOptions', superclass of 'types_StatusTracking'". What version of the product are you using? On what operating system? Wsdl2ObjC - rev 168, OS - Mac OS X 10.6.2, iPhone SDK - 3.2, Simulator - v. 3.1.2 - 3.1.3, wsdl - for GroupWise v.8, NDK released 2008-12-23, wsdl and xsd files are attached. P.S. GroupWise.wsdl + .xsd files could be downloaded from http://code.google.com/p/wsdl2objc/issues/detail?id=99

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  • PHP and MySQL validating problem

    - by IPADvsSLATE
    I'm trying to check if a color is already entered into the database if it is the color should not be entered and stored into the database and the following error code <p>This color has already been entered!</p> should be displayed. But for some reason I cant get this to work, can someone please help me? The color names are entered into $_POST['color'] which is an array entered by the user. Here is the html code that collects the colors. <input type="text" name="color[]" /> <input type="text" name="color[]" /> <input type="text" name="color[]" /> <input type="text" name="color[]" /> <input type="text" name="color[]" /> <input type="text" name="color[]" /> <input type="text" name="color[]" /> <input type="text" name="color[]" /> <input type="text" name="color[]" /> Here is the PHP & MySQL code. for($i=0; $i < count($_POST['color']); $i++) { $color = "'" . $_POST['color'][$i] . "'"; } $mysqli = mysqli_connect("localhost", "root", "", "sitename"); $dbc = mysqli_query($mysqli,"SELECT * FROM colors WHERE color = '$color' AND user = '$user_id' "); if(mysqli_num_rows($dbc) == TRUE) { echo '<p>This color has already been entered!</p>'; } else if(mysqli_num_rows($dbc) == 0) { // enter the color into the database }

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  • c++-to-python swig caused memory leak! Related to Py_BuildValue and SWIG_NewPointerObj

    - by usfree74
    Hey gurus, I have the following Swig code that caused memory leak. PyObject* FindBestMatch(const Bar& fp) { Foo* ptr(new Foo()); float match; // call a function to fill the foo pointer return Py_BuildValue( "(fO)", match, SWIG_NewPointerObj(ptr, SWIGTYPE_p_Foo, 0 /* own */)); } I figured that ptr is not freed properly. So I did the following: PyObject* FindBestMatch(const Bar& fp) { Foo* ptr(new Foo()); float match; // call a function to fill the foo pointer *PyObject *o = SWIG_NewPointerObj(ptr, SWIGTYPE_p_Foo, 1 /* own */);* <------- 1 means pass the ownership to python PyObject *result = Py_BuildValue("(fO)", match, o); Py_XDECREF(o); return result; } But I am not very sure whether this will cause memory corruption. Here, Py_XDECREF(o) will decrease the ref count, which can free memory used by object "o". But o is part of the return value "result". Freeing "o" can cause data corrupt, I guess? I tried my change. It works fine and the caller (python code) does see the expected data. But this could be because nobody else overwrites to that memory area. So what's the right way to deal with memory management of the above code? I search the swig docs, but don't see very concrete description. Please help! Thanks, xin

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  • How to use two parameters pointing to the same structure in one function ?

    - by ZaZu
    Hey guys, I have my code below that consits of a structure, a main, and a function. The function is supposed to display two parameters that have certain values, both of which point to the same structure. The problem I dont know how to add the SECOND parameter onto the following code : #include<stdio.h> #define first 500 #define sec 500 struct trial{ int f; int r; float what[first][sec]; }; int trialtest(trial *test); main(){ trial test; trialtest(&test); } int trialtest(trial *test){ int z,x,i; for(i=0;i<5;i++){ printf("%f,(*test).what[z][x]); } return 0; } I need to add a new parameter test_2 there (IN THE SAME FUNCTION) using this code : for(i=0;i<5;i++){ printf("%f,(*test_2).what[z][x]); How does int trialtest(trial *test) changes ? and how does it change in main ? I know that I should declare test_2 as well, like this : trial test,test_2; But what about passing the address in the function ? I do not need to edit it right ? trialtest(&test); --- This will remain the same ? So please, tell me how would I use test_2 as a parameter pointing to the same structure as test, both in the same function.. Thank you !! Please tell me if you need more clarification

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  • How to increase PermGen memory for eclipselink StaticWeaveAntTask

    - by rayd09
    We are using Eclipselink and need to weave the code in order for lazy fetching to work property. During the weave process I'm getting the following error: weave: BUILD FAILED java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: PermGen space I have the following tasks within my ant build file: <target name="define_weave_task" description="task definition for EclipseLink static weaving"> <taskdef name="eclipse_weave" classname="org.eclipse.persistence.tools.weaving.jpa.StaticWeaveAntTask"/> </target> <target name="weave" depends="compile,define_weave_task" description="weave eclipselink code into compiled classes"> <eclipse_weave source="${path.classes}" target="${path.classes}"> <classpath refid="compile.classpath"/> </eclipse_weave> </target> It has been working great for a long time. Now that the amount of code to be woven has increased I'm getting the PermGen error. I would like to be able to up the amount of perm space. If I was doing a compile I would be able to up the perm space via a compiler argument such as <compilerarg value="-XX:MaxPermSize=256M"/> but this does not appear to be a valid argument for eclipselink weaving. How can I up the perm space for the weave?

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  • Providing custom database functionality to custom asp.net membership provider

    - by IrfanRaza
    Hello friends, I am creating custom membership provider for my asp.net application. I have also created a separate class "DBConnect" that provides database functionality such as Executing SQL statement, Executing SPs, Executing SPs or Query and returning SqlDataReader and so on... I have created instance of DBConnect class within Session_Start of Global.asax and stored to a session. Later using a static class I am providing the database functionality throughout the application using the same single session. In short I am providing a single point for all database operations from any asp.net page. I know that i can write my own code to connect/disconnect database and execute SPs within from the methods i need to override. Please look at the code below - public class SGI_MembershipProvider : MembershipProvider { ...... public override bool ChangePassword(string username, string oldPassword, string newPassword) { if (!ValidateUser(username, oldPassword)) return false; ValidatePasswordEventArgs args = new ValidatePasswordEventArgs(username, newPassword, true); OnValidatingPassword(args); if (args.Cancel) { if (args.FailureInformation != null) { throw args.FailureInformation; } else { throw new Exception("Change password canceled due to new password validation failure."); } } ..... //Database connectivity and code execution to change password. } .... } MY PROBLEM - Now what i need is to execute the database part within all these overriden methods from the same database point as described on the top. That is i have to pass the instance of DBConnect existing in the session to this class, so that i can access the methods. Could anyone provide solution on this. There might be some better techniques i am not aware of that. The approach i am using might be wrong. Your suggessions are always welcome. Thanks for sharing your valuable time.

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  • LINQ thinks I need an extra INNER JOIN, but why?

    - by Saurabh Kumar
    I have a LINQ query, which for some reason is generating an extra/duplicatre INNER JOIN. This is causing the query to not return the expected output. If I manually comment that extra JOIN from the generated SQL, then I get seemingly correct output. Can you detect what I might have done i nthis LINQ to have cuased this extra JOIN? Thanks. Here is my approx LINQ var ids = context.Code.Where(predicate); var rs = from r in ids group r by new { r.phonenumbers.person.PersonID} into g let matchcount=g.Select(p => p.phonenumbers.PhoneNum).Distinct().Count() where matchcount ==2 select new { personid = g.Key }; and here is the generated SQL (the duplicate join is [t7]) Declare @p1 VarChar(10)='Home' Declare @p2 VarChar(10)='111' Declare @p3 VarChar(10)='Office' Declare @p4 VarChar(10)='222' Declare @p5 int=2 SELECT [t9].[PersonID] AS [pid] FROM ( SELECT [t3].[PersonID], ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM ( SELECT DISTINCT [t7].[PhoneValue] FROM [dbo].[Person] AS [t4] INNER JOIN [dbo].[PersonPhoneNumber] AS [t5] ON [t5].[PersonID] = [t4].[PersonID] INNER JOIN [dbo].[CodeMaster] AS [t6] ON [t6].[Code] = [t5].[PhoneType] INNER JOIN [dbo].[PersonPhoneNumber] AS [t7] ON [t7].[PersonID] = [t4].[PersonID] WHERE ([t3].[PersonID] = [t4].[PersonID]) AND ([t6].[Enumeration] = @p0) AND ((([t6].[CodeDescription] = @p1) AND ([t5].[PhoneValue] = @p2)) OR (([t6].[CodeDescription] = @p3) AND ([t5].[PhoneValue] = @p4))) ) AS [t8] ) AS [value] FROM ( SELECT [t0].[PersonID] FROM [dbo].[Person] AS [t0] INNER JOIN [dbo].[PersonPhoneNumber] AS [t1] ON [t1].[PersonID] = [t0].[PersonID] INNER JOIN [dbo].[CodeMaster] AS [t2] ON [t2].[Code] = [t1].[PhoneType] WHERE ([t2].[Enumeration] = @p0) AND ((([t2].[CodeDescription] = @p1) AND ([t1].[PhoneValue] = @p2)) OR (([t2].[CodeDescription] = @p3) AND ([t1].[PhoneValue] = @p4))) GROUP BY [t0].[PersonID] ) AS [t3] ) AS [t9] WHERE [t9].[value] = @p5

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  • InvalidOperationException: The Undo operation encountered a context that is different from what was

    - by McN
    I got the following exception: Exception Type: System.InvalidOperationException Exception Message: The Undo operation encountered a context that is different from what was applied in the corresponding Set operation. The possible cause is that a context was Set on the thread and not reverted(undone). Exception Stack: at System.Threading.SynchronizationContextSwitcher.Undo() at System.Threading.ExecutionContextSwitcher.Undo() at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.runFinallyCode(Object userData, Boolean exceptionThrown) at System.Runtime.CompilerServices.RuntimeHelpers.ExecuteBackoutCodeHelper(Object backoutCode, Object userData, Boolean exceptionThrown) at System.Runtime.CompilerServices.RuntimeHelpers.ExecuteCodeWithGuaranteedCleanup(TryCode code, CleanupCode backoutCode, Object userData) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.RunInternal(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Net.ContextAwareResult.Complete(IntPtr userToken) at System.Net.LazyAsyncResult.ProtectedInvokeCallback(Object result, IntPtr userToken) at System.Net.Sockets.BaseOverlappedAsyncResult.CompletionPortCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* nativeOverlapped) at System.Threading._IOCompletionCallback.PerformIOCompletionCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* pOVERLAP) Exception Source: mscorlib Exception TargetSite.Name: Undo Exception HelpLink: The application is a Visual Studio 2005 (.Net 2.0) console application. It is a server for multiple TCP/IP connections, doing asynchronous socket reads and synchronous socket writes. In searching for an answer I came across this post which talks about a call to Application.Doevents() which I don't use in my code. I also found this post which has a resolution involved with Component which I also don't use in my code. The application does reference a library that I created that contains custom user controls and components, but they are not being used by the application. Question: What caused this to happen and how do I prevent this from happening again? Or a more realistic question: What does this exception actually mean? How is "context" defined in this situation? Anything that can help me understand what is going on would be very much appreciated.

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  • How do I toggle CSS with jQuery?

    - by marcamillion
    I have the following code: $('#bc' + $.trim($this) + ' span.dashed-circle').css({ 'border' : '5px solid #000'}); That is triggered by a click.function(). I would like that to be a toggle - so when I click the element, it changes the border to what I have above...but when it is clicked again it disappears or rather sets the border to ' '. Thoughts? Edit: I should have been explicit...but I don't want to create a CSS class. The reason being is because when I do that, it messes up the formatting of the element being styled. I am sure that it is some small quirk somewhere that would fix it, but I am not interested in wading through the entire code base to fix little positioning issues with a new class. I would much rather just edit the css attribute directly - because it doesn't interfere with the layout. Edit2: Here is the jsfiddle of the code I am trying to edit. If you notice, I have the CSS attributes last. But how do I let that be toggled ? Edit3: If anyone is interested...the UI that this will be used in is for my webapp - http://www.compversions.com

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  • How to check what goes wrong in $view->render with Zend Framework?

    - by koko
    Hi, I'm working on a CMS with Widgets. On my localhost the followong code works perfect, but I have no idea what I'm doing wrong ... The neede files exist, I think and I get no error message. As far as I can see, the error occurs in the one before last line of code and I get no error message. $view = new Zend_View(); $view->setScriptPath(APPLICATION_PATH . '/../public/websites/' . My_Cookie::get('alpha_key') . '/views'); $view->headScript()->appendFile($vervang['conf']['jqueryJS']); $view->headLink()->appendStylesheet($vervang['conf']['jqueryCSS']); $view->class = $pluginExtraFinal; $view->vervang = $vervang['data']; $view->moduleName = $moduleName; $parsed = $view->render($vervang['conf']['viewFile']); $inhoud = str_replace($plugin, $parsed, $inhoud); Is there a way to troubleshoot this code? How can I get an error message? What can be wrong? Any suggestions please?

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  • Why does GetWindowThreadProcessId return 0 when called from a service

    - by Marve
    When using the following class in a console application, and having at least one instance of Notepad running, GetWindowThreadProcessId correctly returns a non-zero thread id. However, if the same code is included in a Windows Service, GetWindowThreadProcessId always returns 0 and no exceptions are thrown. Changing the user the service launches under to be the same as the one running the console application didn't alter the result. What causes GetWindowThreadProcessId to return 0 even if it is provided with a valid hwnd? And why does it function differently in the console application and the service? Note: I am running Windows 7 32-bit and targeting .NET 3.5. public class TestClass { [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern uint GetWindowThreadProcessId(IntPtr hWnd, IntPtr ProcessId); public void AttachToNotepad() { var processesToAttachTo = Process.GetProcessesByName("Notepad") foreach (var process in processesToAttachTo) { var threadID = GetWindowThreadProcessId(process.MainWindowHandle, IntPtr.Zero); .... } } } Console Code: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var testClass = new TestClass(); testClass.AttachToNotepad(); } } Service Code: public class TestService : ServiceBase { private TestClass testClass = new TestClass(); static void Main() { ServiceBase.Run(new TestService()); } protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { testClass.AttachToNotepad(); base.OnStart(args); } protected override void OnStop() { ... } }

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  • How to insert array into mysql using PDO and bindParam?

    - by moomoochoo
    I'm using the following code. The code works, but I want to change it so that it uses bindparam try { $dbh = new PDO("mysql:host=$hostname;dbname=$dbname", $username, $password); $stqid=array(); for ($i=0; $i<$array_count; $i++){ $stqid[$i][0]=$lastInsertValue; $stqid[$i][1]=$qid[$i][0]; $stqid[$i][2]=$qid[$i][1]; } $values = array(); foreach ($stqid as $rowValues) { foreach ($rowValues as $key => $rowValue) { $rowValues[$key] = $rowValues[$key]; } $values[] = "(" . implode(', ', $rowValues) . ")"; } $count = $dbh->exec("INSERT INTO qresults(instance, qid, result) VALUES ".implode (', ', $values)); $dbh = null; } catch(PDOException $e){ echo $e->getMessage(); } I replaced the following $count = $dbh->exec("INSERT INTO qresults(instance, qid, result) VALUES ".implode (', ', $values)); with $sql = "INSERT INTO qresults (instance, qid, result) VALUES (:an_array)"; $stmt = $dbh->prepare($sql); $stmt->bindParam(':an_array', implode(',', $values),PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->execute(); but the insert doesn't work anymore (I didn't get any error messages though). QUESTION: What am I doing wrong? How can I rewrite the code to use bindParam?

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