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  • How to access a named element in a control that inherits from a templated control

    - by Mrt
    Hello this is similar to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2620165/how-to-access-a-named-element-of-a-derived-user-control-in-silverlight with the difference is inheriting from a templated control, not a user control. I have a templated control called MyBaseControl <Style TargetType="Problemo:MyBaseControl"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="Problemo:MyBaseControl"> <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" Background="White"> <Border Name="HeaderControl" Background="Red" /> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> public class MyBaseControl : Control { public UIElement Header { get; set; } public MyBaseControl() { DefaultStyleKey = typeof(MyBaseControl); } public override void OnApplyTemplate() { base.OnApplyTemplate(); var headerControl = GetTemplateChild("HeaderControl") as ContentPresenter; if (headerControl != null) headerControl.Content = Header; } } I have another control called myControl which inherits from MyBaseControl Control <me:MyBaseControl x:Class="Problemo.MyControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" mc:Ignorable="d" xmlns:me="clr-namespace:Problemo" d:DesignHeight="300" d:DesignWidth="400"> <me:MyBaseControl.Header> <TextBlock Name="xxx" /> </me:MyBaseControl.Header> </me:MyBaseControl> public partial class MyControl : MyBaseControl { public string Text { get; set; } public MyControl(string text) { InitializeComponent(); Text = text; Loaded += MyControl_Loaded; } void MyControl_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { base.ApplyTemplate(); xxx.Text = Text; } } The issue is xxx is null. How do I access the xxx control in the code behind ?

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  • Register all GUI components as Observers or pass current object to next object as a constructor argu

    - by Jack
    First, I'd like to say that I think this is a common issue and there may be a simple or common solution that I am unaware of. Many have probably encountered a similar problem. Thanks for reading. I am creating a GUI where each component needs to communicate (or at least be updated) by multiple other components. Currently, I'm using a Singleton class to accomplish this goal. Each GUI component gets the instance of the singleton and registers itself. When updates need to be made, the singleton can call public methods in the registered class. I think this is similar to an Observer pattern, but the singleton has more control. Currently, the program is set up something like this: class c1 { CommClass cc; c1() { cc = CommClass.getCommClass(); cc.registerC1( this ); C2 c2 = new c2(); } } class c2 { CommClass cc; c2() { cc = CommClass.getCommClass(); cc.registerC2( this ); C3 c3 = new c3(); } } class c3 { CommClass cc; c3() { cc = CommClass.getCommClass(); cc.registerC3( this ); C4 c4 = new c4(); } } etc. Unfortunately, the singleton class keeps growing larger as more communication is required between the components. I was wondering if it's a good idea to instead of using this singleton, pass the higher order GUI components as arguments in the constructors of each GUI component: class c1 { c1() { C2 c2 = new c2( this ); } } class c2 { C1 c1; c2( C1 c1 ) { this.c1 = c1 C3 c3 = new c3( c1, this ); } } class c3 { C1 c1; C2 c2; c3( C1 c1, C2 c2 ) { this.c1 = c1; this.c2 = c2; C4 c4 = new c4( c1, c2, this ); } } etc. The second version relies less on the CommClass, but it's still very messy as the private member variables increase in number and the constructors grow in length. Each class contains GUI components that need to communicate through CommClass, but I can't think of a good way to do it. If this seems strange or horribly inefficient, please describe some method of communication between classes that will continue to work as the project grows. Also, if this doesn't make any sense to anyone, I'll try to give actual code snippets in the future and think of a better way to ask the question. Thanks.

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  • NSDocument Subclass not closed by NSWindowController?

    - by Nathan Douglas
    Okay, I'm fairly new to Cocoa and Objective-C, and to OOP in general. As background, I'm working on an extensible editor that stores the user's documents in a package. This of course required some "fun" to get around some issues with NSFileWrapper (i.e. a somewhat sneaky writing and loading process to avoid making NSFileWrappers for every single document within the bundle). The solution I arrived at was to essentially treat my NSDocument subclass as just a shell -- use it to make the folder for the bundle, and then pass off writing the actual content of the document to other methods. Unfortunately, at some point I seem to have completely screwed the pooch. I don't know how this happened, but closing the document window no longer releases the document. The document object doesn't seem to receive a "close" message -- or any related messages -- even though the window closes successfully. The end result is that if I start my app, create a new document, save it, then close it, and try to reopen it, the document window never appears. With some creative subclassing and NSLogging, I managed to figure out that the document object was still in memory, and still attached to the NSDocumentController instance, and so trying to open the document never got past the NSDocumentController's "hmm, currently have that one open" check. I did have an NSWindowController and NSDocumentController instance, but I've purged them from my project completely. I've overridden nearly every method for NSDocument trying to find out where the issue is. So far as I know, my Interface Builder bindings are all correct -- "Close" in the main menu is attached to "performClose:" of the First Responder, etc, and I've tried with fresh unsullied MainMenu and Document xibs as well. I thought that it might be something strange with my bundle writing code, so I basically deleted it all and started from scratch, but that didn't seem to work. I took out my init method overrides, and that didn't help either. I don't have the source of any simple document apps here, so I didn't try the next logical step (to substitute known-working code for mine in the readfromurl and writetourl methods). I've had this problem for about sixteen hours of uninterrupted troubleshooting now, and needless to say, I'm at the end of my rope. If I can't figure it out, I guess I'm going to try the project from scratch with a lot more code and intensity based around the bundle-document mess. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Whats happening to my HTML?

    - by user156814
    I am making changes to my website, and I just noticed that things look different. In IE, the content doesnt center, theres a margin on my content, and the font looks bigger in chrome.. I ran it through Yahoo's HTML validator and the error I get is line 1 - Error: character "" not allowed in prolog. I believe that there may be some sort of whitespace being sent before the DOC TYPE, but I cant seem to fix it. The HTML looks fine in my text editor (Notepad++) so I dont know what the problem is. Im using a strict DOC Type. Everything was fine before I made any changes, but I cant pinpoint what caused the change. If it helps, I'm using a Framework (Kohana). My initial thought was that something was being sent to the browser by an echo or something, but I couldnt find any echo statements. I dont know what could be causing this... If you want to see any code or HTML just ask. Thanks. Heres the HTML (only head and doctype) via the page source in Google Chrome There seems to be some foreign characters in the source that I've never seen before, yet dont show up anywhere else (yahoo, or otherwise) <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <title>Recent Debates - Clashing Thoughts</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <meta http-equiv="Content-Language" content="en-us" /> <meta name="description" content="Clashing Thoughts is a great place to argue! Search topics you feel passionate about, pick where you stand on the issue and get your point across. The votes are tallied up for every debate so you can even see which side is most popular." /> <meta name="keywords" content="debates, arguments, topics, popular topics, popular debates, surveys, choices" /> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="http://localhost/css/master.css" media="screen" /> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="http://localhost/css/clashingthoughts.css" media="screen" /> <link rel="icon" type="image/x-icon" href="http://localhost/images/favicon.ico" /> <link rel="shortcut icon" type="image/x-icon" href="http://localhost/images/favicon.ico" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> </head>

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  • WPF / Silverlight Binding when setting DataTemplate programically

    - by Daniel
    I have my little designer tool (my program). On the left side I have TreeView and on the right site I have Accordion. When I select a node I want to dynamically build Accordion Items based on Properties from DataContext of selected node. Selecting nodes works fine, and when I use this sample code for testing it works also. XAML code: <layoutToolkit:Accordion x:Name="accPanel" SelectionMode="ZeroOrMore" SelectionSequence="Simultaneous"> <layoutToolkit:AccordionItem Header="Controller Info"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" DataContext="{Binding}"> <TextBlock Text="Content:" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}" /> </StackPanel> </layoutToolkit:AccordionItem> </layoutToolkit:Accordion> C# code: private void treeSceneNode_SelectedItemChanged(object sender, RoutedPropertyChangedEventArgs<object> e) { if (e.NewValue != e.OldValue) { if (e.NewValue is SceneNode) { accPanel.DataContext = e.NewValue; //e.NewValue is a class that contains Name property } } } But the problem occurs when I'm trying to achive this using DateTemplate and dynamically build AccordingItem, the Binding is not working: <layoutToolkit:Accordion x:Name="accPanel" SelectionMode="ZeroOrMore" SelectionSequence="Simultaneous" /> and DataTemplate in my ResourceDictionary <DataTemplate x:Key="dtSceneNodeContent"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" DataContext="{Binding}"> <TextBlock Text="Content:" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> and C# code: private void treeSceneNode_SelectedItemChanged(object sender, RoutedPropertyChangedEventArgs<object> e) { if (e.NewValue != e.OldValue) { ResourceDictionary rd = new ResourceDictionary(); rd.Source = new Uri("/SilverGL.GUI;component/SilverGLDesignerResourceDictionary.xaml", UriKind.RelativeOrAbsolute); if (e.NewValue is SceneNode) { accPanel.DataContext = e.NewValue; AccordionItem accController = new AccordionItem(); accController.Header = "Controller Info"; accController.ContentTemplate = rd["dtSceneNodeContent"] as DataTemplate; accPanel.Items.Add(accController); } else { // Other type of node } } } I really need help with this issue. Thanks for any support.

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  • Evaluation of CTEs in SQL Server 2005

    - by Jammer
    I have a question about how MS SQL evaluates functions inside CTEs. A couple of searches didn't turn up any results related to this issue, but I apologize if this is common knowledge and I'm just behind the curve. It wouldn't be the first time :-) This query is a simplified (and obviously less dynamic) version of what I'm actually doing, but it does exhibit the problem I'm experiencing. It looks like this: CREATE TABLE #EmployeePool(EmployeeID int, EmployeeRank int); INSERT INTO #EmployeePool(EmployeeID, EmployeeRank) SELECT 42, 1 UNION ALL SELECT 43, 2; DECLARE @NumEmployees int; SELECT @NumEmployees = COUNT(*) FROM #EmployeePool; WITH RandomizedCustomers AS ( SELECT CAST(c.Criteria AS int) AS CustomerID, dbo.fnUtil_Random(@NumEmployees) AS RandomRank FROM dbo.fnUtil_ParseCriteria(@CustomerIDs, 'int') c) SELECT rc.CustomerID, ep.EmployeeID FROM RandomizedCustomers rc JOIN #EmployeePool ep ON ep.EmployeeRank = rc.RandomRank; DROP TABLE #EmployeePool; The following can be assumed about all executions of the above: The result of dbo.fnUtil_Random() is always an int value greater than zero and less than or equal to the argument passed in. Since it's being called above with @NumEmployees which has the value 2, this function always evaluates to 1 or 2. The result of dbo.fnUtil_ParseCriteria(@CustomerIDs, 'int') produces a one-column, one-row table that contains a sql_variant with a base type of 'int' that has the value 219935. Given the above assumptions, it makes sense (to me, anyway) that the result of the expression above should always produce a two-column table containing one record - CustomerID and an EmployeeID. The CustomerID should always be the int value 219935, and the EmployeeID should be either 42 or 43. However, this is not always the case. Sometimes I get the expected single record. Other times I get two records (one for each EmployeeID), and still others I get no records. However, if I replace the RandomizedCustomers CTE with a true temp table, the problem vanishes completely. Every time I think I have an explanation for this behavior, it turns out to not make sense or be impossible, so I literally cannot explain why this would happen. Since the problem does not happen when I replace the CTE with a temp table, I can only assume it has something to do with the functions inside CTEs are evaluated during joins to that CTE. Do any of you have any theories?

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  • how to save xml files using Javascript?

    - by user311884
    Dear friends, I tried to 1) load an xml file using javascript as an object, say "note.xml" 2) then save the object to a new xml file, say "note_new.xml" I did 1) but failed 2) I tried to use method save() to do 2). After my failure, I checked ms site and they said save() is not supported.... could some one enlighten me how to do the save? thank you! here is the code: <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"/> </head> <body> <h1>W3Schools Internal Note</h1> <p><b>To:</b> <span id="to"></span><br /> <b>From:</b> <span id="from"></span><br /> <b>Message:</b> <span id="message"></span> <script type="text/javascript"> if (window.ActiveXObject){ alert("there is ActiveXObject"); var xmlDoc = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLDOM"); xmlDoc.async=false; xmlDoc.load("note.xml"); }else{ alert("i am not withActiveXObject!"); xhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); xhttp.open("GET","note.xml",false); xhttp.send(""); xmlDoc=xhttp.responseXML; } xmlDoc.save("note_new.xml"); </script> </body> </html> update: seems this is related to security issue. I appologize to those experienced programmers for my putting this question in a rush because it seems a newbie question.

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  • iPhone scrollView won't scroll after keyboard is closed

    - by Rob
    I was trying to implement a way to have the UITextField move up when the keyboard opened so that the user could see what they were typing but after implementing the code - it locks my scroll. The view will scroll when the user first gets to that view but after inputting text and closing the keyboard it locks the view. I suspect that it is a problem somewhere in this code: - (void) viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewWillAppear:animated]; NSLog(@"Registering for keyboard events"); // Register for the events [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector (keyboardDidShow:) name: UIKeyboardDidShowNotification object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector (keyboardDidHide:) name: UIKeyboardDidHideNotification object:nil]; // Setup content size scrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(SCROLLVIEW_CONTENT_WIDTH, SCROLLVIEW_CONTENT_HEIGHT); //Initially the keyboard is hidden keyboardVisible = NO; } -(void) viewWillDisappear:(BOOL)animated { NSLog (@"Unregister for keyboard events"); [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] removeObserver:self]; } //**-------------------------------** - (void) keyboardDidShow: (NSNotification *)notif { NSLog(@"Keyboard is visible"); // If keyboard is visible, return if (keyboardVisible) { NSLog(@"Keyboard is already visible. Ignore notification."); return; } // Get the size of the keyboard. NSDictionary* info = [notif userInfo]; NSValue* aValue = [info objectForKey:UIKeyboardBoundsUserInfoKey]; CGSize keyboardSize = [aValue CGRectValue].size; // Save the current location so we can restore // when keyboard is dismissed offset = scrollView.contentOffset; // Resize the scroll view to make room for the keyboard CGRect viewFrame = scrollView.frame; viewFrame.size.height -= keyboardSize.height; scrollView.frame = viewFrame; CGRect textFieldRect = [activeField frame]; textFieldRect.origin.y += 10; [scrollView scrollRectToVisible:textFieldRect animated:YES]; NSLog(@"ao fim"); // Keyboard is now visible keyboardVisible = YES; } -(void) keyboardDidHide: (NSNotification *)notif { // Is the keyboard already shown if (!keyboardVisible) { NSLog(@"Keyboard is already hidden. Ignore notification."); return; } // Reset the frame scroll view to its original value scrollView.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, SCROLLVIEW_CONTENT_WIDTH, SCROLLVIEW_CONTENT_HEIGHT); // Reset the scrollview to previous location scrollView.contentOffset = offset; // Keyboard is no longer visible keyboardVisible = NO; } -(BOOL) textFieldShouldBeginEditing:(UITextField*)textField { activeField = textField; return YES; } I defined the size above the #imports as: #define SCROLLVIEW_CONTENT_HEIGHT 1000 #define SCROLLVIEW_CONTENT_WIDTH 320 Really not sure what the issue is.

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  • Speed Problem with Wireless Connectivity on Cisco 877w

    - by Carl Crawley
    Having a bit of a weird one with my local LAN setup. I recently installed a Cisco 877W router on my DSL2+ connection and all is working really well.. Upgraded the IOS to 12.4 and my wired clients are streaming connectivity superfast at 1.3mb/s. However, there seems to be an issue with my wireless clients - I can't seem to stream any data across the local wireless connection (LAN) and using the Internet, whilst responsive enough isn't really comparable with the wired connection speed. For example, all devices are connected to an 8 Port Gb switch on FE0 from the Router with a NAS disk and on my wired clients, I can transfer/stream etc absolutely fine - however, transferring a local 700Mb file on my local LAN estimates 7-8 hours to transfer :( The Wireless config is as follows : interface Dot11Radio0 description WIRELESS INTERFACE no ip address ! encryption mode ciphers tkip ! ssid [MySSID] ! speed basic-1.0 basic-2.0 basic-5.5 6.0 9.0 basic-11.0 channel 2462 station-role root rts threshold 2312 world-mode dot11d country GB indoor bridge-group 1 bridge-group 1 subscriber-loop-control bridge-group 1 spanning-disabled bridge-group 1 block-unknown-source no bridge-group 1 source-learning no bridge-group 1 unicast-flooding All devices are connected to the Gb Switch which is connected to FE0 with the following: Hardware is Fast Ethernet, address is 0021.a03e.6519 (bia 0021.a03e.6519) Description: Uplink to Switch MTU 1500 bytes, BW 100000 Kbit/sec, DLY 100 usec, reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Encapsulation ARPA, loopback not set Keepalive set (10 sec) Full-duplex, 100Mb/s ARP type: ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00:00 Last input never, output never, output hang never Last clearing of "show interface" counters never Input queue: 0/75/0/0 (size/max/drops/flushes); Total output drops: 0 Queueing strategy: fifo Output queue: 0/40 (size/max) 5 minute input rate 14000 bits/sec, 19 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 167000 bits/sec, 23 packets/sec 177365 packets input, 52089562 bytes, 0 no buffer Received 919 broadcasts, 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles 260 input errors, 260 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored 0 input packets with dribble condition detected 156673 packets output, 106218222 bytes, 0 underruns 0 output errors, 0 collisions, 2 interface resets 0 babbles, 0 late collision, 0 deferred 0 lost carrier, 0 no carrier 0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out Not sure why I'm having problems on the wireless and I've reached the end of my Cisco knowledge... Thanks for any pointers! Carl

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  • Is it normal for a programmer with 2 years experience to take a long time to code simple programs?

    - by ajax81
    Hi all, I'm a relatively new programmer (18 months on the scene), and I'm finally getting to the point where I'm comfortable accepting projects and developing solutions under minimal supervision. Unfortunately, this also means that I've become acutely aware of my performance shortfalls, the most prevalent of which is the amount of time it takes me to develop, test, and submit algorithms for review. A great example of what I'm talking about occurred this week when I was tasked with developing a simple XML web service (asp.net 3.5) callable via client-side JavaScript, that accepts a single parameter and returns a dataset output to a modal window (please note this is the first time I've had to develop a web service and have had ZERO experience creating/consuming them...let alone calling them from JS client side). Keeping a long story short -- I worked on it for 4 days straight, all day each day, for a grand total of 36 hours, not including the time I spent dwelling on the problem in the shower, the morning commute, and laying awake in bed at night. I learned a great deal about web services and xml/json/javascript...but was called in for a management review to discuss the length of time it took me to develop the solution. In the meeting, I was praised for the quality of my work and was in fact told that my effort was commendable. However, they (senior leads and pm's) weren't impressed with the amount of time it took me to develop the solution and expressed that they would have liked to see the solution in roughly 1/3 of the time it took me. I guess what concerns me the most is that I've identified this pattern as common for myself. Between online videos, book research, and trial/error coding...if its something I haven't seen before, I can spend up to two weeks on a problem that seems to only take the pros in the videos moments to code up. And of course, knowing that management isn't happy with this pattern has shaken me up a bit. To sum up, I have some very specific questions I'd like to ask, and would greatly appreciate your objective professional feedback. Is my experience as a junior programmer common among new developers? Or is it possible that I'm just not cut out for the work? If you suspect that my experience is not common and that there may be an aptitude issue, do you have any suggestions/solutions that I could propose to management to help bring me up to speed? Do seasoned, professional programmers ever encounter knowledge barriers that considerably delay deliverables? When you started out in the industry, did you know how to "do it all"? If not, how long did it take you to be perceived as "proficient"? Was it a natural progression of trial and error, or was there a particular zen moment when you knew you had achieved super saiyen power level? Anyways, thanks for taking the time to read my question(s). I don't know if this is the right place to ask for professional career guidance, but I greatly appreciate your willingness to help me out. Cheers, Daniel

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  • How is IObservable<double>.Average supposed to work?

    - by Dan Tao
    Update Looks like Jon Skeet was right (big surprise!) and the issue was with my assumption about the Average extension providing a continuous average (it doesn't). For the behavior I'm after, I wrote a simple ContinuousAverage extension method, the implementation of which I am including here for the benefit of others who may want something similar: public static class ObservableExtensions { private class ContinuousAverager { private double _mean; private long _count; public ContinuousAverager() { _mean = 0.0; _count = 0L; } // undecided whether this method needs to be made thread-safe or not // seems that ought to be the responsibility of the IObservable (?) public double Add(double value) { double delta = value - _mean; _mean += (delta / (double)(++_count)); return _mean; } } public static IObservable<double> ContinousAverage(this IObservable<double> source) { var averager = new ContinuousAverager(); return source.Select(x => averager.Add(x)); } } I'm thinking of going ahead and doing something like the above for the other obvious candidates as well -- so, ContinuousCount, ContinuousSum, ContinuousMin, ContinuousMax ... perhaps ContinuousVariance and ContinuousStandardDeviation as well? Any thoughts on that? Original Question I use Rx Extensions a little bit here and there, and feel I've got the basic ideas down. Now here's something odd: I was under the impression that if I wrote this: var ticks = Observable.FromEvent<QuoteEventArgs>(MarketDataProvider, "MarketTick"); var bids = ticks .Where(e => e.EventArgs.Quote.HasBid) .Select(e => e.EventArgs.Quote.Bid); var bidsSubscription = bids.Subscribe( b => Console.WriteLine("Bid: {0}", b) ); var avgOfBids = bids.Average(); var avgOfBidsSubscription = avgOfBids.Subscribe( b => Console.WriteLine("Avg Bid: {0}", b) ); I would get two IObservable<double> objects (bids and avgOfBids); one would basically be a stream of all the market bids from my MarketDataProvider, the other would be a stream of the average of these bids. So something like this: Bid Avg Bid 1 1 2 1.5 1 1.33 2 1.5 It seems that my avgOfBids object isn't doing anything. What am I missing? I think I've probably misunderstood what Average is actually supposed to do. (This also seems to be the case for all of the aggregate-like extension methods on IObservable<T> -- e.g., Max, Count, etc.)

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  • Jquery Dialog - div disappears after initialization

    - by Zuber
    JQuery Dialog is giving me lots of pain lately. I have the following div which I want to be popped up. (Ignore that the classes do not show the double quotes in the syntax) TABLE class=widget-title-table border=0 cellSpacing=0 cellPadding=0> <TBODY> <TR> <TD class=widget-title><SPAN class=widget-title>Basic Info</SPAN></TD> <TD class=widget-action> <DIV id=edit-actions jQuery1266325647362="3"> <UL class="linkbutton-menu read-mode"> <LI class="control-actions"> <A id="action-button" class="mouse-over-pointer linkbutton">Delete this stakeholder</A> <DIV id="confirmation" class="confirmation-dialog title=Confirmation"> Are you sure you want to delete this stakeholder? </DIV> </LI></UL></DIV></TD></TR></TBODY></TABLE> The JQuery for this is ... $(document).ready(function() { $('#confirmation').dialog({ bgiframe: true, modal: true, autoOpen: false, closeOnEscape: false, draggable: true, position: 'center', resizable: false, width: 400, height: 150 }); }); And the dialog is 'open'ed by var confirmationBox = $('#confirmation',actionContent); if (confirmationBox.length > 0) { //Confirmation Needed $(confirmationBox).dialog('option', 'buttons', { 'No': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); }, 'Yes': function() { $('ul.read-mode').hide(); $.post(requestUrl, {}, ActionCallback(context[0], renderFormUrl), 'json'); $(this).dialog('close'); } }); $(confirmationBox).dialog('open'); } The problem starts in the initialization itself. When the document loads, the <div #confirmation> is deleted from the markup! I had a similar issue earlier, but I cannot use that solution here. On this page I can have multiple PopUp divs. When I added the initialization in just before opening it; the form popped up. But after I close it, the div is removed; so I am not able to see the popup again.

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  • compiling opencv 2.4 on a 64 bit mac in Xcode

    - by Walt
    I have an opencv project that I've been developing under ubuntu 12.04, on a parellels VM on a mac which has an x86_64 architecture. There have been many screen switching performance issues that I believe are due to the VM, where linux video modes flip around for a couple seconds while camera access is made by the opencv application. I decided to moved the project into Xcode on the mac side of the computer to continue the opencv development. However, I'm not that familiar with xcode and am having trouble getting the project to build correctly there. I have xcode installed. I downloaded and decompressed the latest version of opencv on the mac, and ran: ~/src/opencv/build/cmake-gui -G Xcode .. per the instructions from willowgarage and various other locations. This appeared to work fine (however I'm wondering now if I'm missing an architecture setting in here, although it is 64-bit intel in Xcode). I then setup an xcode project with the source files from the linux project and changed the include directories to use /opt/local/include/... rather than the /usr/local/include/... I switched xcode to use the LLVM GCC compiler in the build settings for the project then set the Apple LLVM Dialog for C++ to Language Dialect to GNU++11 (which seems possibly inconsistant with the line above) I'm not using a makefile in xcode, (that I'm aware of - it has its own project file...) I was also running into a linker issue that looked like they may be resolved with the addition of this linker flag: -lopencv_video based on a similar posting here: other thread however in that case the person was using a Makefile in their project. I've tried adding this linker flag under "Other Linker Flags" in xcode build settings but still get build errors. I think I may have two issues here, one with the architecture settings when building the opencv libraries with Cmake, and one with the linker flag settings in my project. Currently the build error list looks like this: Undefined symbols for architecture x86_64: "cv::_InputArray::_InputArray(cv::Mat const&)", referenced from: _main in main.o "cv::_OutputArray::_OutputArray(cv::Mat&)", referenced from: _main in main.o "cv::Mat::deallocate()", referenced from: cv::Mat::release() in main.o "cv::Mat::copySize(cv::Mat const&)", referenced from: cv::Mat::Mat(cv::Mat const&)in main.o cv::Mat::operator=(cv::Mat const&)in main.o "cv::Mat::Mat(_IplImage const*, bool)", referenced from: _main in main.o "cv::imread(std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> > const&, int)", referenced from: _main in main.o ---SNIP--- ld: symbol(s) not found for architecture x86_64 collect2: ld returned 1 exit status Can anyone provide some guidance on what to try next? Thanks, Walt

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  • Brainstorming: Weird JPA problem, possibly classpath or jar versioning problem???

    - by Vinnie
    I'm seeing a weird error message and am looking for some ideas as to what the problem could be. I'm sort of new to using the JPA. I have an application where I'm using Spring's Entity Manager Factory (LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean), EclipseLink as my ORM provider, connected to a MySQL DB and built with Maven. I'm not sure if any of this matters..... When I deploy this application to Glassfish, the application works as expected. The problem is, I've created a set of stand alone unit tests to run outside of Glassfish that aren't working correctly. I get the following error (I've edited the class names a little) com.xyz.abc.services.persistence.entity.MyEntity cannot be cast to com.xyz.abc.services.persistence.entity.MyEntity The object cannot be cast to a class of the same type? How can that be? Here's a snippet of the code that is in error Query q = entityManager.createNamedQuery("MyEntity.findAll"); List entityObjects = q.getResultList(); for (Object entityObject: entityObjects) { com.xyz.abc.services.persistence.entity.MyEntity entity = (com.xyz.abc.services.persistence.entity.MyEntity) entityObject; Previously, I had this code that produced the same error: CriteriaQuery cq = entityManager.getCriteriaBuilder().createQuery(); cq.select(cq.from(com.xyz.abc.services.persistence.entity.MyEntity.class)); List entityObjects = entityManager.createQuery(cq).getResultList(); for (Object entityObject: entityObjects) { com.xyz.abc.services.persistence.entity.MyEntity entity = (com.xyz.abc.services.persistence.entity.MyEntity) entityObject; This code is question is the same that I have deployed to the server. Here's the innermost exception if it helps Caused by: java.lang.ClassCastException: com.xyz.abc.services.persistence.entity.MyEntity cannot be cast to com.xyz.abc.services.persistence.entity.MyEntity at com.xyz.abc.services.persistence.entity.factory.MyEntityFactory.createBeans(MyEntityFactory.java:47) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.SimpleInstantiationStrategy.instantiate(SimpleInstantiationStrategy.java:115) ... 37 more I'm guessing that there's some jar I'm using in Glassfish that is different than the ones I'm using in test. I've looked at all the jars I have listed as "provided" and am pretty sure they are all the same ones from Glassfish. Let me know if you've seen this weird issue before, or any ideas for correcting it.

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  • Is this a situation where Qt Model/View architecture is not useful?

    - by csmithmaui
    Hi, I am writing a GUI based application where I read a string of values from serial port every few seconds and I need to display most of the values in some type graphical indicator(I was thinking of QprogressBar maybe) that displays the range and the value. Some of the other data that I am parsing from the string are the date and fault codes. Also, the data is hierarchical. I wanted to use the model/view architecture of Qt because I have been interested in MVC stuff for a while but have never quite wrapped my brain around how to implement it very well. As of now, I have subclassed QAbstractItemModel and in the model I read the serial port and wrap the items parsed from the string in a Tree data structure. I can view all of the data in a QtreeView with no issues. I have also began to subclass QAbstractItemView to build my custom view with all of the Graphical Indicators and such. This is where I am getting stuck. It seems to me that in order for me to design a view that knows how to display my custom model the view needs to know exactly how all of the data in the model is organized. Doesn't that defeat the purpose of Model/View? The QTreeView I tested the model with is basically just displaying the model as it is setup in the Tree structure but I don't want to do that because the data is not all of the same type. Is the type of data or the way you would like to present it to the user a determining factor in whether or not you should use this architecture? I always assumed it was just always better to design in an MVC style. It seems to me like it might have been better to just subclass QWidget and then read in from the serial port and update all of subwidgets(graphical indicators, labels, etc...) from the subclass. Essentially, do everything in one class. Does anybody understand this issue that can explain to me either what I am missing or why I shouldn't be doing it this way. As of now I am a little confused. Thanks so much for any help!

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  • WCF. Https on basicHttpBinding

    - by Andrew Kalashnikov
    Hello, colleagues. I've written wcf service. Unfortunality I have to use basicHttpBinding for php callers. But I need securtiy. So I've decided use transport security with https. I host it at my IIS 6.0. I enable ssl at IIS and assign Certificate. But when I try open it through browser i get standard error. What's wrong. Please help. I can't issue that for several hours. <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="BindingConfiguration1" maxBufferPoolSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="2147483647" maxStringContentLength="2147483647" maxArrayLength="2147483647" maxBytesPerRead="2147483647" maxNameTableCharCount="2147483647"/> <security mode="Transport"> <transport clientCredentialType="None" /> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <services> <service name="RegistratorService.Registrator" behaviorConfiguration="RegistratorService.Service1Behavior"> <endpoint address="https://192.168.0.8/MyService.svc" binding="basicHttpBinding" contract="RegistratorService.IRegistrator" bindingConfiguration="BindingConfiguration1"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange"/> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="RegistratorService.Service1Behavior"> <serviceMetadata httpsGetEnabled="true" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors>

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  • CDI SessionScoped Bean instance remains unchanged when login with different user

    - by Jason Yang
    I've been looking for the workaround of this problem for rather plenty of time and no result, so I ask question here. Simply speaking, I'm using a CDI SessionScoped Bean User in my project to manage user information and display them on jsf pages. Also container-managed j_security_check is used to resolve authentication issue. Everything is fine if first logout with session.invalidate() and then login in the same browser tab with a different user. But when I tried to directly login (through login.jsf) with a new user without logout beforehand, I found the user information remaining unchanged. I debugged and found the User bean, as well as the HttpSession instance, always remaining the same if login with different users in the same browser, as long as session.invalidate() not invoked. But oddly, the session id did modified, and I've both checked in Java code and Firebug. org.apache.catalina.session.StandardSessionFacade@5d7b4092 StandardSession[c69a71d19f369d08b5dddbea2ef0] attrName = org.jboss.weld.context.conversation.ConversationIdGenerator : attrValue=org.jboss.weld.context.conversation.ConversationIdGenerator@583c9dd8 attrName = org.jboss.weld.context.ConversationContext.conversations : attrValue = {} attrName = org.jboss.weld.context.http.HttpSessionContext#org.jboss.weld.bean-Discipline-ManagedBean-class com.netease.qa.discipline.profile.User : attrValue = Bean: Managed Bean [class com.netease.qa.discipline.profile.User] with qualifiers [@Any @Default @Named]; Instance: com.netease.qa.discipline.profile.User@c497c7c; CreationalContext: org.jboss.weld.context.CreationalContextImpl@739efd29 attrName = javax.faces.request.charset : attrValue = UTF-8 org.apache.catalina.session.StandardSessionFacade@5d7b4092 StandardSession[c6ab4b0c51ee0a649ef696faef75] attrName = org.jboss.weld.context.conversation.ConversationIdGenerator : attrValue = org.jboss.weld.context.conversation.ConversationIdGenerator@583c9dd8 attrName = com.sun.faces.renderkit.ServerSideStateHelper.LogicalViewMap : attrValue = {-4968076393130137442={-7694826198761889564=[Ljava.lang.Object;@43ff5d6c}} attrName = org.jboss.weld.context.ConversationContext.conversations : attrValue = {} attrName = org.jboss.weld.context.http.HttpSessionContext#org.jboss.weld.bean-Discipline-ManagedBean-class com.netease.qa.discipline.profile.User : attrValue = Bean: Managed Bean [class com.netease.qa.discipline.profile.User] with qualifiers [@Any @Default @Named]; Instance: com.netease.qa.discipline.profile.User@c497c7c; CreationalContext: org.jboss.weld.context.CreationalContextImpl@739efd29 attrName = javax.faces.request.charset : attrValue = UTF-8 Above block contains two successive logins and their Session info. We can see that the instance(1st row) the same while session id(2nd row) different. Seems that session object is reused to contain different session id and CDI framework manages session bean life cycle in accordance with the session object only(?). I'm wondering whether there could be only one server-side session object within the same browser unless invalidated? Since I'm adopting j_security_check I fancy intercepting it and invalidating old session is not so easy. So is it possible to accomplish the goal without altering the CDI+JSF+j_security_check design that one can relogin with different account in the same or different tab within the same browser? Really look forward for your response. More info: Glassfish v3.1 is my appserver.

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  • Consuming SharePoint Web Services fails when behind Proxy server

    - by Jan Petersen
    Hi All, I've seen a number of post about consuming Web Services from behind a proxy server, but none that seams to address this problem. I'm building a desktop application, using Java, JAX-WS in NetBeans. I have a working prototype, that can query the server for authentication mode, successfully authenticate and retrieve a list of web site. However, if I run the same app from a network that is behind a proxy server (the proxy does not require authentication), then I'm running into trouble. The normal -dhttp.proxyHost ... settings does not seam to help any. But I have found that by creating a ProxySelector class and setting it as default, I can regain access to the authentication web service, but I still can't retrieve the list of web sites from the SharePoint server. Anyone have any experience on how to make this work? I have put the source text java class files of a demo app up, showing the issue at the following urls (it's a bit to long even in the short demo form to post here). link text When running the code from a network behind a proxy server, I successfully retrieve the Authentication mode from the server, but the request for the Web Site list generates an exception originating at: com.sun.xml.internal.ws.transport.http.client .HttpClientTransport.readResponseCodeAndMessage(HttpClientTransport.java:201) The output from the source when no proxy is on the network is listed below: Successfully retrieved the SharePoint WebService response for Authentication SharePoint authentication method is: WINDOWS Calling Web Service to retrieve list of web site. Web Service call response: -------------- XML START -------------- <Webs xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/"> <Web Title="Collaboration Lab" Url="http://host.domain.com/collaboration"/> <Web Title="Global Data Lists" Url="http://host.domain.com/global_data_lists"/> <Web Title="Landing" Url="http://host.domain.com/Landing"/> <Web Title="SharePoint HelpDesk" Url="http://host.domain.com/helpdesk"/> <Web Title="Program Management" Url="http://host.domain.com/programmanagement"/> <Web Title="Project Site" Url="http://host.domain.com/Project Site"/> <Web Title="SharePoint Administration Tools" Url="http://host.domain.com/admin"/> <Web Title="Space Management Project" Url="http://host.domain.com/spacemgmt"/> </Webs> -------------- XML END -------------- Br Jan

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  • ImageMagick on Mac OSX Snow Leopard. Is there any way to get it to work?

    - by ?????
    It seems that I have more trouble getting standard Unix things to run on Snow Leopard than any other platform--including Windows cygwin For the past couple of days, I've been trying to get ImageMagick to run on Snow Leopard. The most obvious way, Mac Ports, fails: tppllc-Mac-Pro:ImageMagick-sl swirsky$ sudo port install imagemagick ---> Computing dependencies for p5-locale-gettext ---> Configuring p5-locale-gettext Error: Target org.macports.configure returned: configure failure: shell command " cd "/opt/local/var/macports/build/_opt_local_var_macports_sources_rsync.macports.org_release_ports_perl_p5-locale-gettext/work/gettext-1.05" && /opt/local/bin/perl Makefile.PL INSTALLDIRS=vendor " returned error 2 Command output: checking for gettext... no checking for gettext in -I/opt/local/include -arch i386 -L/opt/local/lib -lintl...gettext function not found. Please install libintl at Makefile.PL line 18. no Error: Unable to upgrade port: 1 Error: Unable to execute port: upgrade xorg-libXt failed Before reporting a bug, first run the command again with the -d flag to get complete output. tppllc-Mac-Pro:ImageMagick-sl swirsky$ Not wanting to spend another two days figuring out why my libintl doesn't have a "gettext" function, I tried a different route: the script mentioned here: http://github.com/masterkain/ImageMagick-sl This script downloads and installs an ImageMagic independently of MacPorts issues tppllc-Mac-Pro:ImageMagick-sl swirsky$ /usr/local/bin/convert dyld: Library not loaded: /opt/local/lib/libiconv.2.dylib Referenced from: /opt/local/lib/libfontconfig.1.dylib Reason: Incompatible library version: libfontconfig.1.dylib requires version 8.0.0 or later, but libiconv.2.dylib provides version 7.0.0 Trace/BPT trap It downloads everything and compiles fine, but fails when I try to run it, with the message above. So now I'm two steps away from ImageMagick, trying to get a newer libiconv on my machine. I downloaded the latest libiconv, compiled and built it. I put the resulting library in /opt/local/lib, and I still get the same error message: tppllc-Mac-Pro:.libs swirsky$ sudo mv libiconv.2.dylib /opt/local/lib/libiconv.2.dylib tppllc-Mac-Pro:.libs swirsky$ convert dyld: Library not loaded: /opt/local/lib/libiconv.2.dylib Referenced from: /opt/local/lib/libfontconfig.1.dylib Reason: Incompatible library version: libfontconfig.1.dylib requires version 8.0.0 or later, but libiconv.2.dylib provides version 7.0.0 Trace/BPT trap So here's my question: Is it possible to get ImageMagick to run on OSX Snow Leopard? Are there any binary distributions that have static libraries baked in so I don't have to worry about these issue/

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  • Which HTTP redirect status code is best for this REST API scenario?

    - by Aseem Kishore
    I'm working on a REST API. The key objects ("nouns") are "items", and each item has a unique ID. E.g. to get info on the item with ID foo: GET http://api.example.com/v1/item/foo New items can be created, but the client doesn't get to pick the ID. Instead, the client sends some info that represents that item. So to create a new item: POST http://api.example.com/v1/item/ hello=world&hokey=pokey With that command, the server checks if we already have an item for the info hello=world&hokey=pokey. So there are two cases here. Case 1: the item doesn't exist; it's created. This case is easy. 201 Created Location: http://api.example.com/v1/item/bar Case 2: the item already exists. Here's where I'm struggling... not sure what's the best redirect code to use. 301 Moved Permanently? 302 Found? 303 See Other? 307 Temporary Redirect? Location: http://api.example.com/v1/item/foo I've studied the Wikipedia descriptions and RFC 2616, and none of these seem to be perfect. Here are the specific characteristics I'm looking for in this case: The redirect is permanent, as the ID will never change. So for efficiency, the client can and should make all future requests to the ID endpoint directly. This suggests 301, as the other three are meant to be temporary. The redirect should use GET, even though this request is POST. This suggests 303, as all others are technically supposed to re-use the POST method. In practice, browsers will use GET for 301 and 302, but this is a REST API, not a website meant to be used by regular users in browsers. It should be broadly usable and easy to play with. Specifically, 303 is HTTP/1.1 whereas 301 and 302 are HTTP/1.0. I'm not sure how much of an issue this is. At this point, I'm leaning towards 303 just to be semantically correct (use GET, don't re-POST) and just suck it up on the "temporary" part. But I'm not sure if 302 would be better since in practice it's been the same behavior as 303, but without requiring HTTP/1.1. But if I go down that line, I wonder if 301 is even better for the same reason plus the "permanent" part. Thoughts appreciated!

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  • How to create JPA EntityMananger in Spring Context?

    - by HDave
    I have a JPA/Spring application that uses Hibernate as the JPA provider. In one portion of the code, I have to manually create a DAO in my application with the new operator rather than use Spring DI. When I do this, the @PersistenceContext annotation is not processed by Spring. In my code where I create the DAO I have an EntityManagerFactory which I used to set the entityManager as follows: @PersistenceUnit private EntityManagerFactory entityManagerFactory; MyDAO dao = new MyDAOImpl(); dao.setEntityManager(entityManagerFactory.createEntityManager()); The problem is that when I do this, I get a Hibernate error: Could not find UserTransaction in JNDI [java:comp/UserTransaction] It's as if the HibernateEntityManager never received all the settings I've configured in Spring: <bean id="myAppTestLocalEmf" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="myapp-core" /> <property name="persistenceUnitPostProcessors"> <bean class="com.myapp.core.persist.util.JtaPersistenceUnitPostProcessor"> <property name="jtaDataSource" ref="myappPersistTestJdbcDataSource" /> </bean> </property> <property name="jpaProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.factory_class">org.hibernate.transaction.JTATransactionFactory</prop> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.manager_lookup_class">com.atomikos.icatch.jta.hibernate3.TransactionManagerLookup</prop> </props> </property> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="showSql" value="true" /> <!-- The following use the PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer but it doesn't work in Eclipse --> <property name="database" value="$DS{hibernate.database}" /> <property name="databasePlatform" value="$DS{hibernate.dialect}" /> I am not sure, but I think the issue might be that I am not creating the entity manager correctly with the plain vanilla createEntityManager() call rather than passing in a map of properties. I say this because when Spring's LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean proxy's the call to Hibernate's createEntityManager() all of the Spring configured options are missing. That is, there is no Map argument to the createEntityManager() call. Perhaps it is another problem entirely however....not sure!

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  • TFS CM resource recommendations / some questions

    - by John
    I am working with a small development shop that consists of a group of 5 developers and 1 QA person. We are using TFS and need to get more sophisticated on how we use this tool. Currently the development team checks in their code each evening. A nightly build runs and pushes the output out on a network share. Our QA person uses this build for testing the next day. Sometimes the build off the trunk codebase has issues/bugs that hinder the QA process, and it hasn’t been a giant issue in the past, but we now want to get to a state where we have our QA person testing on a stable QA build. So I believe we need to create a branch (call it QA), and the developers will continue to develop off the trunk, but the QA person will use builds created from code in the QA branch. Seems simple enough, but we have started doing code reviews as well. So we have another desire in that only code that has been code reviewed can be promoted to the QA branch. Each developer works off a TFS item, and when they check in a changeset, they do it against a TFS item which creates a link between a checked in code file and a TFS item. Eventually the TFS item becomes complete and ready for code review. All code attached to the TFS item is reviewed. How can the versions of these files get promoted to the QA branch? In the QA branch, if a bug is found, we want to fix it in the QA branch and have the changes migrated back to the trunk. I believe TFS has a way to automatically do this doesn’t it? Long story short, we want to get to a build and CM environment that I believe is pretty standard, but we are unaware of how to make this happen with TFS. Given our situation above, can someone point out a book or website(s) that would address our specific needs? We would like to make this happen without having to get too deep in CM theory or TFS. I very much appreciate any and all suggestions! Thanks, John

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  • Parsing Web Service Response in Oracle 9i

    - by zechariahs
    I'm having trouble parsing an XML response from a web service. I have a feeling this is due to a namespace issue. But, after 4 hours of research, trial-and-error, and head-banging I haven't been able to resolve it. Please help. My goal is to get a dbms_xmldom.DOMNodeList that contains "ERRORS" nodes. XML Response: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <soap:Envelope xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <soap:Body> <GetMailDataResponse xmlns="https://www.customnamespacehost.com/webservicename"> <GetMailDataResult> <Errors xmlns=""> <ErrorDetail>Access Credentials Invalid</ErrorDetail> </Errors> </GetMailDataResult> </GetMailDataResponse> </soap:Body> Code: Unfortunately this code compiles but doesn't work. Error: "ORA-31013: Invalid XPATH expression." I believe this is due to the multiple namespaces defined in L_NS variable. I tried setting L_XPATH: "/soap:Envelope/soap:Body" and L_NS: "xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope"" but L_NL_RESULTS ends up being null. -- Variable Declarations -- P_XML XMLTYPE; L_CODE_NAME VARCHAR2(1000) := 'PKG_CIS_WS.FNC_STAGE_DATA'; L_XML_DOC dbms_xmldom.DOMDocument; L_NL_RESULTS dbms_xmldom.DOMNodeList; L_NL_DONOR_SCREENING_RESULTS dbms_xmldom.DOMNodeList; L_N_RESULT dbms_xmldom.DOMNode; L_XPATH VARCHAR2(4000); L_NS VARCHAR2(4000); L_TEMP VARCHAR2(4000); -- Code Snippet -- L_XML_DOC := dbms_xmldom.newDOMDocument(P_XML); L_XPATH := '/soap:Envelope/soap:Body/a:GetMailDataResponse/GetMailDataResult'; L_NS := 'xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope"' || 'xmlns:a="https://www.customnamespacehost.com/webservicename"'; L_NL_RESULTS := dbms_xslprocessor.selectNodes( dbms_xmldom.makeNode(L_XML_DOC) , L_XPATH , L_NS); if not DBMS_XMLDOM.ISNULL(L_NL_RESULTS) then FOR RESULTS_REC IN 0 .. dbms_xmldom.getLength(L_NL_RESULTS) - 1 LOOP L_N_RESULT := dbms_xmldom.item(L_NL_RESULTS, RESULTS_REC); L_TEMP := dbms_xmldom.GETNODENAME(L_N_RESULT); prc_bjm(L_CODE_NAME, 'L_TEMP = ' || L_TEMP, SQLCODE); dbms_xslprocessor.valueOf(L_N_RESULT, 'Errors/ErrorDetail/text()', L_TEMP); prc_bjm(L_CODE_NAME, 'L_TEMP = ' || L_TEMP, SQLCODE); END LOOP; else prc_bjm(L_CODE_NAME, 'No nodes for: ' || L_XPATH || '(' || L_NS || ')', SQLCODE); end if; -- if not DBMS_XMLDOM.ISNULL(L_NL_RESULTS)

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  • Which management tools would you recommend for software development?

    - by Robert Schneider
    What would you generally recommend for software developement? Which combination do you use or would you recommend? I assume that tools are needed for Version control, issues/bugs/task, Release management, Requirement management. Tools for Test management and Project management should be accounted for as well, I guess. Did I forget anything? Maybe tools for Continous Integration. I'm not interested in a halfway combination of one ore two tools like a Subversion + Bugzilla (I know they are good but for a company they might not be sufficient). And also tools like make/ant shouldn't be taken into account. I'd like to know a combination that covers all what is important for professional software development. However, it could be a single tool of course if it covers all the management issues. What do you think would be a good combination? I assume a combination should be regardes as good if the tools itself are good but also if they have good integrations. Udate: Something like Ant is just a script not a management tool. Okay: we do already have Perforce. But this is somehow generic. We have different projects that uses C-, VS/.NET-, Python-, PHP and we will be starting new projects in Java. Plenty of languages and frameworks, though some are going to be legacy. So the tools should be generic. Obviously we don't want to use Bugzilla for one project and Jira for another. The management tools have to be generic. Further thoughts: Think of sourceforge: For each project they offer a version control system, an issue tracker, a wiki, ... totally independent of what the project is about. Those are some management tools that a project usually needs. I would say that most companies need such a set of tools. But I could imagine, if a company has several projects, they need further tools too: for Project management, Quality management, ... And I could imagine there are some recommendable combinations of tools. A not really apropiate comparison to this could be LAMP (Linux, Apache, MySQL, PHP). A combination of software that has evolved since they work very well together, and are pretty useful for a lot of applications (or rather web sites). So maybe there are some recommendable management tool combinations that also fit toghether like LAMP. The integration is important. Thank you for the incredibly fast and helpful responses!!!

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  • VS 2008 irritating copy constructor link dependency

    - by Paul Hollingsworth
    Hi guys, I've run into the following annoying and seemingly incorrect behaviour in the Visual Studio 2008 C++ compiler: Suppose I have a class library - Car.lib - that uses a "Car" class, with a header called "Car.h": class Car { public: void Drive() { Accelerate(); } void Accelerate(); }; What I'm actually trying to do is use the Car headers (for some other functions), but without having to link with Car.lib itself (the actual class is not called "Car" but I am sanitising this example). If I #include "Car.h" in the .cpp file used to build a managed C++ .dll, but never refer to Car, everything compiles and links fine. This is because I never instantiate a Car object. However, the following: namespace { class Car { public: Car(const Car& rhs) { Accelerate(); } void Accelerate(); }; } leaves me with the link error: Error 2 error LNK2001: unresolved external symbol "public: void __thiscall `anonymous namespace'::Car::Accelerate(void)" (?Accelerate@Car@?A0xce3bb5ed@@$$FQAEXXZ) CREObjectWrapper.obj CREObjectBuilderWrapper Note I've declared the whole thing inside an anonymous namespace so there's no way that the Car functions could be exported from the .DLL in any case. Declaring the copy constructor out-of-line makes no difference. i.e. the following also fails to link: class Car { public: Car(const Car& rhs); void Accelerate(); }; Car::Car(const Car& rhs) { Accelerate(); } It's something specifically to do with the copy constructor note, because the following, for example, does link: class Car { public: Car() { Accelerate(); } void Accelerate(); }; I am not a C++ standards guru but this doesn't seem correct to me. Surely the compiler still should not have had to even generate any code that calls the Car copy constructor. Can anyone confirm if this behaviour is correct? It's been a while since I used C++ - but I don't think this used to be an issue with Visual Studio 6.0 for example. Can anyone suggest a workaround that allows one to "re-use" the Accelerate method from within the copy constructor and still have the copy constructor declared inline?

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