Search Results

Search found 50600 results on 2024 pages for 'application lifecycle'.

Page 891/2024 | < Previous Page | 887 888 889 890 891 892 893 894 895 896 897 898  | Next Page >

• Issues Deploying ROOT Context in Tomcat6

  - by Josh K

  I'm working on getting an application deployed to the ROOT ("/") context in my Tomcat 6 instance. Here's what has been done: Defined another virtual host (domain.com) Created the respective folder (/etc/tomcat6/Catalina/domain.com) Set it to auto deploy WAR's Set appBase to CATALINA_BASE/domainapps and created respective folder Copied manager.xml from localhost to domain.com. Now I'm trying to deploy into the ROOT context by uploading a ROOT.war to CATALINA_BASE/domainapps. This isn't working. I don't get any exceptions thrown, but the stock ROOT page ("It works !") stays up. I have successfully deployed it into another context (by uploading domainapp.war and viewing at /domainapp), but not ROOT. Re-reading the Virtual Host setup it makes reference to CATALINA_HOME and CATALINA_BASE. My CATALINA_HOME is at /usr/share/tomcat6/domainapp while CATALINA_BASE is /var/lib/tomcat6. Which should I be using for what? Currently haven't touched CATALINA_HOME but will try messing with a few things there. A better question might be what is the generally accepted flow taken to setup a new Tomcat instance and deploy an application to the root context.

  Read the article

• How to set up single array or dictionary for use in multiple datasources?

  - by Roman

  I have multiple TableViewDatasources that need to display list of objects form same pool depending of certain property. E.g. object.flag1 is set- it will show up in TableView1 object.flag2 is set- it will show up in TableView2 The obvious way would be to have separate arrays for each TableView, But same object may appear in different arrays. Also I need to update objects very often or access all objects through same array. How do I setup a single dictionary or array to have all objects in one structure? To put it in another way: When table view or selection changes, application need to redraw TableViews with the new data. Application have to access the pool of objects and search through them using iterator and accessing each object and its properties. I think that this is an expensive operation and want to avoid that. Perhaps maybe by making a global pool of objects a dictionary and exposing objects properties as dictionary fields. So instead of iterating global pool of objects I could access global pool Dicitonary in a manner of database by selecting objects that has fields that match particular criteria. Anyone know any example of doing that?

  Read the article

• PHP: Aggregate Model Classes or Uber Model Classes?

  - by sunwukung

  In many of the discussions regarding the M in MVC, (sidestepping ORM controversies for a moment), I commonly see Model classes described as object representations of table data (be that an Active Record, Table Gateway, Row Gateway or Domain Model/Mapper). Martin Fowler warns against the development of an anemic domain model, i.e. a class that is nothing more than a wrapper for CRUD functionality. I've been working on an MVC application for a couple of months now. The DBAL in the application I'm working on started out simple (on account of my understanding - oh the benefits of hindsight), and is organised so that Controllers invoke Business Logic classes, that in turn access the database via DAO/Transaction Scripts pertinent to the task at hand. There are a few "Entity" classes that aggregate these DAO objects to provide a convenient CRUD wrapper, but also embody some of the "behaviour" of that Domain concept (for example, a user - since it's easy to isolate). Taking a look at some of the code, and thinking along refactoring some of the code into a Rich Domain Model, it occurred to me that were I to try and wrap the CRUD routines and behaviour of say, a Company into a single "Model" class, that would be a sizeable class. So, my question is this: do Models represent domain objects, business logic, service layers, all of the above combined? How do you go about defining the responsibilities for these components?

  Read the article

• Side by side madness - running binaries on different computer (with a twist)

  - by sbk

  Here's my configuration: Computer A - Windows 7, MS Visual Studio 2005 patched for Win7 compatibility (8.0.50727.867) Computer B - Windows XP SP2, MS Visual Studio 2005 installed (8.0.50727.42) My project has some external dependencies (prebuilt DLLs - either build on A or downloaded from the Internet), a couple of DLLs built from sources and one executable. I am mostly developing on A and all is fine there. At some point I try to build my project on computer B, copying the prebuilt DLLs to the output folder. Everything builds fine, but trying to start my application I get The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0150002).... The event log contains two of those: Dependent Assembly Microsoft.VC80.CRT could not be found and Last Error was The referenced assembly is not installed on your system. plus the slightly more amusing Generate Activation Context failed for some.dll. Reference error message: The operation completed successfully. At this point I'm trying my Google-Fu, but in vain - virtually all hits are about running binaries on machines without Visual Studio installed. In my case, however, the executables fail to run on the computer they are built. Next step was to try dependency walker and it baffled me even more - my DLLs built from sources on the same box cannot find MSVCR80.DLL and MSVCP80.DLL, however the executable seems to be alright in respect to those two DLLs i.e. when I open the executable with dependency walker it shows that the MSVC?80.DLLs can be found, but when I open one of my DLLs it says they cannot. That's where I am completely out of ideas what to do so I'm asking you, dear stackoverflow :) I admit I'm a bit blurry on the whole side-by-side thing, so general reading on the topic will also be appreciated.

  Read the article

• Mobile safari - suppress Unsupported Protocol alert

  - by Juriy

  Hello guys, I'm creating a website for iPhone and i use the native app (cliqcliq Quickpick) to upload photos. I use the script like the following to check if the application is installed. The basic idea is to send user to a custom url, if application is there it is launched, if it is not there the url should be ignored and user is taken to App Store. Below is the script: window.launchQuickpic = function() { var start = new Date(); setTimeout(function() { if (new Date() - start > 2000) { return; } window.location = 'http://www.cliqcliq.com/quickpic/install/'; }, 1000); var getParams = [...]; window.location = 'vquickpic://?' + getParams.join('&'); }; If the native app is not installed I'm getting the alert box saying that Safari does not recognize the custom url. After user clicks "ok" it works as it is supposed to. But the alert is reeealy annoying. I've tried to surround the window.location= code with try/catch. Didn't help.

  Read the article

• Can a stateless WCF service benefit from built-in database connection pooling?

  - by vladimir

  I understand that a typical .NET application that accesses a(n SQL Server) database doesn't have to do anything in particular in order to benefit from the connection pooling. Even if an application repeatedly opens and closes database connections, they do get pooled by the framework (assuming that things such as credentials do not change from call to call). My usage scenario seems to be a bit different. When my service gets instantiated, it opens a database connection once, does some work, closes the connection and returns the result. Then it gets torn down by the WCF, and the next incoming call creates a new instance of the service. In other words, my service gets instantiated per client call, as in [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerCall)]. The service accesses an SQL Server 2008 database. I'm using .NET framework 3.5 SP1. Does the connection pooling still work in this scenario, or I need to roll my own connection pool in form of a singleton or by some other means (IInstanceContextProvider?). I would rather avoid reinventing the wheel, if possible.

  Read the article

• NHibernate Session DI from StructureMap in components

  - by Corey Coogan

  I know this is somewhat of a dead horse, but I'm not finding a satisfactory answer. First let me say, I am NOT dealing with a web app, otherwise managing NH Session is quite simple. I have a bunch of enterprise components. Those components have their own service layer that will act on multiple repositories. For example: Claim Component Claim Processing Service Claim Repository Billing Component Billing Service Billing REpository Policy Component PolicyLockService Policy Repository Now I may have a console, or windows application that needs to coordinate an operation that involves each of the services. I want to write the services to be injected with (DI) their required repositories. The Repositories should have an ISession, or similar, injected into them so that I can have this operation performed under one ISession/ITransaction. I'm aware of the Unit Of Work pattern and the many samples out there, but none of them showed DI. I'm also leery of [ThreadStatic] because this stuff can also be used from WCF and I have found enough posts describing how to do that. I've read about Business Conversations, but need something simple that each windows/console app can easily bootstrap since we have alot of these apps and some pretty inexperienced developers. So how can I configure StructureMap to inject the same ISession into each of the dependent repositories from an application? Here's a totally contrived and totally made up example without using SM (for clarification only - please don't spend energy critisizing): ConsoleApplication Main { using(ISession session = GetSession()) using(ITransaction trans = session.BeginTransaction()) { var policyRepo = new PolicyRepo(session); var policyService = new PolicyService(policyRepo); var billingRepo = new BillingRepo(session) var billingService = new BillingService(billingRepo); var claimRepo = new ClaimsRepo(session); var claimService = new ClaimService(claimRepo, policyService, billingService); claimService.FileCLaim(); trans.Commit(); } }

  Read the article

• When is onBind or onCreate called in an android service browser plugin?

  - by anselm

  I have adapted the example plugin of the android source and the browser recognises the plugin without any problem. Here is an extract of AndroidManifest.xml: <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name" android:debuggable="true"> <service android:name="com.domain.plugin.PluginService"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.webkit.PLUGIN" /> </intent-filter> </service> </application> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="7" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.webkit.permission.PLUGIN"></uses-permission> The actual Service class looks like so: public class PluginService extends Service { @Override public IBinder onBind(Intent arg0) { Log.d("PluginService", "onBind"); return null; } @Override public void onCreate() { Log.d("PluginService", "onCreate"); // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(); AssetInstaller.getInstance(this).installAssets("/data/data/com.domain.plugin"); } } The AssetInstaller code is supposed to extract some files required by the actual plugin into the /data/data/com.domain.plugin directory, however wether onBind nor onCreate are called. But I get lot's of debug trace of the actual libnpplugin.so file I'm using. So the puzzle is when and under what circumstance is the Service bound or created in case of a browser plugin. As things look the service seems to be a dummy service. Having said that, is there another intent that can be executed at installation time probably? The only solution I see right now is installing the needed files from the native plugin code instead. Any ideas? I know this is quite a tricky question ;)

  Read the article

• Could Python's logging SMTP Handler be freezing my thread for 2 minutes?

  - by Oddthinking

  A rather confusing sequence of events happened, according to my log-file, and I am about to put a lot of the blame on the Python logger, which is a bold claim. I thought I should get some second opinions about whether what I am saying could be true. I am trying to explain why there is are several large gaps in my log file (around two minutes at a time) during stressful periods for my application when it is missing deadlines. I am using Python's logging module on a remote server, and have set-up, with a configuration file, for all logs of severity of ERROR or higher to be emailed to me. Typically, only one error will be sent at a time, but during periods of sustained problems, I might get a dozen in a minute - annoying, but nothing that should stress SMTP. I believe that, after a short spurt of such messages, the Python logging system (or perhaps the SMTP system it is sitting on) is encountering errors or congestion. The call to Python's log is then BLOCKING for two minutes, causing my thread to miss its deadlines. (I was smart enough to move the logging until after the critical path of the application - so I don't care if logging takes me a few seconds, but two minutes is far too long.) This seems like a rather awkward architecture (for both a logging system that can freeze up, and for an SMTP system (Ubuntu, sendmail) that cannot handle dozens of emails in a minute**), so this surprises me, but it exactly fits the symptoms. Has anyone had any experience with this? Can anyone describe how to stop it from blocking? ** EDIT: I actually counted. A little under 4000 short emails in two hours. So far more than I suggested, sorry. But enough to over-fill a Sendmail's buffers?

  Read the article

• How to draw an unfilled square on top of a stream video using a mouse and track the object enclosed

  - by Haxed

  Hi, I am making an object tracking application. I have used Emgucv 2.1.0.0 to load a video file to a picturebox. I have also taken the video stream from a web camera. Now, I want to draw an unfilled square on the video stream using a mouse and then track the object enclosed by the unfilled square as the video continues to stream. This is what people have suggested so far:- (1) .NET Video overlay drawing(DirectX) - but this is for C++ users, the suggester said that there are .NET wrappers, but I had a hard time finding any. (2) DxLogo sample DxLogo – A sample application showing how to superimpose a logo on a data stream. It uses a capture device for the video source, and outputs the result to a file. Sadly, this does not use a mouse. (3) GDI+ and mouse handling - this area I do not have a clue. And for tracking the object in the square, I would appreciate if someone give me some research paper links to read. Any help as to using the mouse to draw on a video is greatly appreciated. Thank you for taking the time to read this. Many Thanks

  Read the article

• Using Facebook Login to create a user?

  - by andbeyond

  I've read this SO post which led me to this FB policy page, which seemed to include some pertinent information, but I'd like more of a community response, maybe some experienced FB API people who know the limits. My question is if I can use Facebook's Login api to, essentially, create a new user on my website. I really would just like to allow users to easily "transfer" some data from FB in order to more easily create a new account on my site. I realize, first and foremost, that I would obviously announce to the user that by click "submit" in the form, that they are creating a separate account on my site. Pertinent blocks on the policy page state: You may cache data you receive through use of the Facebook API in order to improve your application’s user experience, but you should try to keep the data up to date. This permission does not give you any rights to such data. Which doesn't look good for me, but also this: If you stop using Platform or we disable your application, you must delete all data you have received through use of the Facebook API unless: (a) it is basic account information; or (b) you have received explicit consent from the user to retain their data. Which, in my case, I would be satisfying part B. I would be asking the user's permission to retain the data, as I am simply using Facebook as a conveience to the user when creating an account. I also realize that Facebook has a registration API, but this would require a Facebook styled login form, along with my own sites login form, and I'd rather one interface, as this makes it easier for me on the front and back end. Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• How do I browse a Websphere MQ message without removing it?

  - by jmgant

  I'm writing a .NET Windows Forms application that will post a message to a Websphere MQ queue and then poll a different queue for a response. If a response is returned, the application will partially process the response in real time. But the response needs to stay in the queue so that a daily batch job, which also reads from the response queue, can do the rest of the processing. I've gotten as far as reading the message. What I haven't been able to figure out is how to read it without removing it. Here's what I've got so far. I'm an MQ newbie, so any suggestions will be appreciated. And feel free to respond in C#. Public Function GetMessage(ByVal msgID As String) As MQMessage Dim q = ConnectToResponseQueue() Dim msg As New MQMessage() Dim getOpts As New MQGetMessageOptions() Dim runThru = Now.AddMilliseconds(CInt(ConfigurationManager.AppSettings("responseTimeoutMS"))) System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000) 'Wait for one second before checking for the first response' While True Try q.Get(msg, getOpts) Return msg Catch ex As MQException When ex.Reason = MQC.MQRC_NO_MSG_AVAILABLE If Now > runThru Then Throw ex System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(3000) Finally q.Close() End Try End While Return Nothing 'Should never reach here' End Function NOTE: I haven't verified that my code actually removes the message. But that's how I understand MQ to work, and that appears to be what's happening. Please correct me if that's not the default behavior.

  Read the article

• How to test a struts 2.1.x developer?

  - by Jason Pyeron

  We employ test to filter out those who can't. The tests are designed to be very low effort for those who can and too much effort for those who can't. Here is an example for java web application developer on an Oracle project: We only work with contractors who can use the tools we use, to determine if you can use the tools we have devised some very simple tests. Instructions If you are prepared and knowledgeable this will take you about 2-5 minutes. Suggested knowledge and tools: * subversion 1.6 see http://subversion.tigris.org/ or http://cygwin.com/setup.exe * java 1.6 see http://java.sun.com/javase/downloads/index.jsp * oracle >=10g see http://www.oracle.com/technology/software/products/jdev/index.html * j2ee server see http://tomcat.apache.org/download-55.cgi or http://www.jboss.org/jbossas/downloads/ Steps 1. check out svn://statics32.pdinc.us/home/subversion/guest 2. deploy the war file found at trunk/test.war 3. browse to the web application you installed from the war file and answer the one SQL question: How many rows are in the table 'testdata' where column 'value' ends with either an 'A' or an 'a'? The login credentials are in trunk/doc/oracle.txt 4. make a RESULTS HASH by submitting your answer to the form. 5. create a file in tmp/YourUserName.txt and put the RESULTS HASH in it, not the answer. 6. check in your file (don't forget to add the file first). 7. message me with the revision number of your check in. As such I am looking for ideas on how to test for someone to be a struts 2.1 w/ annotations.

  Read the article

• Visual Studio 2010 / ASP.NET MVC 2 / Publish Error

  - by SevenCentral

  I just did a clean install on Windows 7 x64 Professional with the final release of Visual Studio 2010 Premium. In order to duplicate what I'm experiencing do the following in: Create a new ASP.NET MVC 2 Web Application Right click the project and select Properties On the Web tab, select "Use Local IIS Web Server" Click on Create Virtual Directory Save all Unload the project Edit the project file Change MvcBuildViews to true Save all Reload project Right click the project and select Publish Choose the file system publish method Enter a target location Choose Delete all existing files Select Publish Right click the project Select Publish Each time I do the above I get the following errror: "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level..." The error originates from obj\debug\package\packagetmp\web.config, relative to the project directory. I can repeat this all day long with any MVC 2 project I've built. In order to fix this problem, I need to set MvcBuildViews to false in the project file. That's not really an option. This wasn't a problem in Visual Studio 2008 and it seems to be an issue with the way the Publish command stages files beneath the project directory. Can anyone else duplicate this error? Is this a bug or by design? Is there a fix, workaround, etc...? Thanks.

  Read the article

• How to use VBA to colour pie chart

  - by Timon Heinomann

  I have the following code in which the code tries to create a bubble chart with pie charts as the bubbles. As in this version colour themes are used to create a different colour in each pie chart (bulbble) in the function part I have the problem that it works depending on the paths to the colour paletts. Is there an easy way to make the function in a way that it works independently of those paths either by coding a colour for each pie chart segment or by using standardize paths (probably not possible, not preferable). Sub PieMarkers() Dim chtMarker As Chart Dim chtMain As Chart Dim intPoint As Integer Dim rngRow As Range Dim lngPointIndex As Long Dim thmColor As Long Dim myTheme As String Application.ScreenUpdating = False Set chtMarker = ActiveSheet.ChartObjects("chtMarker").Chart Set chtMain = ActiveSheet.ChartObjects("chtMain").Chart Set chtMain = ActiveSheet.ChartObjects("chtMain").Chart Set rngRow = Range(ThisWorkbook.Names("PieChartValues").RefersTo) For Each rngRow In Range("PieChartValues").Rows chtMarker.SeriesCollection(1).Values = rngRow ThisWorkbook.Theme.ThemeColorScheme.Load GetColorScheme(thmColor) chtMarker.Parent.CopyPicture xlScreen, xlPicture lngPointIndex = lngPointIndex + 1 chtMain.SeriesCollection(1).Points(lngPointIndex).Paste thmColor = thmColor + 1 Next lngPointIndex = 0 Application.ScreenUpdating = True End Sub Function GetColorScheme(i As Long) As String Const thmColor1 As String = "C:\Program Files\Microsoft Office\Document Themes 15\Theme Colors\Blue Green.xml" Const thmColor2 As String = "C:\Program Files\Microsoft Office\Document Themes 15\Theme Colors\Orange Red.xml" Select Case i Mod 2 Case 0 GetColorScheme = thmColor1 Case 1 GetColorScheme = thmColor2 End Select End Function The code copies a single chart again and again on the bubbles. So I woudl like to alter the Function (now called Get colourscheme) into a fucntion that assigns a a unqiue rgb colour to each segment of each pie chart

  Read the article

• Core data migration failing with "Can't find model for source store" but managedObjectModel for source is present

  - by Ira Cooke

  I have a cocoa application using core-data, which is now at the 4th version of its managed object model. My managed object model contains abstract entities but so far I have managed to get migration working by creating appropriate mapping models and creating my persistent store using addPersistentStoreWithType:configuration:options:error and with the NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption set to YES. NSDictionary *optionsDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObject:[NSNumber numberWithBool:YES] forKey:NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption]; NSURL *url = [NSURL fileURLWithPath: [applicationSupportFolder stringByAppendingPathComponent: @"MyApp.xml"]]; NSError *error=nil; [theCoordinator addPersistentStoreWithType:NSXMLStoreType configuration:nil URL:url options:optionsDictionary error:&error] This works fine when I migrate from model version 3 to 4, which is a migration that involves adding attributes to several entities. Now when I try to add a new model version (version 5), the call to addPersistentStoreWithType returns nil and the error remains empty. The migration from 4 to 5 involves adding a single attribute. I am struggling to debug the problem and have checked all the following; The source database is in fact at version 4 and the persistentStoreCoordinator's managed object model is at version 5. The 4-5 mapping model as well as managed object models for versions 4 and 5 are present in the resources folder of my built application. I've tried various model upgrade paths. Strangely I find that upgrading from an early version 3 - 5 works .. but upgrading from 4 - 5 fails. I've tried adding a custom entity migration policy for migration of the entity whose attributes are changing ... in this case I overrode the method beginEntityMapping:manager:error: . Interestingly this method does get called when migration works (ie when I migrate from 3 to 4, or from 3 to 5 ), but it does not get called in the case that fails ( 4 to 5 ). I'm pretty much at a loss as to where to proceed. Any ideas to help debug this problem would be much appreciated.

  Read the article

• JSP request parameter is returning null on a jsp include with Weblogic.

  - by doug

  Hello, I am having trouble with the jsp:include tag. I have code like the following: <jsp:include page="./Address.jsp"> <jsp:param value="30" name="tabIndex"/> <jsp:param value="true" name="showBox"/> <jsp:param value="none" name="display"/> </jsp:include> The page is included fine, but when I try to access the parameters on the Address.jsp page, they are null. I have tried accessing them the following ways (with jstl): <c:out value="${param.tabIndex}" /> <c:out value="${param['tabIndex']} /> <%= request.getParameter("tabIndex") %> <c:out value="${pageScope.param.tabIndex} /> ${param.tabIndex} etc... Here is the kicker, The above works fine in tomcat 5.5. However, when I deploy the application in Weblogic 10, it does not. Also, the code works fine in other areas of my application (on weblogic) just not a particular page. Any Ideas? Thanks!

  Read the article

• memory alignment within gcc structs

  - by Mumbles

  I am porting an application to an ARM platform in C, the application also runs on an x86 processor, and must be backward compatible. I am now having some issues with variable alignment. I have read the gcc manual for __attribute__((aligned(4),packed)) I interpret what is being said as the start of the struct is aligned to the 4 byte boundry and the inside remains untouched because of the packed statement. originally I had this but occasionally it gets placed unaligned with the 4 byte boundary. typedef struct { unsigned int code; unsigned int length; unsigned int seq; unsigned int request; unsigned char nonce[16]; unsigned short crc; } __attribute__((packed)) CHALLENGE; so I change it to this. typedef struct { unsigned int code; unsigned int length; unsigned int seq; unsigned int request; unsigned char nonce[16]; unsigned short crc; } __attribute__((aligned(4),packed)) CHALLENGE; The understand I stated earlier seems to be incorrect as both the struct is now aligned to a 4 byte boundary, and and the inside data is now aligned to a four byte boundary, but because of the endianess, the size of the struct has increased in size from 42 to 44 bytes. This size is critical as we have other applications that depend on the struct being 42 bytes. Could some describe to me how to perform the operation that I require. Any help is much appreciated.

  Read the article

• Using generics in Unity ... InvalidCastException

  - by Sunny D

  Hi, My interface definition is: public interface IInterface where T:UserControl My class definition is: public partial class App1Control : UserControl, IInterface The unity section of my app.config looks as below: <unity> <typeAliases> <typeAlias alias="singleton" type="Microsoft.Practices.Unity.ContainerControlledLifetimeManager, Microsoft.Practices.Unity" /> <typeAlias alias="myInterface" type="MyApplication.IInterface`1, MyApplication" /> <typeAlias alias="App1" type="MyApplication.App1Control, MyApplication" /> </typeAliases> <containers> <container> <types> <type type="myInterface" mapTo="App1" name="Application 1"> <lifetime type="singleton"/> </type> </types> </container> </containers> </unity> The app runs fine but, the following code gives a InvalidCastException container.Resolve<IInterface<UserControl>>("Application 1"); The error message is : Unable to cast object of type 'MyApplication.App1Control' to type 'MyApplication.IInterface`1[System.Windows.Forms.UserControl]' I believe there is a minor mistake in my code ... but am not able to figure out what. Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• How to access SQL CE 3.5 from VB6

  - by Masterfu

  We have a .NET 3.5 SP1 application written in C# that stores data in an SQL CE 3.5 Database. We also need to access (read only) this very data from a legacy VB6 application. I don't know if this is at all possible. There are several approaches to this problem that I can think of. 1) I have read about ADOCE Connections, but this seems to be an option for embedded Visual Basic only 2) I can't seem to get a connection working using ADODB.Connection Objects like so Dim MyConnObj As New ADODB.Connection ' Microsoft.SQLSERVER.CE.OLEDB.3.5 ' Microsoft.SQLSERVER.MOBILE.OLEDB.3.0 MyConnObj.ConnectionString = "Provider=SQLOLEDB;Data Source=c:\test.sdf" MyConnObj.Open Maybe this is just a bad choice of providers? I also tried the providers that appear as comments above and different connection strings, but to no avail. Both providers are not installed on my dev machine and won't be installed on my customer's machine. 3) Maybe there is a way to use a more generic approach like ODBC? But I believe this would result in setup / deployment work, right? Does anyone have any experience with this scenario? As you can see, I am really looking for some good starting points. I also accept answers like "This is drop dead simple and so are you" as long as they come with some guiding directions ;-)

  Read the article

• Correct initialization sequence for Linux serial port

  - by whitequark

  I wrote an application that must use serial ports on Linux, especially ttyUSB ones. Reading and writing operations are performed with standard select()/read() loop and write(), and there is probably nothing wrong in them, but initialization code (or absence of some part of it) damages something in the tty subsystem. Here it is: vuxboot(string filename, unsigned baud = B115200) : _debug(false) { _fd = open(filename.c_str(), O_RDWR | O_NOCTTY); if(!_fd) throw new io_error("cannot open port"); // Serial initialization was written with FTDI USB-to-serial converters // in mind. Anyway, who wants to use non-8n1 protocol? tcgetattr(_fd, &_termios); termios tio = {0}; tio.c_iflag = IGNPAR; tio.c_oflag = 0; tio.c_cflag = baud | CLOCAL | CREAD | CS8; tio.c_lflag = 0; tcflush(_fd, TCIFLUSH); tcsetattr(_fd, TCSANOW, &tio); } Another tcsetattr(_fd, TCSANOW, &_termios) sits in the destructor, but it is irrelevant. With or without this termios initialization, strange things happen in system after the application exits. Sometimes plain cat (or hd) exits immediately printing nothing or same stuff each time, sometimes it is waiting and not displaying any of the data that is surely sent onto the port; and close() (read() too, but not every time) emits a strange WARNING to dmesg referring to usb-serial.c. I checked the hardware and firmware tens of times (even on different machines) and I am sure it is working as intended; moreover, I stripped the firmware to just print same message over and over. How can I use serial port without destroying anything? Thanks.

  Read the article

• IHttpModule not being applied to virtual directory

  - by arthurdent510

  I have a network folder that is mapped to my iis app as a virtual directory and I'm trying to do some authentication for files that are located there with an ihttpmodule. I've verified that the ihttpmodule is firing properly for anything else in my app, just not the files located in virtual directory. Most of what I've found is that the directory can't be listed as an application (which it isn't), and everything should work. The other solution that I found was to add the the module tag to the tag, but that didn't seem to help either. Everything that I've found talks about stopping this from happening. So my question is what could be set that is causing this to not work? Is there a certain execute permission that needs to be set? Any other iis settings that could cause this? It is an mvc app, and this is how my directory structure is laid out: server/app <- my application folder server/app/content/downloads <- downloads is the virtual directory Do I have to add the virtual directory directly under my app directory? Is that part of the problem? I don't have direct control of the server my code is running on, so testing things out is a bit of a pain... so I was looking for some more thoughts before starting to send emails off to my operations people. Thanks!

  Read the article

• How to design a RESTful collection resource?

  - by Suresh Kumar

  I am trying to design a "collection of items" resource. I need to support the following operations: Create the collection Remove the collection Add a single item to the collection Add multiple items to the collection Remove a single item from the collection Remove multiple items from the collection This is as far as I have gone: Create collection: ==> POST /service Host: www.myserver.com Content-Type: application/xml <collection name="items"> <item href="item1"/> <item href="item2"/> <item href="item3"/> </collection> <== 201 Created Location: http://myserver.com/service/items Content-Type: application/xml ... Remove collection: ==> DELETE /service/items <== 200 OK Removing a single item from the collection: ==> DELETE /service/items/item1 <== 200 OK However, I am finding supporting the other operations a bit tricky i.e. what methods can I use to: Add single or multiple items to the collection. (PUT doesn't seem to be right here as per HTTP 1.1 RFC Remove multiple items from the collection in one transaction. (DELETE doesn't seem to right here either)

  Read the article

• Database Functional Programming in Clojure

  - by Ralph

  "It is tempting, if the only tool you have is a hammer, to treat everything as if it were a nail." - Abraham Maslow I need to write a tool to dump a large hierarchical (SQL) database to XML. The hierarchy consists of a Person table with subsidiary Address, Phone, etc. tables. I have to dump thousands of rows, so I would like to do so incrementally and not keep the whole XML file in memory. I would like to isolate non-pure function code to a small portion of the application. I am thinking that this might be a good opportunity to explore FP and concurrency in Clojure. I can also show the benefits of immutable data and multi-core utilization to my skeptical co-workers. I'm not sure how the overall architecture of the application should be. I am thinking that I can use an impure function to retrieve the database rows and return a lazy sequence that can then be processed by a pure function that returns an XML fragment. For each Person row, I can create a Future and have several processed in parallel (the output order does not matter). As each Person is processed, the task will retrieve the appropriate rows from the Address, Phone, etc. tables and generate the nested XML. I can use a a generic function to process most of the tables, relying on database meta-data to get the column information, with special functions for the few tables that need custom processing. These functions could be listed in a map(table name -> function). Am I going about this in the right way? I can easily fall back to doing it in OO using Java, but that would be no fun. BTW, are there any good books on FP patterns or architecture? I have several good books on Clojure, Scala, and F#, but although each covers the language well, none look at the "big picture" of function programming design.

  Read the article

• Is there a way to programmatically tell if particular block of memory was not freed by FastMM?

  - by Wodzu

  I am trying to detect if a block of memory was not freed. Of course, the manager tells me that by dialog box or log file, but what if I would like to store results in a database? For example I would like to have in a database table a names of routines which allocated given blocks. After reading a documentation of FastMM I know that since version 4.98 we have a possibility to be notified by manager about memory allocations, frees and reallocations as they occur. For example OnDebugFreeMemFinish event is passing to us a PFullDebugBlockHeader which contains useful informations. There is one thing that PFullDebugBlockHeader is missing - the information if the given block was freed by the application. Unless OnDebugFreeMemFinish is called only for not freed blocks? This is which I do not know and would like to find out. The problem is that even hooking into OnDebugFreeMemFinish event I was unable to find out if the block was freed or not. Here is an example: program MemLeakTest; {$APPTYPE CONSOLE} uses FastMM4, ExceptionLog, SysUtils; procedure MemFreeEvent(APHeaderFreedBlock: PFullDebugBlockHeader; AResult: Integer); begin //This is executed at the end, but how should I know that this block should be freed //by application? Unless this is executed ONLY for not freed blocks. end; procedure Leak; var MyObject: TObject; begin MyObject := TObject.Create; end; begin OnDebugFreeMemFinish := MemFreeEvent; Leak; end. What I am missing is the callback like: procedure OnMemoryLeak(APointer: PFullDebugBlockHeader); After browsing the source of FastMM I saw that there is a procedure: procedure LogMemoryLeakOrAllocatedBlock(APointer: PFullDebugBlockHeader; IsALeak: Boolean); which could be overriden, but maybe there is an easier way?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 887 888 889 890 891 892 893 894 895 896 897 898  | Next Page >