Search Results

Search found 28043 results on 1122 pages for 'sql replication'.

Page 893/1122 | < Previous Page | 889 890 891 892 893 894 895 896 897 898 899 900  | Next Page >

  • How do I implement repository pattern and unit of work when dealing with multiple data stores?

    - by Jason
    I have a unique situation where I am building a DDD based system that needs to access both Active Directory and a SQL database as persistence. Initially this wasnt a problem because our design was setup where we had a unit of work that looked like this: public interface IUnitOfWork { void BeginTransaction() void Commit() } and our repositories looked like this: public interface IRepository<T> { T GetByID() void Save(T entity) void Delete(T entity) } In this setup our load and save would handle the mapping between both data stores because we wrote it ourselves. The unit of work would handle transactions and would contain the Linq To SQL data context that the repositories would use for persistence. The active directory part was handled by a domain service implemented in infrastructure and consumed by the repositories in each Save() method. Save() was responsible with interacting with the data context to do all the database operations. Now we are trying to adapt it to entity framework and take advantage of POCO. Ideally we would not need the Save() method because the domain objects are being tracked by the object context and we would just need to add a Save() method on the unit of work to have the object context save the changes, and a way to register new objects with the context. The new proposed design looks more like this: public interface IUnitOfWork { void BeginTransaction() void Save() void Commit() } public interface IRepository<T> { T GetByID() void Add(T entity) void Delete(T entity) } This solves the data access problem with entity framework, but does not solve the problem with our active directory integration. Before, it was in the Save() method on the repository, but now it has no home. The unit of work knows nothing other than the entity framework data context. Where should this logic go? I argue this design only works if you only have one data store using entity framework. Any ideas how to best approach this issue? Where should I put this logic?

    Read the article

  • does php mysql_fetch_array works with html input box?

    - by dexter
    this is my entire PHP code: <?php if(empty($_POST['selid'])) {echo "no value selected"; } else { $con = mysql_connect("localhost","root",""); if(mysql_select_db("cdcol", $con)) { $sql= "SELECT * FROM products where Id = '$_POST[selid]'"; if($result=mysql_query($sql)) { echo "<form name=\"updaterow\" method=\"post\" action=\"dbtest.php\">"; while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo "Id :<input type=\"text\" name=\"ppId\" value=".$row['Id']." READONLY></input></br>"; echo "Name :<input type=\"text\" name=\"pName\" value=".$row['Name']."></input></br>"; echo "Description :<input type=\"text\" name=\"pDesc\" value=".$row['Description']."></input></br>"; echo "Unit Price :<input type=\"text\" name=\"pUP\" value=".$row['UnitPrice']."></input></br>"; echo "<input type=\"hidden\" name=\"mode\" value=\"Update\"/>"; } echo "<input type=\"submit\" value=\"Update\">"; echo "</form>"; } else {echo "Query ERROR";} } } ?> PROBLEM here is, ....if the value i am getting from database using mysql_fetch_array($result) is like:(say Description is:) "my product" then; in input box it shows only "my" the word(or digit) after "SPACE"(ie blank space) doesn't get displayed? can input box like above can display the data with two or more words(separated by blank spaces)?

    Read the article

  • dynamic ul with sub-levels

    - by Y.G.J
    i have this recursive code <ul> <% sql="SELECT * FROM cats ORDER BY orderid " rs.Open sql,Conn dim recArray If Not rs.EOF Then recArray = rs.getRows() dim i for i=0 to uBound(recArray,2) if recArray(1,i)=0 then call showMessage(i) end if next End If function showMessage(index) %><li><%=recArray(2,index)%></li><% for a=0 to uBound(recArray,2) if recArray(1,a) = recArray(0,index) Then %><ul><% call showMessage(a) %></ul><% end if next %></li><% end function %> </ul> inside the loop in the function i have the for the sub(s) but after each line of li it will close the ul how can i have that dynamic and to have the output like this <ul> <li></li> <li></li> <li> <ul> <li></li> <li></li> <li></li> </ul> </li> <li></li> </ul> and not like this <ul> <li></li> <li></li> <li> <ul><li></li></ul> <ul><li></li></ul> <ul><li></li></ul> </li> <li></li> </ul>

    Read the article

  • Issue with SSL using HAProxy and Nginx

    - by Ben Chiappetta
    I'm building a highly available site using a multiple HAProxy load balancers, Nginx web serves, and MySQL servers. The site needs to be able to survive load balancer or web servers nodes going offline without any interruption of service to visitors. Currently, I have two boxes running HAProxy sharing a virtual IP using keepalived, which forward to two web servers running Nginx, which then tie into two MySQL boxes using MySQL replication and sharing a virtual IP using heartbeat. Everything is working correctly except for SSL traffic over HAProxy. I'm running version 1.5 dev12 with openssl support compiled in. When I try to navigate to the virtual IP for haproxy over https, I get the message: The plain HTTP request was sent to HTTPS port. Here's my haproxy.cfg so far, which was mainly assembled from other posts: global log 127.0.0.1 local0 log 127.0.0.1 local1 notice # log 127.0.0.1 local0 user haproxy group haproxy daemon maxconn 20000 defaults log global option dontlognull balance leastconn clitimeout 60000 srvtimeout 60000 contimeout 5000 retries 3 option redispatch listen front bind :80 bind :443 ssl crt /etc/pki/tls/certs/cert.pem mode http option http-server-close option forwardfor reqadd X-Forwarded-Proto:\ https if { is_ssl } reqadd X-Proto:\ SSL if { is_ssl } server web01 192.168.25.34 check inter 1s server web02 192.168.25.32 check inter 1s stats enable stats uri /stats stats realm HAProxy\ Statistics stats auth admin:********* Any idea why SSL traffic isn't being passed correctly? Also, any other changes you would recommend? I still need to configure logging, so don't worry about that section. Thanks in advance your help.

    Read the article

  • Troubles with PyDev and external libraries in OS X

    - by Davide Gualano
    I've successfully installed the latest version of PyDev in my Eclipse (3.5.1) under OS X 10.6.3, with python 2.6.1 I have troubles in making the libraries I have installed work. For example, I'm trying to use the cx_Oracle library, which is perfectly working if called from the python interpeter of from simple scripts made with some text editor. But I cant make it work inside Eclipse: I have this small piece of code: import cx_Oracle conn = cx_Oracle.connect(CONN_STRING) sql = "select field from mytable" cursor = conn.cursor() cursor.execute(sql) for row in cursor: field = row[0] print field If I execute it from Eclipse, I get the following error: import cx_Oracle File "build/bdist.macosx-10.6-universal/egg/cx_Oracle.py", line 7, in <module> File "build/bdist.macosx-10.6-universal/egg/cx_Oracle.py", line 6, in __bootstrap__ ImportError: dlopen(/Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so, 2): Library not loaded: /b/227/rdbms/lib/libclntsh.dylib.10.1 Referenced from: /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so Reason: no suitable image found. Did find: /Users/dave/lib/libclntsh.dylib.10.1: mach-o, but wrong architecture Same snippet works perfectly from the python shell I have configured the interpeter in Eclipse in preferences - PyDev -- Interpreter - Python, using the Auto Config option and selecting all the libs found. What am I doing wrong here? Edit: launching file /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so from the command line tells this: /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so: Mach-O universal binary with 3 architectures /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so (for architecture i386): Mach-O bundle i386 /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so (for architecture ppc7400): Mach-O bundle ppc /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so (for architecture x86_64): Mach-O 64-bit bundle x86_64

    Read the article

  • Why do clients on Branch Sites insist on accessing SYSVOL on the HQ DC instead of the branches' RODC?

    - by pepoluan
    I'm still scratching my head over this situation... You see, we have 3 RW DCs in the HQ, and 1 RODC on every branch sites (50+ locations). During startup, a script will pull in some files from \\example.com\SYSVOL\example.com\Common\Data But we have been experiencing bandwidth overload. A traffic analysis indicated that lots of clients in the Branch Sites were trying to access the SYSVOL located in the RW DCs. E.g.: If the RW DCs are 10.1.0.15, 10.2.0.15, and 10.3.0.15, and site 'X' has a subnet of 10.27.0.0/16 (with its RODC at 10.27.0.15), clients at site 'X' seem to insist on accessing \\10.1.0.15\SYSVOL or \\10.2.0.15\SYSVOL or \\10.3.0.15\SYSVOL; they seem to be ignoring the RODC completely. What is going on here? Where should I start investigating what went wrong? BTW, I'm already using DFS-R, and replication have been going on successfully; I can put a small 'canary' file on one of the RW DCs, and within minutes all the RODCs will have successfully replicated the 'canary' file.

    Read the article

  • create new db in mysql with php syntax

    - by Jacksta
    I am trying to create a new db called testDB2, below is my code. Once running the script all I am getting an error on line 7 Fatal error: Call to undefined function mysqlquery() in /home/admin/domains/domain.com.au/public_html/db_createdb.php on line 7 This is my code <? $sql = "CREATE database testDB2"; $connection = mysql_connect("localhost", "admin_user", "pass") or die(mysql_error()); $result = mysqlquery($sql, $connection) or die(mysql_error()); if ($result) { $msg = "<p>Databse has been created!</p>"; } ?> <HTML> <head> <title>Create MySQL database</title> </head> <body> <? echo "$msg"; ?> </body> </HTML>

    Read the article

  • How to set SQL_BIG_SELECTS = 1 from VB(legacy ASP) with ADODB environment?

    - by conecon
    I encountered The SELECT would examine more than MAX_JOIN_SIZE rows; check your WHERE and use SET SQL_BIG_SELECTS=1 or SET SQL_MAX_JOIN_SIZE=# if the SELECT is okay error with my ASP code. ASP code has server side ADODB connection with MySQL and connection seems not be able to execute multiple query. How to implement SQL_BIG_SELECTS = 1 in my code? Set obj_db = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Session("ConnectionString") = "dsn=dsn1016189_mysql;uid=apns;pwd=mypassword;DATABASE=mydb;APP=ASP Script;STMT=SET CHARACTER SET SJIS" obj_db.Open Session("ConnectionString") Set obj_ret = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") obj_ret.CursorLocation = 3 and executing SQL... SQL_BIG_SELECTS = 1; SELECT pu.login_id, pu.p_login_id, pu.first_name, pu.last_name, pu.sex, pu.is_admin, pu.attendance, pu.invited, pu.reason, qaa1.answer AS qaa1_answer, COUNT(pu2.p_login_id) AS companion FROM party_user pu LEFT OUTER JOIN party_user pu2 ON pu2.p_login_id = pu.login_id LEFT OUTER JOIN qa_answer qaa1 ON qaa1.login_id = pu.login_id AND qaa1.party_id = pu.party_id AND qaa1.sort_num = '1' WHERE pu.party_id = '92' AND pu.p_login_id = '' GROUP BY pu.login_id, pu.p_login_id, pu.first_name, pu.last_name, pu.sex, pu.is_admin, pu.attendance, pu.reason, qaa1.answer, pu.invited ORDER BY pu.login_id ASC; I can't execute multiple query and above query become error. You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'SELECT pu.login_id, pu.p_login_id, pu.first_name, pu.last_name, pu.sex, pu.is_ad' at line 1

    Read the article

  • Migrateing to Windows Server 2008 R2 Domain Controllers - a few Questions/Issues

    - by Chris
    Ok so here's our setup: We have 2 Windows2k3 Domain Controllers. I am trying to replace them with Windows 2008 R2. The Win2k3 servers are DC01 and DC02. The Windows2k8 servers are DC1 and DC2. I prepared the Windows Server 2003 Forest Schema for a Domain Controller That Runs Windows Server 2008 or Windows Server 2008 R2. Then with both of the new servers up as member servers I dcpromo'd DC1 using the advanced option and added it successfully to my exisiting domain. Roles are GC, DNS and Active Directory Domain Services.I transferred The PDC, RID pool manager and Infrastructure master FSMO to the new DC.(DC1) The Schema master and Domain naming master are still on the old DC (DC01). The first issue I'm encountering is when i dcpromo the second DC (DC2) and select "Replicate data over the network from and existing domain controller" I select the new DC to replicate from (DC1) I get the following error: "Failed to identify the requested replica partner (dc1.xxx.org) as a valid domain controller with a machine account for (DC2$). This is likely due to either the machine account not being replicated to this domain controller because of replication latency or the domain controller not advertising the Active Directory Domain Services. Please consider retrying the operation with \dc01.xxx.org as the replica partner. "The server is unwilling to process the request." Is this because the Schema master and Domain naming master roles are still on the old DC (DC01)? And if so, if I transfer Schema master and Domain naming master roles to DC1 what is the risk or breaking my AD? I'm a little paranoid because this process HAS to be transparent. ANY down time or interruption will result in me getting a verbal ass kicking from my I.T. Director. Both of the new servers DNS point the the old DNS servers (DC01 and DC02) not themselves by the way. Thanks in Advance -Chris

    Read the article

  • (rsErrorOpeningConnection) Could not obtain information about Windows NT group/user

    - by ChelleATL
    I am trying to deploy a report to the Reporting Services Server but keep running up against this error: An error occurred during client rendering. An error has occurred during report processing. (rsProcessingAborted) Cannot create a connection to data source 'dataSource1'. (rsErrorOpeningConnection) Could not obtain information about Windows NT group/user 'DOMAIN\useradmin', error code 0x5. Here’s my situation: Everything is being ran using DOMAIN\useradmin and the report is using a remote database. Reporting Services and SQL Server are both ran under DOMAIN\useradmin. DOMAIN\useradmin is a windows AD login and is part of the server machine Administrators group. My test report is using a data source model that in turn is using a data source that is connection to a database on a different SQL Server. The data source is using “Credentials stored securely in the report server” with the options “Use as Windows credentials when connecting to the data source” and “Impersonate the authenticated user after a connection has been made to the data source.” I am using the credentials of DOMAIN\useradmin that is the db owner of the remote database. DOMAIN\useradmin is assigned the roles, System Administrator, System User and Browser, Content Manager, My Reports, Publisher, Report Builder. So if everything is being run under an über AD account, why I am getting this Could not obtain information about Windows NT group/user 'DOMAIN\useradmin' error? Under normal circumstances , an AD login with Publisher permissions will developing reports using a datasource model created by DOMAIN\useradmin but using one of the remote database’s users which is mapped from yet another AD login. I ran the following statements and non errors were returned: use master go xp_grantlogin 'DOMAIN\useradmin' go xp_logininfo 'DOMAIN\useradmin' go

    Read the article

  • Hibernate triggering constraint violations using orphanRemoval

    - by ptomli
    I'm having trouble with a JPA/Hibernate (3.5.3) setup, where I have an entity, an "Account" class, which has a list of child entities, "Contact" instances. I'm trying to be able to add/remove instances of Contact into a List<Contact> property of Account. Adding a new instance into the set and calling saveOrUpdate(account) persists everything lovely. If I then choose to remove the contact from the list and again call saveOrUpdate, the SQL Hibernate seems to produce involves setting the account_id column to null, which violates a database constraint. What am I doing wrong? The code below is clearly a simplified abstract but I think it covers the problem as I'm seeing the same results in different code, which really is about this simple. SQL: CREATE TABLE account ( INT account_id ); CREATE TABLE contact ( INT contact_id, INT account_id REFERENCES account (account_id) ); Java: @Entity class Account { @Id @Column public Long id; @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, orphanRemoval = true) @JoinColumn(name = "account_id") public List<Contact> contacts; } @Entity class Contact { @Id @Column public Long id; @ManyToOne(optional = false) @JoinColumn(name = "account_id", nullable = false) public Account account; } Account account = new Account(); Contact contact = new Contact(); account.contacts.add(contact); saveOrUpdate(account); // some time later, like another servlet request.... account.contacts.remove(contact); saveOrUpdate(account); Result: UPDATE contact SET account_id = null WHERE contact_id = ? Edit #1: It might be that this is actually a bug http://opensource.atlassian.com/projects/hibernate/browse/HHH-5091

    Read the article

  • Why does the page posts take so long?

    - by Olle
    Hi! I am having some problems with some page post backs that take a loooong time to execute. If I do a "appcmd list requests" I can get something like this: REQUEST "79000001800004e3" (url:POST /dir/file.aspx, time:87219 msec, client:xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx, stage:ExecuteRequestHandler, module:ManagedPipelineHandler) REQUEST "8600000080002f82" (url:POST /dir/file.aspx, time:61391 msec, client:xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx, stage:AcquireRequestState, module:Session) REQUEST "5e00010280000420" (url:POST /dir/file.aspx, time:21047 msec, client:xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx, stage:AcquireRequestState, module:Session) It's one particular file that causes the problem (dir/file.aspx in this case). It comes from the same IP-adress. And the first on is from ManagedPipelineHandler module and the two after that from Session module. I do not have any details about the web browser, or anything more about the client for that matter. I have looked for sql dead locks and did not find any. There are no long running sql queries at all. Do you have any idea of what can be the problem? Regards.

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net Forms authentication provider issue

    - by George2
    Hello everyone, I am using VSTS 2008 + .Net 3.5 + ASP.Net to develop a simple web application. And I am using Forms authentication for my web site (I use command aspnet_regsql.exe to create a new database in SQL Server 2008 Enterprise to host database for Forms Authentication. I am not using SQL Server Express.). I am learning Forms authentication from here, http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff648345.aspx#paght000022_usingthesqlmembershipprovider my question is for the name of membership defaultProvider, the value must be "SqlProvider"? Or I can use any arbitrary name, for example like this (I replace the value "SqlProvider" to "MyTestSqlProvider")? <connectionStrings> <add name="MySqlConnection" connectionString="Data Source=MySqlServer;Initial Catalog=aspnetdb;Integrated Security=SSPI;" /> </connectionStrings> <system.web> ... <membership defaultProvider="MyTestSqlProvider" userIsOnlineTimeWindow="15"> <providers> <clear /> <add name="MyTestSqlProvider" type="System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider" connectionStringName="MySqlConnection" applicationName="MyApplication" enablePasswordRetrieval="false" enablePasswordReset="true" requiresQuestionAndAnswer="true" requiresUniqueEmail="true" passwordFormat="Hashed" /> </providers> </membership> thanks in advance, George

    Read the article

  • How Can I Find Out *HOW* My Site Was Hacked? How Do I Find Site Vulnerabilities?

    - by Imageree
    One of my custom developed ASP.NET sites was hacked today: "Hacked By Swan (Please Stop Wars !.. )" It is using ASP.NET and SQL Server 2005 and IIS 6.0 and Windows 2003 server. I am not using Ajax and I think I am using stored procedures everywhere I am connecting to the database so I dont think it is SQL injection. I have now removed the write permission on the folders. How can I find out what they did to hack the site and what to do to prevent it from happening again? The server is up to date with all Windows updates. What they have done is uploading 6 files (index.asp, index.html, index.htm,...) to the main directory for the website. What log files should I upload? I have log files for IIS from this folder: c:\winnt\system32\LogFiles\W3SVC1. I am willing to show it to some of you but don't think it is good to post on the Internet. Anyone willing to take a look at it? I have already searched on Google but the only thing I find there are other sites that have been hacked - I haven't been able to see any discussion about it. I know this is not strictly related to programming but this is still an important thing for programmers and a lot of programmers have been hacked like this.

    Read the article

  • php json jquery and select box

    - by user253530
    I have this php code $jsonArray = array(); $sql = "SELECT ID,CLIENT FROM PLD_SERVERS"; $result = mysql_query($sql); while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $jsonArray[] = array('id'=>$row['ID'],'client'=>$row['CLIENT']); } echo json_encode($jsonArray); And this js function autosearchLoadServers() { $.post("php/autosearch-load-servers.php",function(data){ var toAppend = ""; for(var i = 0; i < data.length; i++){ toAppend += '<option value = \"' + data[i].id + '\">' + data[i].client + '</option>'; } $("#serverSelect").empty(); $("#serverSelect").html(toAppend); }); } The problem is that i get only undefined values. How can this be? The values are in the JSON, i checked using firebug in mozilla so there has to be something with the data variable but i can't understand what. I tried different ways and no results.

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework 4 and SYSUTCDATETIME ()

    - by GIbboK
    Hi, I use EF4 and C#. I have a Table in my DataBase (MS SQL 2008) with a default value for a column SYSUTCDATETIME (). The Idea is to automatically add Date and Time as soon as a new record is Created. I create my Conceptual Model using EF4, and I have created an ASP.PAGE with a DetailsView Control in INSERT MODE. My problems: When I create a new Record. EF is not able to insert the actual Date and Time value but it inserts instead this value 0001-01-01 00:00:00.00. I suppose the EF is not able to use SYSUTCDATETIME () defined in my DataBase Any idea how to solve it? Thanks Here my SQL script CREATE TABLE dbo.CmsAdvertisers ( AdvertiserId int NOT NULL IDENTITY CONSTRAINT PK_CmsAdvertisers_AdvertiserId PRIMARY KEY, DateCreated dateTime2(2) NOT NULL CONSTRAINT DF_CmsAdvertisers_DateCreated DEFAULT sysutcdatetime (), ReferenceAdvertiser varchar(64) NOT NULL, NoteInternal nvarchar(256) NOT NULL CONSTRAINT DF_CmsAdvertisers_NoteInternal DEFAULT '' ); My Temporary solution: Please guys help me on this e.Values["DateCreated"] = DateTime.UtcNow; More info here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb387157.aspx How to use the default Entity Framework and default date values http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd296755.aspx

    Read the article

  • SubSonic 3.0 Simple Repository Adding a DateTime Property To An Object

    - by Blounty
    I am trying out SubSonic to see if it is viable to use on production projects. I seem to have stumbled upon an issue whith regards to updating the database with default values (String and DateTime) when a new column is created. If a new property of DateTime or String is added to an object. public class Bug { public int BugId { get; set; } public string Title { get; set; } public string Overview { get; set; } public DateTime TrackedDate { get; set; } public DateTime RemovedDate { get; set; } } When the code to add that type of object to the database is run var repository = new SimpleRepository(SimpleRepositoryOptions.RunMigrations); repository.Add(new Bug() { Title = "A Bug", Overview = "An Overview", TrackedDate = DateTime.Now }); it creates the following sql: UPDATE Bugs SET RemovedDate=''01/01/1900 00:00:00'' For some reason it is adding double 2 single quotes to each end of the string or DateTime. This is causing the following error: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException - Incorrect syntax near '01' I am connecting to SQL Server 2005 Any help would be appreicated as apart from this issue i am finding SubSonic to be a great product. I have created a screen cast of my error here:

    Read the article

  • How to run crontab-e?

    - by user1723760
    I am currently reading this documentation here where I want to use CRON. Now it says in the first section that I need to enter in a command: crontab -e. Do I only need to enter this in a simple text editor file and just upload the file into the server? I am using helios.hud.ac.uk so would this be the correct command: * * 25 10 * helios.hud.ac.uk/u00000000/Mobile/inactivatesession.php This will execute this php script below (inactivatesession.php): <?php include('connect.php'); $createDate = mktime(0,0,0,10,25,date("Y")); $selectedDate = date('d-m-Y', ($createDate)); $sql = "UPDATE Session SET Active = ? WHERE DATE_FORMAT(SessionDate,'%Y-%m-%d' ) <= ?"; $update = $mysqli->prepare($sql); $update->bind_param("is", 0, $selectedDate); $update->execute(); ?> The url for this php script is: helios.hud.ac.uk/u00000000/Mobile/inactivatesession.php I havn't used CRON before so just need little help on it. Thanks

    Read the article

  • sqlite3 - stringWithUTF8String is leaking!

    - by Darko Hebrang
    I would appreciate if someone could help me solve my leaking problem. The leaks occur at: aImage, aCategory, aDescription, category and categories. I release them in dealloc, but obviously that is not sufficient: -(void) readListFromDatabase:(char *) sqlStatement { // Setup some globals databaseName = @"mydatabase.sql"; // Get the path to the documents directory and append the databaseName NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDir = [documentPaths objectAtIndex:0]; databasePath = [documentsDir stringByAppendingPathComponent:databaseName]; // Setup the database object sqlite3 *database; // Init the categories Array categories = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Open the database from the users filessytem if(sqlite3_open([databasePath UTF8String], &database) == SQLITE_OK) { // Setup the SQL Statement and compile it for faster access sqlite3_stmt *compiledStatement; if(sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, sqlStatement, -1, &compiledStatement, NULL) == SQLITE_OK) { // Loop through the results and add them to the feeds array while(sqlite3_step(compiledStatement) == SQLITE_ROW) { // Read the data from the result row aImage = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(compiledStatement, 0)]; aCategory = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(compiledStatement, 1)]; aDescription = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(compiledStatement, 2)]; // Create a new category object with the data from the database category=[[Category alloc] initWithName:aImage category_name:aCategory description_text:aDescription]; // Add the category object to the categories Array [categories addObject:category]; [category release]; } } // Release the compiled statement from memory sqlite3_finalize(compiledStatement); } sqlite3_close(database); } - (void)dealloc { [databaseName release]; [databasePath release]; [categories release]; [aImage release]; [aCategory release]; [aDescription release]; [category release]; [super dealloc]; }

    Read the article

  • Cannot read value from SYS_CONTEXT

    - by AppleGrew
    I have a PL/SQL procedure which sets some variable in user session, like the following:- Dbms_Session.Set_Context( NAMESPACE =>'MY_CTX', ATTRIBUTE => 'FLAG_NAME', Value => 'some value'); Just after this (in the same procedure), I try to read the value of this flag, using:- SYS_CONTEXT('MY_CTX', 'FLAG_NAME'); The above returns nothing. How did the DB lose this value? The weirder part is that if I invoke this proc directly from Oracle SQL Developer then it works. It doesn't work when I invoke this proc from my web application from callable statement. --EDIT-- Added an example as to how we are invoking the proc from our Java code. String statement = "Begin package_name.proc_name( flag_val => :1); END;"; OracleCallableStatement st = <some object by some framework> .createCallableStatement(statement); st.setString(1, 'flag value'); st.execute(); st.close();

    Read the article

  • LINQ Query please help C#.Net.

    - by Paul Matthews
    I'm very new to LINQ and struggling to find the answers. I have a simple SQL query. Select ID, COUNT(ID) as Selections, OptionName, SUM(Units) as Units FROM tbl_Results GROUP BY ID, OptionName. The results I got were: '1' '4' 'Approved' '40' '2' '1' 'Rejected' '19' '3' '2' 'Not Decided' '12' Due to having to encrypt all my data in the database I'm unable to do sums. Therefore I have now brought back the data and decrypt it in the application layer. Results would be: '1' 'Approved' '10' '3' 'Not Deceided' '6' '2' 'Rejected' '19' '1' 'Approved' '15' '1' 'Approved' '5' '3' 'Not Deceided' '6' '1' 'Approved' '10' using a simple class I have called back the above results, and put them in a list class. public class results { public int ID {get;set;} public string OptionName {get;set;} public int Unit {get;set;} } I almost have the LINQ query to bring back the results like the SQL query at the top var q = from r in Results group p.Unit by p.ID int g select new {ID = g.Key, Selections = g.Count(), Units = g.Sum()}; How do I ensure my LINQ query also give me the Option Name? Also if I created a class called Statistics to hold my results how would I modify the LINQ query to give me list result set? public class results { public int ID {get;set;} public int NumberOfSelections { get; set; } public string OptionName {get;set;} public int UnitTotal {get;set;} }

    Read the article

  • Why do I get "Error 6060" when I try to use DBD::Advantage with a 64-bit perl on Linux?

    - by WarheadsSE
    I realize that I am attempting to go beyond the "supported" behavior of the manf's released drivers for Perl, after all they have only released it in package with x86 .so's. However, since I cannot use their package with x64 Perl on a RHEL 5.4 x86_64 box, and maintaining a seperate install of x86 Perl just for this one package, I have made an attempt to get this puppy working thanks to released 64-bit .so's that accompany other driver packages for Advantage. What I have done to this point: download beta 10 DBI drivers, in 32 download beta 10 PHP extension (it contains 32 and x86_64) copy the required DLLs into the ads-lib location (eg /usr/local/ads/lib64) compile the Perl DBI driver with the path to the lib64's .so's Good compilation, good install, good use. The problem is that I always get : failed: [iAnywhere Solutions][Advantage SQL][ASA] Error 6060: Advantage Database Server not available on specified server. axServerConnect (SQL-HY000)(DBD: db_login/SQLConnect err=-1) Does anyone have any ideas? EDIT: fixed package name in post title EDIT: Updated title. It appears that it's not just the x64 perl, but the RHEL 5.4 underneath that may be interfering. As commented below, I managed to shoe-horn a x86 perl onto the system, and compile the DBD::Advantage 9.99, and later replacing that with 9.10, and none of these x86 would connect either. Neither library (9.99 or 9.10) in either bit-edness will connect from this x86_64 server to the windows server's UNC path. I have successfully mounted this share without problems, but still I cannot seem to connect to the 9.1. I have tried: \hostname\PATH \FQDN\PATH \IP\PATH and all of these variations with the port (default) 6262 included. My windows machine connects fine, with both 9.1 and 9.99 from strawberry perl.

    Read the article

  • Which SCM/VCS cope well with moving text between files?

    - by pfctdayelise
    We are having havoc with our project at work, because our VCS is doing some awful merging when we move information across files. The scenario is thus: You have lots of files that, say, contain information about terms from a dictionary, so you have a file for each letter of the alphabet. Users entering terms blindly follow the dictionary order, so they will put an entry like "kick the bucket" under B if that is where the dictionary happened to list it (or it might have been listed under both B, bucket and K, kick). Later, other users move the terms to their correct files. Lots of work is being done on the dictionary terms all the time. e.g. User A may have taken the B file and elaborated on the "kick the bucket" entry. User B took the B and K files, and moved the "kick the bucket" entry to the K file. Whichever order they end up getting committed in, the VCS will probably lose entries and not "figure out" that an entry has been moved. (These entries are later automatically converted to an SQL database. But they are kept in a "human friendly" form for working on them, with lots of comments, examples etc. So it is not acceptable to say "make your users enter SQL directly".) It is so bad that we have taken to almost manually merging these kinds of files now, because we can't trust our VCS. :( So what is the solution? I would love to hear that there is a VCS that could cope with this. Or a better merge algorithm? Or otherwise, maybe someone can suggest a better workflow or file arrangement to try and avoid this problem?

    Read the article

  • delayed_job :run_at is not working. all jobs set to run at current time

    - by jtwg
    I have installed the collectiveidea fork for delayed_job at git://github.com/collectiveidea/delayed_job.git but cannot get it to accept :run_at from my gemfile gem 'rails', '3.2.2' gem 'delayed_job_active_record' when I try it in the console 1.9.2-p318 :005 > Time.now => 2012-03-24 10:20:34 -0700 1.9.2-p318 :006 > User.delay.new :run_at => 5.days.from_now SQL (0.1ms) BEGIN SQL (1.6ms) INSERT INTO `delayed_jobs` (`attempts`, `created_at`, `failed_at`, `handler`, `last_error`, `locked_at`, `locked_by`, `priority`, `run_at`, `updated_at`) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?) [["attempts", 0], ["created_at", Sat, 24 Mar 2012 17:20:36 UTC +00:00], ["failed_at", nil], ["handler", "--- !ruby/object:Delayed::PerformableMethod\nobject: !ruby/class 'User'\nmethod_name: :new\nargs:\n- :run_at: 2012-03-29 17:20:36.876374000Z\n"], ["last_error", nil], ["locked_at", nil], ["locked_by", nil], ["priority", 0], ["run_at", Sat, 24 Mar 2012 17:20:36 UTC +00:00], ["updated_at", Sat, 24 Mar 2012 17:20:36 UTC +00:00]] (2.7ms) COMMIT => #<Delayed::Backend::ActiveRecord::Job id: 17, priority: 0, attempts: 0, handler: "--- !ruby/object:Delayed::PerformableMethod\nobject:...", last_error: nil, run_at: "2012-03-24 17:20:36", locked_at: nil, failed_at: nil, locked_by: nil, created_at: "2012-03-24 17:20:36", updated_at: "2012-03-24 17:20:36"> I see there is some UTC offset in the runtime, but based on Time.now, I can tell run_at is not going forward by 5 days. "run_at", Sat, 24 Mar 2012 17:20:36 UTC +00:00 Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • resource-ref at application scope in EJB 2.1 Project

    - by Mike Deck
    Is it possible to define resource references that are applicable to all EJBs in an application? Currently I have an ejb-jar.xml that looks something like this: <ejb-jar> <enterprise-beans> <session id="foo"> <!-- snip --> <resource-ref> <res-ref-name>jdbc/myDatasource</res-ref-name> <res-type>javax.sql.DataSource</res-type> <res-auth>Container</res-auth> </resource-ref> </session> <session id="bar"> <!-- snip --> <resource-ref> <res-ref-name>jdbc/myDatasource</res-ref-name> <res-type>javax.sql.DataSource</res-type> <res-auth>Container</res-auth> </resource-ref> </session> </enterprise-beans> </ejb-jar> You'll notice that both EJBs have the same resource-ref defined for both of them. Is there a way to factor this duplication out within a J2EE 1.4 application? Ideally I should be able to define the jdbc/myDatasource resource once within the application and have anything running inside that container be able to access it by doing a JNDI lookup for "java:comp/env/jdbc/myDatasource". Is there any way to accomplish this?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 889 890 891 892 893 894 895 896 897 898 899 900  | Next Page >