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  • Union struct produces garbage and general question about struct nomenclature

    - by SoulBeaver
    I read about unions the other day( today ) and tried the sample functions that came with them. Easy enough, but the result was clear and utter garbage. The first example is: union Test { int Int; struct { char byte1; char byte2; char byte3; char byte4; } Bytes; }; where an int is assumed to have 32 bits. After I set a value Test t; t.Int = 7; and then cout cout << t.Bytes.byte1 << etc... the individual bytes, there is nothing displayed, but my computer beeps. Which is fairly odd I guess. The second example gave me even worse results. union SwitchEndian { unsigned short word; struct { unsigned char hi; unsigned char lo; } data; } Switcher; Looks a little wonky in my opinion. Anyway, from the description it says, this should automatically store the result in a high/little endian format when I set the value like Switcher.word = 7656; and calling with cout << Switcher.data.hi << endl The result of this were symbols not even defined in the ASCII chart. Not sure why those are showing up. Finally, I had an error when I tried correcting the example by, instead of placing Bytes at the end of the struct, positioning it right next to it. So instead of struct {} Bytes; I wanted to write struct Bytes {}; This tossed me a big ol' error. What's the difference between these? Since C++ cannot have unnamed structs it seemed, at the time, pretty obvious that the Bytes positioned at the beginning and at the end are the things that name it. Except no, that's not the entire answer I guess. What is it then?

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  • How to run a powershell script within a DOS batch file

    - by Don Vince
    How do I have a powershell script embedded within the same file as a DOS batch script? I know this kind of thing is possible in other scenarios: Embedding SQL in a DOS batch script using sqlcmd and a clever arrangements of goto's and comments at the beginning of the file In a *nix environment having a the name of the program you wish to run the script with on the first line of the script commented out e.g. #!/usr/local/bin/python There may not be a way to do this - in which case I will have to call the separate powershell script from the launching DOS script. One possible solution I've considered is to echo out the powershell script, and then run it. A good reason to not do this is that part of the reason to attempt this is to be using the advantages of the powershell environment without the pain of, for example, DOS escape characters I have some unusual constraints and would like to find an elegant solution. I suspect this question may be baiting responses of the variety: "why don't you try and solve this different problem instead." Suffice to say these are my constraints, sorry about that. Any ideas? Is there a suitable combination of clever comments and escape characters that will enable me to achieve this? Some thoughts on how to achieve this: A carat ^ at the end of a line in DOS is a continuation - like an underscore in VB An ampersand & in DOS typically is used to separate commands echo Hello & echo World results in 2 echos on separate lines %0 will give you the script that's currently running So something like this (if I could make it work) would be good: # & call powershell -psconsolefile %0 # & goto :EOF /* From here on in we're running nice juicy powershell code */ Write-Output "Hello World" Except... It doesn't work... because the extension of the file isn't as per powershell's liking: Windows PowerShell console file "insideout.bat" extension is not psc1. Windows PowerShell console file extension must be psc1. DOS isn't really altogether happy with the situation either - although it does stumble on '#' is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file.

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  • Metro UsernameToken Policy

    - by Rodney
    I created a web services client prototype using api's available in weblogic 10.3. I've been told I need to use Metro 2.0 instead (it's already being used for other projects). The problem I have encounter is that the WSDL does not include any Security Policy information but a UsernameToken is required for each method call. In weblogic I was able to write my own policy xml file and instantiate my service with it (see below), however I can not seem to figure out how to do the same using Metro. Policy.xml <?xml version="1.0"?> <wsp:Policy xmlns:wsp="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/ws/2004/09/policy" xmlns:sp="http://docs.oasis-open.org/ws-sx/ws-securitypolicy/200512"> <sp:SupportingTokens> <wsp:Policy> <sp:UsernameToken sp:IncludeToken="http://docs.oasis-open.org/ws-sx/ws-securitypolicy/200512/IncludeToken/AlwaysToRecipient"> <wsp:Policy> <sp:WssUsernameToken10/> <sp:HashPassword/> </wsp:Policy> </sp:UsernameToken> </wsp:Policy> </sp:SupportingTokens> </wsp:Policy> Client.java (Weblogic) ClientPolicyFeature cpf = new ClientPolicyFeature(); InputStream asStream = WebServiceSoapClient.class.getResourceAsStream("Policy.xml"); cpf.setEffectivePolicy(new InputStreamPolicySource(asStream)); try { webService = new WebService(new URL("http://192.168.1.10/WebService/WebService.asmx?wsdl"), new QName("http://testme.com", "WebService")); } catch ( MalformedURLException e ) { e.printStackTrace(); } WebServiceSoap client = webService.getWebServiceSoap(new WebServiceFeature[] {cpf}); List<CredentialProvider> credProviders = new ArrayList<CredentialProvider>(); String username = "user"; String password = "pass"; CredentialProvider cp = new ClientUNTCredentialProvider(username.getBytes(), password.getBytes()); credProviders.add(cp); Map<String, Object> rc = ((BindingProvider) client).getRequestContext(); rc.put(WSSecurityContext.CREDENTIAL_PROVIDER_LIST, credProviders); ... I am able to generate my Proxy classes using Metro however I can not figure out how to configure it to send the UsernameToken. I have attempted several different examples from the web which have not worked. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Flash -> ByteArray -> AMFPHP -> Invalid Image !??

    - by undefined
    Hi, Im loading images into Flash and using JPGEncoder to encode the image to a ByteArray and send this to AMF PHP which writes out the bytearray to a file. This all appears to work correctly and I can download the resulting file in Photoshop CS4 absolutely fine. When i try to open it from the desktop or open it back in Flash it doesnt work... Picasa my default image browser says "Invalid" Here is the code i use to write the bytearray to a file - $jpg = $GLOBALS["HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA"]; file_put_contents($filename, $jpg); That's it ... I use the NetConnection class to connect and call the service, do I need to say Im sending jpg data? I assumed that JPGEncoder took care of that. How can I validate the bytearray before writing the file? Do I need to set MIME type or something .. excuse the slightly noob questions, a little knowledge can be a dangerous thing. Thanks --------------------------------------- PART II ------------------------------------------ Here is some code - 1) load the image into Flash player item.load(); function _onImageDataLoaded(evt:Event):void { var tmpFileRef:FileReference=FileReference(evt.target); image_loader=new Loader ; image_loader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, _onImageLoaded); image_loader.loadBytes(tmpFileRef.data); } function _onImageLoaded(evt:Event):void { bitmap=Bitmap(evt.target.content); bitmap.smoothing=true; if (bitmap.width>MAX_WIDTH||bitmap.height>MAX_HEIGHT) { resizeBitmap(bitmap); } uploadResizedImage(bitmap); } function resizeBitmap(target:Bitmap):void { if (target.height>target.width) { target.width=MAX_WIDTH; target.scaleY=target.scaleX; } else if (target.width >= target.height) { target.height=MAX_HEIGHT; target.scaleX=target.scaleY; } } function uploadResizedImage(target:Bitmap):void { var _bmd:BitmapData=new BitmapData(target.width,target.height); _bmd.draw(target, new Matrix(target.scaleX, 0, 0, target.scaleY)); var encoded_jpg:JPGEncoder=new JPGEncoder(90); var jpg_binary:ByteArray=encoded_jpg.encode(_bmd); _uploadService=new NetConnection(); _uploadService.objectEncoding=ObjectEncoding.AMF3 _uploadService.connect("http://.../amfphp/gateway.php"); _uploadService.call("UploadService.receiveByteArray",new Responder(success, error), jpg_binary, currentImageFilename); } Many thanks for you help

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  • Does writing data to server using Java URL class require response from server?

    - by gigadot
    I am trying to upload files using Java URL class and I have found a previous question on stack-overflow which explains very well about the details, so I try to follow it. And below is my code adopted from the sniplet given in the answer. My problem is that if I don't make a call to one of connection.getResponseCode() or connection.getInputStream() or connection.getResponseMessage() or anything which is related to reponse from the server, the request will never be sent to server. Why do I need to do this? Or is there any way to write the data without getting the response? P.S. I have developed a server-side uploading servlet which accepts multipart/form-data and save it to files using FileUpload. It is stable and definitely working without any problem so this is not where my problem is generated. import java.io.Closeable; import java.io.File; import java.io.FileInputStream; import java.io.IOException; import java.io.OutputStream; import java.io.PrintWriter; import java.net.HttpURLConnection; import java.net.URL; import org.apache.commons.io.IOUtils; public class URLUploader { public static void closeQuietly(Closeable... objs) { for (Closeable closeable : objs) { IOUtils.closeQuietly(closeable); } } public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException { File textFile = new File("D:\\file.zip"); String boundary = Long.toHexString(System.currentTimeMillis()); // Just generate some unique random value. HttpURLConnection connection = (HttpURLConnection) new URL("http://localhost:8080/upslet/upload").openConnection(); connection.setDoOutput(true); connection.setRequestProperty("Content-Type", "multipart/form-data; boundary=" + boundary); OutputStream output = output = connection.getOutputStream(); PrintWriter writer = writer = new PrintWriter(output, true); // Send text file. writer.println("--" + boundary); writer.println("Content-Disposition: form-data; name=\"file1\"; filename=\"" + textFile.getName() + "\""); writer.println("Content-Type: application/octet-stream"); FileInputStream fin = new FileInputStream(textFile); writer.println(); IOUtils.copy(fin, output); writer.println(); // End of multipart/form-data. writer.println("--" + boundary + "--"); output.flush(); closeQuietly(fin, writer, output); // Above request will never be sent if .getInputStream() or .getResponseCode() or .getResponseMessage() does not get called. connection.getResponseCode(); } }

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  • Auto-scaffolding an "index" view in ASP.NET MVC

    - by DanM
    I'm trying to write an auto-scaffolder for Index views. I'd like to be able to pass in a collection of models or view-models (e.g., IQueryable<MyViewModel>) and get back an HTML table that uses the DisplayName attribute for the headings (th elements) and Html.Display(propertyName) for the cells (td elements). Each row should correspond to one item in the collection. Here's what I have so far: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <% var items = (IQueryable<TestProj.ViewModels.TestViewModel>)Model; // Should be generic! var properties = items.First().GetMetadata().Properties .Where(pm => pm.ShowForDisplay && !ViewData.TemplateInfo.Visited(pm)); %> <table> <tr> <% foreach(var property in properties) { %> <th> <%= property.DisplayName %> </th> <% } %> </tr> <% foreach(var item in items) { %> <tr> <% foreach(var property in properties) { %> <td> <%= Html.Display(property.DisplayName) %> // This doesn't work! </td> <% } %> </tr> <% } %> </table> Two problems with this: I'd like it to be generic. So, I'd like to replace var items = (IQueryable<TestProj.ViewModels.TestViewModel>)Model; with var items = (IQueryable<T>)Model; or something to that effect. The <td> elements are not working because the Html in <%= Html.Display(property.DisplayName) %> contains the model for the view, which is a collection of items, not the item itself. Somehow, I need to obtain an HtmlHelper object whose Model property is the current item, but I'm not sure how to do that. How do I solve these two problems?

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  • XmlReader throws on an RSS feed, when the RSS document includes an embedded <script> block.

    - by Cheeso
    The code: using (XmlReader xmlr = XmlReader.Create(new StringReader(allXml))) { var items = from item in SyndicationFeed.Load(xmlr).Items select item; } The exception: Exception: System.Xml.XmlException: Unexpected node type Element. ReadElementString method can only be called on elements with simple or empty content. Line 11, position 25. at System.Xml.XmlReader.ReadElementString() at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Rss20FeedFormatter.ReadXml(XmlReader reader, SyndicationFeed result) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Rss20FeedFormatter.ReadFeed(XmlReader reader) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Rss20FeedFormatter.ReadFrom(XmlReader reader) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.SyndicationFeed.Load[TSyndicationFeed](XmlReader reader) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.SyndicationFeed.Load(XmlReader reader) at Ionic.ToolsAndTests.ReadRss.Run() in c:\dev\dotnet\ReadRss.cs:line 90 The XML content: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <?xml-stylesheet type="text/xsl" href="https://www.ibm.com/developerworks/mydeveloperworks/blogs/roller-ui/styles/rss.xsl" media="screen"?><rss version="2.0" xmlns:dc="http://purl.org/dc/elements/1.1/" xmlns:atom="http://www.w3.org/2005/Atom" > <channel> <title>Software architecture, software engineering, and Renaissance Jazz</title> <link>https://www.ibm.com/developerworks/mydeveloperworks/blogs/gradybooch</link> <atom:link rel="self" type="application/rss+xml" href="https://www.ibm.com/developerworks/mydeveloperworks/blogs/gradybooch/feed/entries/rss?lang=en" /> <description>Software architecture, software engineering, and Renaissance Jazz</description> <language>en-us</language> <copyright>Copyright <script type='text/javascript'> document.write(blogsDate.date.localize (1273534889181));</script></copyright> <lastBuildDate>Mon, 10 May 2010 19:41:29 -0400</lastBuildDate> As you can see, on line 11, at position 25, there's a script block inside the <copyright> element. Other people have reported similar errors with other XML documents. The way I worked around this was to do a StreamReader.ReadToEnd, then do Regex.Replace on the result of that to yank out the script block, before passing the modified string to XmlReader.Create(). Feels like a hack. Has anyone got a better approach? I don't like this because I have to read in a 125k string into memory. Is it valid rss to include "complex content" like that - a script block inside an element? Thanks.

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  • Limit for Google calendar SMS notification per day

    - by pit777
    What is the limit for Google calendar SMS notification per day? How to detect I reached sms limit? Google write only this: http://www.google.com/support/calendar/bin/answer.py?hl=en&answer=36589 You might have reached the limit for SMS notifications. There is a limit to the number of SMS notifications you can receive each day. This limit shouldn't affect most users, but it's something to keep in mind if you've scheduled a large number of events and are no longer receiving SMS notifications. I created sms reminder based on google calendar api(apps-script), but I think now I reached the daily limit for SMS notifications... but google not informed what is exactly amount of sms limit restriction :/ function emailNotification() { // POWIADOMIENIA SMS O NOWEJ POCZCIE var calendarID = "[email protected]"; // id kalendarza o nazwie „sms4email” var gmailLabelTODO = "autoscriptslabels/sms"; // etykieta „AutoScriptsLabels/SMS” var gmailLabelDONE = "done/_sms"; // etykieta „DONE/_SMS” var calendarEventDescription = "this-is-sms_notification-mark"; // etykieta utworzonego zdarzenia, dzieki której mozna bedzie je znalezc podczas kasowania var calendar = CalendarApp.getCalendarById(calendarID); // otwieramy kalendarz var threads = GmailApp.getUserLabelByName(gmailLabelTODO).getThreads(); // zmienna przechowujaca kolekcje lancuszków z etykieta TODO var now = new Date(); if(threads == 0) return; // zaprzestanie wykonywania, jezeli brak nowych lancuszków for(i in threads) // tworzymy zdarzenia { var title = threads[i].getFirstMessageSubject(); // tytul emaila var startDate = new Date(now.getTime()+120000); var endDate = new Date(now.getTime()+120000); var messages = threads[i].getMessages(); var senderEmail = messages[0].getFrom(); // nadawca emaila var advancedArgs = {location:senderEmail, description:calendarEventDescription}; calendar.createEvent(title, startDate, endDate, advancedArgs); } Utilities.sleep(1000); GmailApp.getUserLabelByName(gmailLabelDONE).addToThreads(threads); // dodawanie etykiety DONE Utilities.sleep(1000); GmailApp.getUserLabelByName(gmailLabelTODO).removeFromThreads(threads); // usuwanie etykiety TODO Utilities.sleep(120000); // czekamy az kalendarz wysle SMS var TodaysEvents = calendar.getEventsForDay(now); for (i in TodaysEvents) // wyszukiwanie wedlug zdarzenia i kasowanie po wyslaniu { if (TodaysEvents[i].getDescription()==calendarEventDescription) TodaysEvents[i].deleteEvent(); } }

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  • Nhibernate one-to-many with table per subclass

    - by Wayne
    I am customizing N2CMS's database structure, and met with an issue. The two classes are listed below. public class Customer : ContentItem { public IList<License> Licenses { get; set; } } public class License : ContentItem { public Customer Customer { get; set; } } The nhibernate mapping are as follows. <class name="N2.ContentItem,N2" table="n2item"> <cache usage="read-write" /> <id name="ID" column="ID" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0" access="property"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <discriminator column="Type" type="String" /> </class> <subclass name="My.Customer,My" extends="N2.ContentItem,N2" discriminator-value="Customer"> <join table="Customer"> <key column="ItemID" /> <bag name="Licenses" generic="true" inverse="true"> <key column="CustomerID" /> <one-to-many class="My.License,My"/> </bag> </join> </subclass> <subclass name="My.License,My" extends="N2.ContentItem,N2" discriminator-value="License"> <join table="License" fetch="select"> <key column="ItemID" /> <many-to-one name="Customer" column="CustomerID" class="My.Customer,My" not-null="false" /> </join> </subclass> Then, when get an instance of Customer, the customer.Licenses is always empty, but actually there are licenses in the database for the customer. When I check the nhibernate log file, I find that the SQL query is like: SELECT licenses0_.CustomerID as CustomerID1_, licenses0_.ID as ID1_, licenses0_.ID as ID2_0_, licenses0_1_.CustomerID as CustomerID7_0_, FROM n2item licenses0_ inner join License licenses0_1_ on licenses0_.ID = licenses0_1_.ItemID WHERE licenses0_.CustomerID = 12 /* @p0 */ It seems that nhibernate believes that the CustomerID is in the 'n2item' table. I don't know why, but to make it work, I think the SQL should be something like this. SELECT licenses0_.ID as ID1_, licenses0_.ID as ID2_0_, licenses0_1_.CustomerID as CustomerID7_0_, FROM n2item licenses0_ inner join License licenses0_1_ on licenses0_.ID = licenses0_1_.ItemID WHERE licenses0_1_.CustomerID = 12 /* @p0 */ Could any one point out what's wrong with my mappings? And how can I get the correct licenses of one customer? Thanks in advance.

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  • Sending double quote character to CreateProcess?

    - by karikari
    I want to send the double quote character to my CreateProcess function. How can I do the correct way? I want to send all of this characters: "%h" CreateProcess(L"C:\\identify -format ",L"\"%h\" trustedsnapshot.png",0,0,TRUE,NORMAL_PRIORITY_CLASS|CREATE_NO_WINDOW,0,0,&sInfo,&pInfo); Here is the full code: int ExecuteExternalFile() { SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES secattr; ZeroMemory(&secattr,sizeof(secattr)); secattr.nLength = sizeof(secattr); secattr.bInheritHandle = TRUE; HANDLE rPipe, wPipe; //Create pipes to write and read data CreatePipe(&rPipe,&wPipe,&secattr,0); STARTUPINFO sInfo; ZeroMemory(&sInfo,sizeof(sInfo)); PROCESS_INFORMATION pInfo; ZeroMemory(&pInfo,sizeof(pInfo)); sInfo.cb=sizeof(sInfo); sInfo.dwFlags=STARTF_USESTDHANDLES; sInfo.hStdInput=NULL; sInfo.hStdOutput=wPipe; sInfo.hStdError=wPipe; CreateProcess(L"C:\\identify",L" -format \"%h\" trustedsnapshot.png",0,0,TRUE,NORMAL_PRIORITY_CLASS|CREATE_NO_WINDOW,0,0,&sInfo,&pInfo); CloseHandle(wPipe); char buf[100]; DWORD reDword; CString m_csOutput,csTemp; BOOL res; do { res=::ReadFile(rPipe,buf,100,&reDword,0); csTemp=buf; m_csOutput+=csTemp.Left(reDword); }while(res); //return m_csOutput; float fvar; //fvar = atof((const char *)(LPCTSTR)(m_csOutput)); ori //fvar=atof((LPCTSTR)m_csOutput); fvar = _tstof(m_csOutput); const size_t len = 256; wchar_t buffer[len] = {}; _snwprintf(buffer, len - 1, L"%d", fvar); MessageBox(NULL, buffer, L"test print createprocess value", MB_OK); return fvar; } I need this function to return the integer value from the CreateProcess.

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  • Validation firing in ASP.NET MVC

    - by rkrauter
    I am lost on this MVC project I am working on. I also read Brad Wilsons article. http://bradwilson.typepad.com/blog/2010/01/input-validation-vs-model-validation-in-aspnet-mvc.html I have this: public class Employee { [Required] public int ID { get; set; } [Required] public string FirstName { get; set; } [Required] public string LastName { get; set; } } and these in a controller: public ActionResult Edit(int id) { var emp = GetEmployee(); return View(emp); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(int id, Employee empBack) { var emp = GetEmployee(); if (TryUpdateModel(emp,new string[] { "LastName"})) { Response.Write("success"); } return View(emp); } public Employee GetEmployee() { return new Employee { FirstName = "Tom", LastName = "Jim", ID = 3 }; } and my view has the following: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <%= Html.ValidationSummary() %> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.FirstName) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.DisplayFor(model => model.FirstName) %> </div> <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.LastName) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxOrLabelFor(model => model.LastName, true)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.LastName) %> </div> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> Note that the only field editable is the LastName. When I postback, I get back the original employee and try to update it with only the LastName property. But but I see on the page is the following error: •The FirstName field is required. This from what I understand, is because the TryUpdateModel failed. But why? I told it to update only the LastName property. I am using MVC2 RTM Thanks in advance.

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  • Can't checkin to Facebook Places by post to api?

    - by MarcusJoe
    Hey everybody, I am trying to build an app where I let my registered user be able to check in to places on Facebook Places. I however for some reason can't seem to make this work. I assumed this is possible with the Api as write functionality has been added to it, but I couldn't find an clear explanation on the web. this is what I currently have, after I have asked the user for permission to publish checkins and for user_checkins. <?php require("src/facebook.php"); $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => 'xxxxxxxxx', 'secret' => 'xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx', 'cookie' => true )); # see if active session $session = $facebook->getSession(); if(!empty($session)) { try{ $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $api_call = array( 'method' => 'users.hasAppPermission', 'uid' => $uid, 'ext_perm' => 'publish_checkins' ); $can_post = $facebook->api($api_call); if($can_post){ $facebook->api('/'.$uid.'/checkins', 'POST', array( 'access_token' => $facebook->getAccessToken(), 'place' => 'place_id', 'message' =>'I went to placename today', 'picture' => 'http://www.place.com/logo.jpg', 'coordinates' => array( 'latitude' => 'lattiude', 'longitude' => 'lattitude', 'tags' => $uid, ) ) ); echo 'You were checked in'; } else { die('Permissions required!'); } } catch (Exception $e){} } else { # There's no active session,generate one $login_url = $facebook->getLoginUrl(); header("Location: ".$login_url); } ?> The code works when I change it 'checkins' to 'feed'. Is there something wrong with my code or am I trying to do somethign that isn't possible (or do it the wrong way). Any help will be greatly appreciated as I already spent quite a significant amount of time trying to fix this, but I just can't seem to make it work. Best regards, Marcus Joe

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  • Any one like me who still believes in AspNet Web forms? Or has evryone switched to MVC

    - by The_AlienCoder
    After years mastering Aspnet webforms I recently decided to try out ASpnet MVC. Naturally my first action was to google 'Aspnet webforms vs Aspnet MVC'. I hoped to get an honest comparison of the two development techniques and guidelines on when to use which one. ..But I was completely turned off by the MVC proponents. In almost every post on the net comparing the two 'platforms' the MVC camp is simply bashing webform developers like me. They go on and on about how wrong and stupid using webforms is. As if what we have been doing the past decade has been pointless - all those websites built(& still running), all those clever controls, the mighty gridview..ALL POINTLESS ! Karl Seguin especially with his stupid webforms rant really turned me off. If his intention was to convert people like me he did the oposite and made me defensive. If anything I am now convinced that the webforms approach is better. consider the following All the critical shortcomings of aspnet webforms have now been Addressed in visual studio 2010 with Aspnet 4.0.- Cleaner html, cleaner control IDs, friendly urls, leaner viewstate etc Why would any one want to implement the mighty gridview and other wonderful controls from scratch ? In MVC you have to do this yourself because ABSTRACTION IS PLAIN STUPID- Instead of writing loops why not just code using 1s and 0s then? A stateless web is a WEAKNESS so why would anyone want to get rid of viewstate? Everyone would like a better implementation but getting rid of it is a step backwards not forward. Unit testing is great but not a critical requirement for most web projects. I thought inline codes were dead with asp. But now they are back and fashionable - Thanks to MVC. I dont know about you people but codebehind was REVOLUTIONARY. Ive had the Ajax Update panel do so many wonderful things without writing a line of code so why demonise it? Ive succesfully implemented a chat client, IM client and Status bar using nothing but the update panel and script manager.Ofcourse you cant use it for everything but most of the time its appropriate. And finally the last word from JQUERY - 'Write less do more !' - That's what webforms is all about ! So Am I the only who still believes in webforms(and it getting better as Aspnet 4.0 has shown) or will it be dead and gone a few years from now like asp? I mean if inline coding is 'the future' why not just switch to PHP !

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  • How to avoid using duplicate savepoint names in nested transactions in nested stored procs?

    - by Gary McGill
    I have a pattern that I almost always follow, where if I need to wrap up an operation in a transaction, I do this: BEGIN TRANSACTION SAVE TRANSACTION TX -- Stuff IF @error <> 0 ROLLBACK TRANSACTION TX COMMIT TRANSACTION That's served me well enough in the past, but after years of using this pattern (and copy-pasting the above code), I've suddenly discovered a flaw which comes as a complete shock. Quite often, I'll have a stored procedure calling other stored procedures, all of which use this same pattern. What I've discovered (to my cost) is that because I'm using the same savepoint name everywhere, I can get into a situation where my outer transaction is partially committed - precisely the opposite of the atomicity that I'm trying to achieve. I've put together an example that exhibits the problem. This is a single batch (no nested stored procs), and so it looks a little odd in that you probably wouldn't use the same savepoint name twice in the same batch, but my real-world scenario would be too confusing to post. CREATE TABLE Test (test INTEGER NOT NULL) BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX INSERT INTO Test(test) VALUES (1) COMMIT TRAN TX BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX INSERT INTO Test(test) VALUES (2) COMMIT TRAN TX DELETE FROM Test ROLLBACK TRAN TX COMMIT TRAN TX SELECT * FROM Test DROP TABLE Test When I execute this, it lists one record, with value "1". In other words, even though I rolled back my outer transaction, a record was added to the table. What's happening is that the ROLLBACK TRANSACTION TX at the outer level is rolling back as far as the last SAVE TRANSACTION TX at the inner level. Now that I write this all out, I can see the logic behind it: the server is looking back through the log file, treating it as a linear stream of transactions; it doesn't understand the nesting/hierarchy implied by either the nesting of the transactions (or, in my real-world scenario, by the calls to other stored procedures). So, clearly, I need to start using unique savepoint names instead of blindly using "TX" everywhere. But - and this is where I finally get to the point - is there a way to do this in a copy-pastable way so that I can still use the same code everywhere? Can I auto-generate the savepoint name on the fly somehow? Is there a convention or best-practice for doing this sort of thing? It's not exactly hard to come up with a unique name every time you start a transaction (could base it off the SP name, or somesuch), but I do worry that eventually there would be a conflict - and you wouldn't know about it because rather than causing an error it just silently destroys your data... :-(

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  • How to quickly acquire and process real time screen output

    - by Akusete
    I am trying to write a program to play a full screen PC game for fun (as an experiment in Computer Vision and Artificial Intelligence). For this experiment I am assuming the game has no underlying API for AI players (nor is the source available) so I intend to process the visual information rendered by the game on the screen. The game runs in full screen mode on a win32 system (direct-X I assume). Currently I am using the win32 functions #include <windows.h> #include <cvaux.h> class Screen { public: HWND windowHandle; HDC windowContext; HBITMAP buffer; HDC bufferContext; CvSize size; uchar* bytes; int channels; Screen () { windowHandle = GetDesktopWindow(); windowContext = GetWindowDC (windowHandle); size = cvSize (GetDeviceCaps (windowContext, HORZRES), GetDeviceCaps (windowContext, VERTRES)); buffer = CreateCompatibleBitmap (windowContext, size.width, size.height); bufferContext = CreateCompatibleDC (windowContext); SelectObject (bufferContext, buffer); channels = 4; bytes = new uchar[size.width * size.height * channels]; } ~Screen () { ReleaseDC(windowHandle, windowContext); DeleteDC(bufferContext); DeleteObject(buffer); delete[] bytes; } void CaptureScreen (IplImage* img) { BitBlt(bufferContext, 0, 0, size.width, size.height, windowContext, 0, 0, SRCCOPY); int n = size.width * size.height; int imgChannels = img->nChannels; GetBitmapBits (buffer, n * channels, bytes); uchar* src = bytes; uchar* dest = (uchar*) img->imageData; uchar* end = dest + n * imgChannels; while (dest < end) { dest[0] = src[0]; dest[1] = src[1]; dest[2] = src[2]; dest += imgChannels; src += channels; } } The rate at which I can process frames using this approach is much to slow. Is there a better way to acquire screen frames?

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  • iPhone app with tab bar and navigation bar as peers

    - by Mac
    I'm trying to write an application that uses a navigation bar and tab bar in what (I'm gathering) is an unusual manner. Basically, I've got several "pages" ("home", "settings", etc) that each have their own tab. I'd also like to have it so that the "home" page is the root view of the navigation bar, and the other pages are the second-level views of the navigation bar. That is, I should be able to navigate to any page by clicking the appropriate tab bar item, and should be able to navigate to the home page from any other page by clicking the navigation bar's back button. Currently, I have a UINavigationBar (through a UINavigationController) and a UITabBar (through a UITabController) as children of a UIView. The various pages' view controllers are set as the tab controller's viewControllers property, and the home page's controller is also set as the navigation controller's root view. Each page view's tag is set to its index in the tab control. I have the following logic in the tab controller's didSelectViewController delegate method: - (void) tabBarController:(UITabBarController*) tabBarController didSelectViewController:(UIViewController*) viewController { if ([navController.viewControllers count] > 1) [navController popViewControllerAnimated:NO]; [navController pushViewController:viewController animated:YES]; } Also, in the navigation controller's didShowViewController delegate method, I have the following code: - (void) navigationController:(UINavigationController *) navigationController didShowViewController:(UIViewController *)viewController animated:(BOOL)animated { tabController.selectedIndex = viewController.view.tag; } The problem that's occurring is that when I run this, the navigation bar, tab bar and home page all display ok, but the tab bar will not respond to input - I cannot select a different tab. I gather it's more usual to have the tab bar as the child of the navigation control, or vice versa. This doesn't seem to fit my approach, because I don't want to have to individually create the subordinate control each time a change occurs in the parent control - eg: recreate tab bar each time the navigation bar changes. Does anyone have suggestions as to what's wrong and how to fix it? I'm probably missing something obvious, but whatever it is I can't seem to find it. Thanks! EDIT: I'm guessing it has something to do with both controller's trying to have ownership of the page controller, but I can't for the life of me figure out a way around it.

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  • MySQL create stored procedure fails but all internal queries succeed alone?

    - by Mark
    Hi all, I just created a simple database in MySQL, and I am learning how to write stored proc's. I'm familiar with M$SQL and as far as I can see the following should work: use mydb; -- -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- -- Routine DDL -- -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- DELIMITER // CREATE PROCEDURE mydb.doStats () BEGIN CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS resultprobability ( ballNumber INT NOT NULL , probability FLOAT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (ballNumber) ); CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS drawProbability ( drawDate DATE NOT NULL , ball1 INT NULL , ball2 INT NULL , ball3 INT NULL , ball4 INT NULL , ball5 INT NULL , ball6 INT NULL , ball7 INT NULL , score FLOAT NULL , PRIMARY KEY (drawDate) ); TRUNCATE TABLE resultprobability; TRUNCATE TABLE drawprobability; INSERT INTO resultprobability (ballNumber, probability) (select resultset.ballNumber ballNumber,(count(0)/(select count(0) from resultset)) probability from resultset group by resultset.ballNumber); INSERT INTO drawProbability (drawDate, ball1, ball2, ball3, ball4, ball5, ball6, ball7, score) (select distinct r.drawDate, a.ballnumber ball1, b.ballnumber ball2, c.ballnumber ball3, d.ballnumber ball4, e.ballnumber ball5, f.ballnumber ball6,g.ballnumber ball7, ((a.probability + b.probability + c.probability + d.probability + e.probability + f.probability + g.probability)/7) score from resultset r inner join (select r.drawDate, r.ballNumber, p.probability from resultset r inner join resultprobability p on p.ballNumber = r.ballNumber where r.appearence = 1) a on a.drawdate = r.drawDate inner join (select r.drawDate, r.ballNumber, p.probability from resultset r inner join resultprobability p on p.ballNumber = r.ballNumber where r.appearence = 2) b on b.drawdate = r.drawDate inner join (select r.drawDate, r.ballNumber, p.probability from resultset r inner join resultprobability p on p.ballNumber = r.ballNumber where r.appearence = 3) c on c.drawdate = r.drawDate inner join (select r.drawDate, r.ballNumber, p.probability from resultset r inner join resultprobability p on p.ballNumber = r.ballNumber where r.appearence = 4) d on d.drawdate = r.drawDate inner join (select r.drawDate, r.ballNumber, p.probability from resultset r inner join resultprobability p on p.ballNumber = r.ballNumber where r.appearence = 5) e on e.drawdate = r.drawDate inner join (select r.drawDate, r.ballNumber, p.probability from resultset r inner join resultprobability p on p.ballNumber = r.ballNumber where r.appearence = 6) f on f.drawdate = r.drawDate inner join (select r.drawDate, r.ballNumber, p.probability from resultset r inner join resultprobability p on p.ballNumber = r.ballNumber where r.appearence = 7) g on g.drawdate = r.drawDate order by score desc); END // DELIMITER ; instead i get the following Executed successfully in 0.002 s, 0 rows affected. Line 1, column 1 Error code 1064, SQL state 42000: You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '' at line 26 Line 6, column 1 Error code 1064, SQL state 42000: You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near ')) probability from resultset group by resultset.ballNumber); INSERT INTO d' at line 1 Line 31, column 51 Error code 1064, SQL state 42000: You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near ') score from resultset r inner join (select r.drawDate, r.ballNumber, p.probabi' at line 1 Line 39, column 114 Execution finished after 0.002 s, 3 error(s) occurred. What am I doing wrong? I seem to have exhausted my limited mental abilities!

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  • Bluetooth connect to a RS232 adapter in android

    - by ThePosey
    Hello All, I am trying to use the Bluetooth Chat sample API app that google provides to connect to a bluetooth RS232 adapter hooked up to another device. Here is the app for reference: http://developer.android.com/resources/samples/BluetoothChat/index.html And here is the spec sheet for the RS232 connector just for reference: http://serialio.com/download/Docs/BlueSnap-guide-4.77%5FCommands.pdf Well the problem is that when I go to connect to the device with: mmSocket.connect(); (BluetoothSocket::connect()) I always get an IOException error thrown by the connect method. When I do a toString on the exception I get "Service discovery failed". My question is mostly what are the cases that would cause an IOException to get thrown in the connect method? I know those are in the source somewhere but I don't know exactly how the java layer that you write apps in and the C/C++ layer that contains the actual stacks interface. I know that it uses the bluez bluetooth stack which is written in C/C++ but not sure how that ties into the java layer which is what I would think is throwing the exception. Any help on pointing me to where I can try to dissect this issue would be incredible. Also just to note I am able to pair with the RS232 adapter just fine but I am never able to actually connect. Here is the logcat output for more reference: I/ActivityManager( 1018): Displayed activity com.example.android.BluetoothChat/.DeviceListActivity: 326 ms (total 326 ms) E/BluetoothService.cpp( 1018): stopDiscoveryNative: D-Bus error in StopDiscovery: org.bluez.Error.Failed (Invalid discovery session) D/BluetoothChat( 1729): onActivityResult -1 D/BluetoothChatService( 1729): connect to: 00:06:66:03:0C:51 D/BluetoothChatService( 1729): setState() STATE_LISTEN - STATE_CONNECTING E/BluetoothChat( 1729): + ON RESUME + I/BluetoothChat( 1729): MESSAGE_STATE_CHANGE: STATE_CONNECTING I/BluetoothChatService( 1729): BEGIN mConnectThread E/BluetoothService.cpp( 1018): stopDiscoveryNative: D-Bus error in StopDiscovery: org.bluez.Error.Failed (Invalid discovery session) E/BluetoothEventLoop.cpp( 1018): event_filter: Received signal org.bluez.Device:PropertyChanged from /org/bluez/1498/hci0/dev_00_06_66_03_0C_51 I/BluetoothChatService( 1729): CONNECTION FAIL TOSTRING: java.io.IOException: Service discovery failed D/BluetoothChatService( 1729): setState() STATE_CONNECTING - STATE_LISTEN D/BluetoothChatService( 1729): start D/BluetoothChatService( 1729): setState() STATE_LISTEN - STATE_LISTEN I/BluetoothChat( 1729): MESSAGE_STATE_CHANGE: STATE_LISTEN V/BluetoothEventRedirector( 1080): Received android.bleutooth.device.action.UUID I/NotificationService( 1018): enqueueToast pkg=com.example.android.BluetoothChat callback=android.app.ITransientNotification$Stub$Proxy@446327c8 duration=0 I/BluetoothChat( 1729): MESSAGE_STATE_CHANGE: STATE_LISTEN E/BluetoothEventLoop.cpp( 1018): event_filter: Received signal org.bluez.Device:PropertyChanged from /org/bluez/1498/hci0/dev_00_06_66_03_0C_51 V/BluetoothEventRedirector( 1080): Received android.bleutooth.device.action.UUID The device I'm trying to connect to is the 00:06:66:03:0C:51 which I can scan for and apparently pair with just fine.

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  • Eclipselink factory.createEntityManager() stalls with more than one instance running

    - by Raven
    Hi, with my RCP program I have the problem that I want to have more than one copy running on my PC. The first instance runs very good. If I start the second instance, everything is fine until I want to access the database. Using this code: .. Map properties = new HashMap(); properties.put("javax.persistence.jdbc.driver", dbDriver); properties.put("javax.persistence.jdbc.url", dbUrl); properties.put("javax.persistence.jdbc.user", dbUser); properties.put("javax.persistence.jdbc.password", dbPass); try { factory = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory( PERSISTENCE_UNIT_NAME, properties); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println(e); } em=factory.createEntityManager(); // the second instance stops here ... with an persistence.xml of <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <persistence version="1.0" xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence/persistence_1_0.xsd"> <persistence-unit name="default"> <provider>org.eclipse.persistence.jpa.PersistenceProvider</provider> <class>myclasshere</class> <properties> <property name="eclipselink.ddl-generation" value="create-tables" /> <property name="eclipselink.ddl-generation.output-mode" value="database" /> <property name="eclipselink.jdbc.read-connections.min" value="1" /> <property name="eclipselink.jdbc.write-connections.min" value="1" /> <property name="eclipselink.jdbc.batch-writing" value="JDBC" /> <property name="eclipselink.logging.level" value="SEVERE" /> <property name="eclipselink.logging.timestamp" value="false" /> <property name="eclipselink.logging.session" value="false" /> <property name="eclipselink.logging.thread" value="false" /> </properties> </persistence-unit> </persistence> The program stalls / does not continue in the second instance beyond this step: em=factory.createEntityManager(); Debugging the program step by step showed me, that nothing happens at this point. Perhaps the program runs into a timeout. I havent been wainting for more than 1 minute.... Do you have any clues what might cause this stall might?

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  • ASP.Net MVC Exception Logging combined with Error Handling

    - by Saajid Ismail
    Hi. I am looking for a simple solution to do Exception Logging combined with Error Handling in my ASP.Net MVC 1.0 application. I've read lots of articles, including Questions posted here on StackOverflow, which all provide varying solutions for different situations. I am still unable to come up with a solution that suits my needs. Here are my requirements: To be able to use the [HandleError] attribute (or something equivalent) on my Controller, to handle all exceptions that could be thrown from any of the Actions or Views. This should handle all exceptions that were not handled specifically on any of the Actions (as described in point 2). I would like to be able to specify which View a user must be redirected to in error cases, for all actions in the Controller. I want to be able to specify the [HandleError] attribute (or something equivalent) at the top of specific Actions to catch specific exceptions and redirect users to a View appropriate to the exception. All other exceptions must still be handled by the [HandleError] attribute on the Controller. In both cases above, I want the exceptions to be logged using log4net (or any other logging library). How do I go about achieving the above? I've read about making all my Controllers inherit from a base controller which overrides the OnException method, and wherein I do my logging. However this will mess around with redirecting users to the appropriate Views, or make it messy. I've read about writing my own Filter Action which implements IExceptionFilter to handle this, but this will conflict with the [HandleError] attribute. So far, my thoughts are that the best solution is to write my own attribute that inherits from HandleErrorAttribute. That way I get all the functionality of [HandleError], and can add my own log4net logging. The solution is as follows: public class HandleErrorsAttribute: HandleErrorAttribute { private log4net.ILog log = log4net.LogManager.GetLogger(System.Reflection.MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod().DeclaringType); public override void OnException(ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (filterContext.Exception != null) { log.Error("Error in Controller", filterContext.Exception); } base.OnException(filterContext); } } Will the above code work for my requirements? If not, what solution does fulfill my requirements?

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  • Haskell newbie on types

    - by garulfo
    I'm completely new to Haskell (and more generally to functional programming), so forgive me if this is really basic stuff. To get more than a taste, I try to implement in Haskell some algorithmic stuff I'm working on. I have a simple module Interval that implements intervals on the line. It contains the type data Interval t = Interval t t the helper function makeInterval :: (Ord t) => t -> t -> Interval t makeInterval l r | l <= r = Interval l r | otherwise = error "bad interval" and some utility functions about intervals. Here, my interest lies in multidimensional intervals (d-intervals), those objects that are composed of d intervals. I want to separately consider d-intervals that are the union of d disjoint intervals on the line (multiple interval) from those that are the union of d interval on d separate lines (track interval). With distinct algorithmic treatments in mind, I think it would be nice to have two distinct types (even if both are lists of intervals here) such as import qualified Interval as I -- Multilple interval newtype MInterval t = MInterval [I.Interval t] -- Track interval newtype TInterval t = TInterval [I.Interval t] to allow for distinct sanity checks, e.g. makeMInterval :: (Ord t) => [I.Interval t] -> MInterval t makeMInterval is = if foldr (&&) True [I.precedes i i' | (i, i') <- zip is (tail is)] then (MInterval is) else error "bad multiple interval" makeTInterval :: (Ord t) => [I.Interval t] -> TInterval t makeTInterval = TInterval I now get to the point, at last! But some functions are naturally concerned with both multiple intervals and track intervals. For example, a function order would return the number of intervals in a multiple interval or a track interval. What can I do? Adding -- Dimensional interval data DInterval t = MIntervalStuff (MInterval t) | TIntervalStuff (TInterval t) does not help much, since, if I understand well (correct me if I'm wrong), I would have to write order :: DInterval t -> Int order (MIntervalStuff (MInterval is)) = length is order (TIntervalStuff (TInterval is)) = length is and call order as order (MIntervalStuff is) or order (TIntervalStuff is) when is is a MInterval or a TInterval. Not that great, it looks odd. Neither I want to duplicate the function (I have many functions that are concerned with both multiple and track intevals, and some other d-interval definitions such as equal length multiple and track intervals). I'm left with the feeling that I'm completely wrong and have missed some important point about types in Haskell (and/or can't forget enough here about OO programming). So, quite a newbie question, what would be the best way in Haskell to deal with such a situation? Do I have to forget about introducing MInterval and TInterval and go with one type only? Thanks a lot for your help, Garulfo

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  • ASP.Net Web Farm Monitoring

    - by cisellis
    I am looking for suggestions on doing some simple monitoring of an ASP.Net web farm as close to real-time as possible. The objectives of this question are to: Identify the best way to monitor several Windows Server production boxes during short (minutes long) period of ridiculous load Receive near-real-time feedback on a few key metrics about each box. These are simple metrics available via WMI such as CPU, Memory and Disk Paging. I am defining my time constraints as soon as possible with 120 seconds delayed being the absolute upper limit. Monitor whether any given box is up (with "up" being defined as responding web requests in a reasonable amount of time) Here are more details, things I've tried, etc. I am not interested in logging. We have logging solutions in place. I have looked at solutions such as ELMAH which don't provide much in the way of hardware monitoring and are not visible across an entire web farm. ASP.Net Health Monitoring is too broad, focuses too much on logging and is not acceptable for deep analysis. We are on Amazon Web Services and we have looked into CloudWatch. It looks great but messages in the forum indicate that the metrics are often a few minutes behind, with one thread citing 2 minutes as the absolute soonest you could expect to receive the feedback. This would be good to have for later analysis but does not help us real-time Stuff like JetBrains profiler is good for testing but again, not helpful during real-time monitoring. The closest out-of-box solution I've seen is Nagios which is free and appears to measure key indicators on any kind of box, including Windows. However, it appears to require a Linux box to run itself on and a good deal of manual configuration. I'd prefer to not spend my time mining config files and then be up a creek when it fails in production since Linux is not my main (or even secondary) environment. Are there any out-of-box solutions that I am missing? Obviously a windows-based solution that is easy to setup is ideal. I don't require many bells and whistles. In the absence of an out-of-box solution, it seems easy for me to write something simple to handle what I need. I've been thinking a simple client-server setup where the server requests a few WMI metrics from each client over http and sticks them in a database. We could then monitor the metrics via a query or a dashboard or something. If the client doesn't respond, it's effectively down. Any problems with this, best practices, or other ideas? Thanks for any help/feedback.

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  • SubSonic 2.x now supports TVP's - SqlDbType.Structure / DataTables for SQL Server 2008

    - by ElHaix
    For those interested, I have now modified the SubSonic 2.x code to recognize and support DataTable parameter types. You can read more about SQL Server 2008 features here: http://download.microsoft.com/download/4/9/0/4906f81b-eb1a-49c3-bb05-ff3bcbb5d5ae/SQL%20SERVER%202008-RDBMS/T-SQL%20Enhancements%20with%20SQL%20Server%202008%20-%20Praveen%20Srivatsav.pdf What this enhancement will now allow you to do is to create a partial StoredProcedures.cs class, with a method that overrides the stored procedure wrapper method. A bit about good form: My DAL has no direct table access, and my DB only has execute permissions for that user to my sprocs. As such, SubSonic only generates the AllStructs and StoredProcedures classes. The SPROC: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[testInsertToTestTVP] @UserDetails TestTVP READONLY, @Result INT OUT AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; SET @Result = -1 --SET IDENTITY_INSERT [dbo].[tbl_TestTVP] ON INSERT INTO [dbo].[tbl_TestTVP] ( [GroupInsertID], [FirstName], [LastName] ) SELECT [GroupInsertID], [FirstName], [LastName] FROM @UserDetails IF @@ROWCOUNT > 0 BEGIN SET @Result = 1 SELECT @Result RETURN @Result END --SET IDENTITY_INSERT [dbo].[tbl_TestTVP] OFF END The TVP: CREATE TYPE [dbo].[TestTVP] AS TABLE( [GroupInsertID] [varchar](50) NOT NULL, [FirstName] [varchar](50) NOT NULL, [LastName] [varchar](50) NOT NULL ) GO The the auto gen tool runs, it creates the following erroneous method: /// <summary> /// Creates an object wrapper for the testInsertToTestTVP Procedure /// </summary> public static StoredProcedure TestInsertToTestTVP(string UserDetails, int? Result) { SubSonic.StoredProcedure sp = new SubSonic.StoredProcedure("testInsertToTestTVP", DataService.GetInstance("MyDAL"), "dbo"); sp.Command.AddParameter("@UserDetails", UserDetails, DbType.AnsiString, null, null); sp.Command.AddOutputParameter("@Result", DbType.Int32, 0, 10); return sp; } It sets UserDetails as type string. As it's good form to have two folders for a SubSonic DAL - Custom and Generated, I created a StoredProcedures.cs partial class in Custom that looks like this: /// <summary> /// Creates an object wrapper for the testInsertToTestTVP Procedure /// </summary> public static StoredProcedure TestInsertToTestTVP(DataTable dt, int? Result) { DataSet ds = new DataSet(); SubSonic.StoredProcedure sp = new SubSonic.StoredProcedure("testInsertToTestTVP", DataService.GetInstance("MyDAL"), "dbo"); // TODO: Modify the SubSonic code base in sp.Command.AddParameter to accept // a parameter type of System.Data.SqlDbType.Structured, as it currently only accepts // System.Data.DbType. //sp.Command.AddParameter("@UserDetails", dt, System.Data.SqlDbType.Structured null, null); sp.Command.AddParameter("@UserDetails", dt, SqlDbType.Structured); sp.Command.AddOutputParameter("@Result", DbType.Int32, 0, 10); return sp; } As you can see, the method signature now contains a DataTable, and with my modification to the SubSonic framework, this now works perfectly. I'm wondering if the SubSonic guys can modify the auto-gen to recognize a TVP in a sproc signature, as to avoid having to re-write the warpper? Does SubSonic 3.x support Structured data types? Also, I'm sure many will be interested in using this code, so where can I upload the new code? Thanks.

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  • How to inherit from DataAnnotations.ValidationAttribute (it appears SecureCritical under Visual Stud

    - by codetuner
    Hi, I have an [AllowPartiallyTrustedCallers] class library containing subtypes of the System.DataAnnotations.ValidationAttribute. The library is used on contract types of WCF services. In .NET 2/3.5, this worked fine. Since .NET 4.0 however, running a client of the service in the Visual Studio debugger results in the exception "Inheritance security rules violated by type: '(my subtype of ValidationAttribute)'. Derived types must either match the security accessibility of the base type or be less accessible." (System.TypeLoadException) The error appears to occure only when all of the following conditions are met: a subclass of ValidationAttribute is in an AllowPartiallyTrustedCallers assembly reflection is used to check for the attribute the Visual Studio hosting process is enabled (checkbox on Project properties, Debug tab) So basically, in Visual Studio.NET 2010: create a new Console project, add a reference to "System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations" 4.0.0.0, write the following code: . using System; [assembly: System.Security.AllowPartiallyTrustedCallers()] namespace TestingVaidationAttributeSecurity { public class MyValidationAttribute : System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations.ValidationAttribute { } [MyValidation] public class FooBar { } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Console.WriteLine("ValidationAttribute IsCritical: {0}", typeof(System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations.ValidationAttribute).IsSecurityCritical); FooBar fb = new FooBar(); fb.GetType().GetCustomAttributes(true); Console.WriteLine("Press enter to end."); Console.ReadLine(); } } } Press F5 and you get the exception ! Press Ctrl-F5 (start without debugging), and it all works fine without exception... The strange thing is that the ValidationAttribute will or will not be securitycritical depending on the way you run the program (F5 or Ctrl+F5). As illustrated by the Console.WriteLine in the above code. But then again, this appear to happen with other attributes (and types?) too. Now the questions... Why do I have this behaviour when inheriting from ValidationAttribute, but not when inheriting from System.Attribute ? (Using Reflector I don't find special settings on the ValidationAttribute class or it's assembly) And what can I do to solve this ? How can I keep MyValidationAttribute inheriting from ValidationAttribute in an AllowPartiallyTrustedCallers assembly without marking it SecurityCritical, still using the new .NET 4 level 2 security model and still have it work using the VS.NET debug host (or other hosts) ?? Thanks a lot! Rudi

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  • dojo.require() prevents Firefox from rendering the page

    - by Eduard Wirch
    Im experiencing strange behavior with Firefox and Dojo. I have a html page with these lines in the <head> section: ... <script type="text/javascript" src="dojo.js" djconfig="parseOnLoad: true, locale: 'de'"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> dojo.require("dojo.number"); </script> ... Sometimes the page loads normally. But sometimes it won't. Firefox will fetch the whole html page but not render it. I see only a gray window. After some experiments I figured out that the rendering problem has something to do with the load time of the html. Firefox starts evaluating the html page while loading it. If the page takes too long to load the above javascript will be executed BEFORE the html finishes loading. If this happens I'll get the gray window. Advising Firefox to show me the source code of the page will display the correct complete html code. BUT: if I save the page to disk (File-Save Page As...) the html code will be truncated and the above part will look like this: ... <script type="text/javascript" src="dojo.js" djconfig="parseOnLoad: true, locale: 'de'"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> dojo.require("dojo.number"); </script></head><body></body></html> This explains why I get to see a gray area. But why does this code appear there? I assume the require() method of Dojo does something "evil". But I can't figure out what. There is no write.document("</head><body></body></html>"); in the Dojo code. I checked for it. The problem would be fixed, if I'd place the dojo.require("dojo.number"); statement in the window.load event: <script type="text/javascript"> window.load=function() { dojo.require("dojo.number"); } </script> But I'm curious why this happens. Is there a Javasctript function which forces Firefox to stop evaluating the page? Does Dojo do somethig "bad"? Can anyone explain this behavior to me? EDIT: Dojo 1.3.1, no JS errors or warnings.

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